Unit 3 - B Flashcards

1
Q

Reinforcement is provided for the first response that follows a pre-determined amount of time. This describes a(n) ___ schedule:

a. Interval
b. Fixed time
c. Response-independent
d. DRO

A

a. Interval

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2
Q

The delivery of stimuli known to be reinforcers in other contexts, strictly based on the passage of time, describes a(n) ___ schedule:

a. DRO
b. DRL-T
c. Response-independent
d. Interval

A

c. Response-independent

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3
Q

All of the following illustrate different types of differential reinforcement schedules, except:

a. DRJ
b. DRA
c. DRH
d. DRL

A

a. DRJ

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4
Q

When a reinforcer follows a response, its effect depends on its relation not only to that specific response, but also to other responses preceding it. This spread of the effect of the consequence to other prior responses illustrates the effect of:

a. Delay contingencies
b. Non-contingent contingencies
c. Faded contingencies
d. Immediate contingencies

A

a. Delay contingencies

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5
Q

When task materials and relevant instructions do not occasion predetermined levels of performance in the absence of prompts, and supplementary reinforcement has no effect on increasing that individual’s level of performance, this is called a ___ deficit:

a. Skill
b. Performance
c. Learning
d. Cognitive

A

a. Skill

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6
Q

Which of the following is not considered a limitation of shaping as in intervention strategy?

a. Infrequent delivery of reinforcement (due to low rates of acceptable approximation responses) may result in a decrease in responding, and possibly extinction
b. Frequent reinforcer delivery can result in satiation, and may serve to strengthen early responses only
c. Prompts must be faded in a highly consistent fashion, which requires highly trained program implementers
d. Shaping requires that some behavior, which can be shaped towards the target topography, is already occurring

A

c. Prompts must be faded in a highly consistent fashion, which requires highly trained program implementers

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7
Q

Frequent reinforcement during shaping can result in:

a. Reduction in intrinsic motivation
b. Satiation-based reduction in responding
c. Deprivation-based motivating operations
d. Prompt dependency

A

b. Satiation-based reduction in responding

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8
Q

Which of the following schedules of reinforcement has been used to increase response diversity?

a. Extinction schedules
b. Chain schedules
c. Lag-reinforcement schedules
d. Continuous schedules

A

c. Lag-reinforcement schedules

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9
Q

Which of the following procedures can be effectively used to promote independent responding?

a. Changing reinforcement schedules and using different quality of reinforcers
b. Changing reinforcement schedules and using static levels of prompting
c. Using different quality of reinforcers and static levels of prompting
d. Using static levels of prompting, different quality of reinforcers, and changing reinforcement schedules

A

a. Changing reinforcement schedules and using different quality of reinforcers

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10
Q

What term is used to refer to the type of reward that is naturally related to the responses that produce it?

a. Extrinsic
b. Non-contingent
c. Intrinsic
d. Contingent

A

c. Intrinsic

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11
Q

The idea that extrinsic rewards will have a detrimental effect on intrinsic motivation, which will in turn lead to decreases in engagement, is known as the:

a. Adjunctive behavior hypothesis
b. Behavioral momentum hypothesis
c. Over-justification hypothesis
d. Abolishing operation hypothesis

A

c. Over-justification hypothesis

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12
Q

Each of the following may account for certain examples in the literature of apparent lessened intrinsic motivation when extrinsic rewards are utilized, except:

a. Behavior contrast effects between conditions
b. Satiation effects related to extended access to reinforcing items/activities
c. Carry-over effects (continuity of rates across phase changes)
d. Learned helplessness due to the delivery of non-contingent consequences

A

c. Carry-over effects (continuity of rates across phase changes)

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13
Q

Reinforcer assessments are important to conduct, in part, because we need to know

a. How well stimuli identified as “preferred” actually function as reinforcers.
b. If reinforcing items and activities are also preferred.
c. What stimuli an individual likes and does not like.
d. Which stimuli are likely to evoke and/or maintain problem behaviors.

A

a. How well stimuli identified as “preferred” actually function as reinforcers.

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14
Q

Stimulus preference assessments typically utilize

a. Realistic schedules of reinforcement
b. All of the other answers are features of stimulus preference assessments.
c. Work requirements to produce the stimulus
d. Simplistic responses

A

d. Simplistic responses

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15
Q

A concurrent schedule reinforcer assessment may be effective at determining the _______ effects of stimuli as reinforcers. However, a single-schedule design may be more appropriate to determine ________effects, as the potential reinforcing effects of a lesser-preferred stimulus may be masked under a concurrent schedule.

a. Relative, absolute
b. False positive, false negative
c. Absolute, relative
d. False negative, false positive

A

a. Relative, absolute

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16
Q

Response rates (measured relative to baseline rates), response allocation, and break points are all potential dependent variables when a behavior analyst is performing a ____ assessment.

a. Reinforcer
b. Preference
c. Competing item
d. Functional

A

a. Reinforcer

17
Q

Which of the following describes a reinforcement procedure in which response requirements increase following each reinforcement, until the participant ceases to respond for criterion amount of time, at which time the session ends?

a. Multiple stimulus without replacement
b. Concurrent schedule
c. DRO
d. Progressive Ratio schedule

