Unit 5 - B

Question 1

Which of the following is a key reason why non-human animals, rather than human beings, are often used to study the effects reinforcement history?

a. A previous history with the response and the reinforcer is not a problem with animals
b. Non-human animals have less capacity for reinforcement or punishment
c. Non-human animals typically have a shorter life span resulting in shorter learning histories
d. Extra-experimental variables with non-human animals can be more easily controlled

Answer 1

d. Extra-experimental variables with non-human animals can be more easily controlled

Question 2

Experimenters study the effects of reinforcement history by looking at how past experience with different reinforcement schedules can impact the _____ responding of various experimental subjects.

a. Current
b. Continuous
c. Past
d. Future

Answer 2

a. Current

Question 3

Each of the following is very likely an effect of a specific reinforcement history, except:

a. Contingency-shaped behavior that exhibits an extinction-burst
b. Behavior that persists in some contexts during extinction
c. Rule-governed behavior that does not match current contingencies
d. Responding that occurs at unpredictably high or low rates

Answer 3

a. Contingency-shaped behavior that exhibits an extinction-burst

Question 4

Each of the following is a characteristic of a fixed Interval schedule that makes it particularly sensitive to the effects of reinforcement history, except:

a. Response rates can vary widely without affecting reinforcement rate
.b FI schedules do not select against particular rates or patterns of responding
c. Responses during the interval do not influence the delivery of the reinforcer
d. FI schedules result in a steady, moderate response pattern that is easily altered

Answer 4

d. FI schedules result in a steady, moderate response pattern that is easily altered

Question 5

Weiner demonstrated which of the following reinforcement history effects on responding during FI schedules?

a. Exposure to FR schedules before FI dramatically affected FI performance
b. Current contingencies influence on response rate is independent of history
c. Distinct stimuli correlations may decrease influence of history
d. Remote history does not affect future responding

Answer 5

a. Exposure to FR schedules before FI dramatically affected FI performance

Question 6

Alleman & Zeiler (1974) found that response rates tended to exhibit which of the following patterns?

a. No difference during FT after exposure to either a DRL or FR
b. High during FT after exposure to a DRL
c. Low during FT after exposure to a FR
d. Low during FT after exposure to a DRL

Answer 6

d. Low during FT after exposure to a DRL

Question 7

A previous history of reinforcement is necessary in order to utilize a(n):

a. Time-based schedule
b. Interval schedule
c. Extinction schedule
d. Ratio schedule

Answer 7

c. Extinction schedule

Question 8

Which of the following tends to be easiest for caregivers to implement?

a. These would all be equally difficult to implement
b. Interval-based schedule
c. Ratio-based schedule
d. Extinction schedule

Answer 8

b. Interval-based schedule

Question 9

Research on schedules of reinforcement, and the effect of various histories of reinforcement, suggests that which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. After using DRA with a ratio schedule to establish a reinforcement history, a shift to an interval schedule may successfully maintain appropriate behavior
b. Response rates on an interval schedule can be manipulated by arranging for particular reinforcement histories in individual learners
c. Ratio schedules are far easier to implement than interval schedules, and require less staffing resources in most settings
d. Effects of reinforcement history can be utilized and manipulated to improve intervention outcomes

Answer 9

c. Ratio schedules are far easier to implement than interval schedules, and require less staffing resources in most settings

Question 10

Operant extinction is, in part, defined by:

a. Voluntary responses and broken contingencies
b. Involuntary responses and negative contingencies
c. Involuntary responses and broken contingencies
d. Voluntary responses and negative contingencies

Answer 10

a. Voluntary responses and broken contingencies

Question 11

Eva appropriately raises her hand. Her teacher responds to the other children yelling out answers in class, but does not call on Eva when she has her hand raised. After several days, Eva stops raising her hand, and begins to yell out her answers in class. The change in Eva’s hand raising is the result of:

a. DRI
b. Operant Extinction
c. Respondent extinction
d. The high-P procedure

Answer 11

b. Operant Extinction

Question 12

Which of the following is a difference between operant and respondent extinction?

a. One is based on function, while the other is based on topography
b. One decreases while the other increases frequency of responding
c. Each distinct type works on different types of responses
d. Each distinct type works on different behavioral topographies

Answer 12

c. Each distinct type works on different types of responses

Question 13

Operant extinction is a component of which of the following procedures?

a. DRO
b. High- P
c. Prompt fading
d. Punishment

Answer 13

a. DRO

Question 14

The essential feature of the ______ of extinction is discontinuation of the contingency between the response and the reinforcer.

a. Plan
b. Procedure
c. Punishment
d. Process

Answer 14

b. Procedure

Question 15

Charlotte’s yelling at the grocery store appeared to be maintained by receiving candy. The BCaBA instructs mom to no longer provide candy when Charlotte yells. Charlotte continues to yell for four more weeks with a gradual reduction in duration of this behavior. The gradual reduction in duration of yelling represents ______ of extinction.

a. A side effect
b. A schedule
c. The procedure
d. The process

Answer 15

d. The process

Question 16

In comparison to a target behavior for reduction that is simply annoying or irritating, dangerous or destructive problem behavior is:

a. Almost always more difficult to consistently treat with extinction procedures
b. Far less difficult to address, and far more likely to be reduced by extinction
c. Equally difficult to effectively reduce, but more likely to exhibit an extinction burst
d. Unethical to address through a combination of reinforcement of alternative behavior and extinction