A

d. Progressive Ratio schedule

18
Q

The broadly outlined two-step process for clearly identifying reinforcers involves conducting:

a. Descriptive assessments to determine maintaining variables, followed by a formal functional analysis
b. Stimulus preference assessments, followed by direct reinforcer assessments
c. Single operant arrangements and concurrent schedule arrangements, to test relative vs absolute value.
d. Interviews with caregivers and then offering arrays of choices

A

b. Stimulus preference assessments, followed by direct reinforcer assessments

19
Q

Studies examining the efficacy of teacher reports (i.e., Cote et al., 2007) have generally found that indirect teacher assessments

a. Can often identify high preference stimuli more accurately than systematic preference assessment methods
b. Never accurately identify high preference stimuli
c. Can sometimes identify certain high preference stimuli, but not as consistently or accurately as systematic preference assessment methods
d. Are equally effective in identifying high preference stimuli as are the systematic preference assessment methods

A

c. Can sometimes identify certain high preference stimuli, but not as consistently or accurately as systematic preference assessment methods

20
Q

While this category of preference assessment is least effortful, the results may be subjective, and do not always correspond with data-based methods.

a. Direct preference assessment
b. Naturalistic observation
c. Indirect preference assessment
d. Structural assessment

A

c. Indirect preference assessment

21
Q

In this selection-based preference assessment method, two items are presented at a time until all items have been presented together.

a. Multiple stimulus with replacement
b. Single item
c. Paired choice
d. Multiple stimulus without replacement

A

c. Paired choice

22
Q

Rebekkah wants to do a paired-stimulus preference assessment with Zac. She has 10 items she wants to compare to each other, to create a full preference hierarchy. What is the minimum number of trials Rebekkah has to run to be certain to compare each item to each other item at least once?

a. 45 trials
b. 100 trials
c. 10 trials
d. 80 trials

A

a. 45 trials

23
Q

Which of the following preference assessments would you avoid using if you only had a very brief amount of time to assess stimulus preferences?

a. Paired-stimulus assessments
b. You would not use any of these; they all take a great deal of time
c. Multiple stimulus assessments
d. Indirect preference assessments

A

a. Paired-stimulus assessments

24
Q

The preference assessment requiring the individual to be fluent in the least number of pre-requisite skills, and thus the one most likely to be used with individuals with severe functional deficits is the __________ assessment.

a. Single stimulus
b. Multiple stimulus without replacement
c. Multiple stimulus with replacement
d. Paired-stimulus

A

a. Single stimulus

25
Q

In this method of preference assessment, items are presented to the individual either together or individually, and the amount of time spent engaged with each item is recorded.

a. Paired-stimulus assessment
b. Single-stimulus assessment
c. Multiple stimulus assessment
d. Duration-based assessment

A

d. Duration-based assessment

26
Q

Vocal verbal stimulus preference assessments are best used with individuals who exhibit skills in the area of

a. Approach responding
b. Visual scanning
c. Auditory match-to-sample
d. Visual match-to-sample

A

c. Auditory match-to-sample

27
Q

According to Cohen-Almeida, Graff, and Ahearn (2000), the effective use of verbal preference assessments depends on:

a. The individual’s reasoning abilities
b. The items being assessed
c. The individual’s picture-to-object matching abilities
d. The individual’s language abilities

A

d. The individual’s language abilities

28
Q

Three stimulus types used to present activities during preference assessments include

a. Vocal, signed, written
b. Free operant, single item, absence
c. Object, verbal, tangible
d. Picture, object, spoken

A

d. Picture, object, spoken

29
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of verbal or pictorial stimulus preference assessments?

a. These can only be used in relation to forced-choice procedures
b. These assessment are only useful in terms of identifying preferences between objects or food
c. Both types (verbal and pictorial assessments) should only be used with individuals who have demonstrated high levels of discrimination skills
d. The verbal assessment tends to be accurate, while the pictorial assessment tends to be inaccurate

A

c. Both types (verbal and pictorial assessments) should only be used with individuals who have demonstrated high levels of discrimination skills

30
Q

Which preference assessment method is LEAST appropriate to use if the time available to complete the assessment is limited?

a. MSWO
b. Free operant
c. Single stimulus
d. Paired-stimulus

A

d. Paired-stimulus

31
Q

If problem behavior is strictly maintained by access to attention, which stimulus preference assessment technique would be least appropriate (most likely to evoke problem behavior)?

a. Free operant
b. Single stimulus
c. Paired stimulus
d. Multiple stimulus

A

a. Free operant

32
Q

According to the Graff & Karsten (2012), all of the following are commonly used as reinforcers by both BCaBAs and BCBAs, EXCEPT:

a. Breaks from work
b. Money
c. Tokens
d. Edibles

A

b. Money

33
Q

Whether or not a particular reinforcer is appropriate, and not disruptive to ongoing behavior in a particular environment, is directly related to the…

a. Ecological fit of a reinforcer
b. Predictions based on a preference assessment hierarchy
c. Behavior contrast effects of reinforcement
d. Assessment of reinforcer value

A

a. Ecological fit of a reinforcer

34
Q

Which of the following is an argument in favor of the use of social reinforcers?

a. It may be less subject to satiation
b. It is disruptive of ongoing behavior
c. It is unnatural in a classroom setting
d. It may be difficult to deliver immediately

A

a. It may be less subject to satiation

35
Q

Which preference assessment procedure is most appropriate if an individual’s motor skills are intact, but the individual cannot visually scan an array of stimuli?

a. Paired stimulus
b. MSWO
c. Free operant
d. Single stimulus

A

d. Single stimulus