Answer 16

a. Almost always more difficult to consistently treat with extinction procedures

Question 17

The implementation of extinction procedures typically produces a(n) ______ reduction in responding.

a. Variable
b. Consistent
c. Immediate
d. Gradual

Answer 17

d. Gradual

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT considered a response-generative effect of extinction?

a. Aggression
b. Response reduction
c. Emotional outbursts
d. Response variation

Answer 18

b. Response reduction

Question 19

Which of the following behaviors is most likely respondent behavior elicited by the initiation of extinction procedures?

a. Initial burst in response rate of target behavior
b. Resurgence of previously extinguished behavior
c. Extinction-induced aggression
d. Response variation

Answer 19

c. Extinction-induced aggression

Question 20

Response variation forms the basis for:

a. Teaching response generalization
b. Shaping new behavior
c. Reducing the use of extinction
d. Eliminating aggression

Answer 20

b. Shaping new behavior

Question 21

The “response-generative” effects of extinction are also known as the ____ effects of extinction.

a. Primary
b. Positive treatment
c. Side
d. Respondent

Answer 21

c. Side

Question 22

When the target behavior treated by extinction returns in a different context, even though extinction procedures are still in effect, this phenomenon is known as:

a. Repetition
b. Return
c. Renewal
d. Resurgence

Answer 22

c. Renewal

Question 23

Which of the following is true regarding treatment integrity? Errors of commission are:

a. Defined as occurring when a treatment component is inappropriately applied
b. Seen when the treatment component is not applied when it should have been
c. The only type of treatment integrity error related to extinction
d. Caused by treatment integrity problems, and always lead to treatment relapse

Answer 23

a. Defined as occurring when a treatment component is inappropriately applied

Question 24

Which of the following is not a way to plan for extinction-induced aggression?

a. Make sure the treatment procedures selected are functional and doable for the caregiver
b. Immediately place aggression on extinction; supervise caregivers in ignoring all functional equivalents
c. Inform the caregivers of the possible side effects, such as aggression, when implementing extinction
d. Outline possible treatment procedures for controlling and managing aggression

Answer 24

b. Immediately place aggression on extinction; supervise caregivers in ignoring all functional equivalents

Question 25

The reduction in a target response placed on extinction can occur much more quickly when combined with ______ procedures targeting alternative responses. a. All of these are correct b. Punishment-based c. Reinforcement-based d. No other

Answer 25

c. Reinforcement-based

Question 26

“PREE” refers to a phenomenon where response reduction typically happens more quickly after ______ reinforcement rather than ______ reinforcement. a. Fixed; variable b. Continuous; intermittent c. Intermittent; continuous d. Variable; fixed

Answer 26

b. Continuous; intermittent

Question 27

Studies cited in this unit demonstrated that the partial reinforcement extinction effect is: a. Likely to be unethical under all circumstances b. Unpredictable and potentially influenced by a variety of variables c. Very likely in operant extinction, but not in respondent extinction conditions d. Likely to occur whenever intermittent reinforcement follows continuous reinforcement

Answer 27

b. Unpredictable and potentially influenced by a variety of variables

Question 28

An unexpected finding in the study of PREE by Lerman and colleagues was the fact that two of the experimental subjects exhibited which of the following? a. A conclusive PREE effect during baseline b. A complete lack of responding c. No PREE effect whatsoever d. A reverse PREE effect

Answer 28

d. A reverse PREE effect

Question 29

All of the following are potential reasons a behavior analyst may want to consider briefly reinforcing problem behavior on a FR1 prior to extinction, except: a. It directly assesses the reinforcement history of the individual b. It might be done as part of an experimental functional analysis c. More rapid extinction effects could be produced d. The overall response rate could be reduced

Answer 29

a. It directly assesses the reinforcement history of the individual

Question 30

The durability of history effects varies significantly across various studies. This is most likely a result of: a. Treatment integrity issues with some of the studies b. Differences in experimental procedures or extra-experimental histories c. The response topography being examined d. Unreasonable expectations of the experimenters

Answer 30

b. Differences in experimental procedures or extra-experimental histories

Question 31

An extreme case of sequential confounding can be characterized as _____. a. Multiple causation b. Treatment relapse c. Skill erosion d. Irreversibility

Answer 31

d. Irreversibility

Question 32

Sequential confounding in the reversal experimental design typically occurs when one phase follows another, and: a. The effects of the current phase cannot be separated from the history with the previous phase b. Responding remains the same across multiple phases, producing no effect c. The sequence of several confounds in an experimental design is ambiguous and unclear d. Two different schedules of reinforcement are rapidly alternated

Answer 32

a. The effects of the current phase cannot be separated from the history with the previous phase

Question 33

Multielement designs may be more prone than other designs to which of the following? a. Extra-experimental history b. All of these are problems specific to the multi-element design c. Carryover/alternation effects d. Poor discrimination between conditions

Answer 33

c. Carryover/alternation effects

Question 34

According to Dr. St. Peter, multiple baseline designs may be desirable clinically, but can have problems in: a. Treatment integrity b. Experimental control c. Sequential irreversibility d. Accurate data collection

Answer 34

b. Experimental control

Question 35

Use of a changing criterion experimental design may help to avoid which of the following problems? a. Ratio strain b. Irreversibility c. Carryover d. Dependent responding

Answer 35

a. Ratio strain