Unit 3 - A

Question 1

Which of the following schedules pre-specifies a number of responses that need to occur for reinforcement to be provided?

a. Response-independent
b. Ratio
c. Interval
d. DRO

Answer 1

b. Ratio

Question 2

An interval schedule of reinforcement specifies an interval of time

a. Which must elapse, immediately followed by the delivery of a reinforcing stimulus
b. That needs to elapse before the next target response is reinforced
c. That has to elapse in the absence of a specific response, followed by the delivery of a reinforcer
d. During which a specific number of target responses must occur for a reinforcer to be delivered

Answer 2

b. That needs to elapse before the next target response is reinforced

Question 3

Differential reinforcement in which a response is reinforced only if it occurs within a pre-specified period of time since a previous response.

a. DRO
b. DRA
c. DRL
d. DRH

Answer 3

d. DRH

Question 4

When a reinforcer follows a response, its future effect relates to:

a. That target response, and to other different responses which occur soon after the consequence
b. Only responses which immediately follows the consequence
c. That target response, and possibly some other responses which precede the target response (typically in close temporal contiguity)
d. Only that target response which immediately precedes the reinforcer

Answer 4

c. That target response, and possibly some other responses which precede the target response (typically in close temporal contiguity)

Question 5

Jimi does not do well when asked to fold flyers and place them into envelopes at his workshop. He takes nearly 15 minutes to complete even one envelope. A token program is put in place at the workshop, and within two days, Jimi is completing dozens of envelopes by the end of every 2-hour work session. This sudden improvement in Jimi’s productivity indicates that Jimi’s prior low rate of production was most likely due to:

a. A skill deficit
b. A performance deficit
c. Bi-polar disorder or ADHD
d. Lack of intrinsic motivation

Answer 5

b. A performance deficit

Question 6

Shaping consists of gradually changing a(n)___________ by differentially reinforcing successive approximations to a target behavior

a. Property of responding
b. Response prompt
c. Property of stimuli
d. Stimulus prompt

Answer 6

a. Property of responding

Question 7

The extinction component of shaping tends to X response Y .

a.
X = Decrease
Y = Variability

b.
X = Decrease
Y = Value

c.
X = Increase
Y = Variability

d.
X = Increase
Y = Strength over time

Answer 7

c.
X = Increase
Y = Variability

Question 8

To increase response diversity, a lag-3 schedule of reinforcement is utilized. This means that the current response is reinforced only if it…

a. Is the same as the last 3 preceding responses (along the specified dimension)
b. Is the third of 3 different responses
c. Occurs 3 times in a row since the last delivery of reinforcement
d. Is different from the last 3 preceding responses (along the specified dimension)

Answer 8

d. Is different from the last 3 preceding responses (along the specified dimension)

Question 9

Which of the following techniques may be used to promote the rapid acquisition of independent responding? Prompted responses are…

a. Quickly reinforced while unprompted responses are reinforced after increasing delays to promote generalization
b. Always reinforced while unprompted responses are intermittently reinforced
c. Consistently provided with less reinforcement than unprompted, independent responses
d. Reinforced equally with unprompted responses, since they are all correct responses

Answer 9

c. Consistently provided with less reinforcement than unprompted, independent responses

Question 10

What term is used to refer to the type of reward that is arbitrarily related to the responses that produce it?

a. Extrinsic reward
b. Intrinsic reward
c. Contingent reward
d. Variable ratio reward

Answer 10

a. Extrinsic reward

Question 11

The idea that extrinsic rewards have a detrimental effect on intrinsic motivation, and lead to a decline in some aspect(s) of an individual’s performance is otherwise known as the _____ hypothesis.

a. Overjustification
b. De-motivational
c. Reductional
d. Adjunctive

Answer 11

a. Overjustification

Question 12

Which of the following should NOT be considered as a possible factor that could help account for apparent lessened “intrinsic” motivation after extrinsic rewards have been introduced into an environment?

a. Satiation on the reinforcing activity
b. Reductive effect of reinforcement (“punishment by reward”)
c. Learned helplessness (“It doesn’t matter how well I do”)
d. Behavior contrast effects between conditions

Answer 12

b. Reductive effect of reinforcement (“punishment by reward”)

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true regarding over-justification?

a. Satiation is the underlying cause of each and every over-justification effect seen in research
b. Over-justification is a colloquial term for the more technical idea of “lack of motivation”
c. Over-justification is more pronounced for behavior which is already occurring at a high level (e.g., rate or fluency)
d. The over-justification effect does not occur when studied systematically

Answer 13

c. Over-justification is more pronounced for behavior which is already occurring at a high level (e.g., rate or fluency)

Question 14

Which of the following statements is true regarding stimulus preference assessments (SPAs)?

a. SPAs are simple forms of reinforcer assessments
b. Reinforcer assessments are just a prediction of the efficacy of stimuli, while direct SPAs provide hard numerical data
c. SPAs are typically conducted under low effort requirements, and evoke simplistic responses
d. One should conduct either a SPA or a reinforcer assessment; it is unnecessary to conduct both

Answer 14

c. SPAs are typically conducted under low effort requirements, and evoke simplistic responses

Question 15

After conducting a stimulus preference assessment, one should still conduct a reinforcer assessment because

a. Stimulus preference assessments provide only a prediction of the efficacy of stimuli as reinforcers
b. Preference assessments can never be conducted on a daily basis, while reinforcer assessments can be conducted daily
c. Reinforcer assessments provide more accurate predictions of the evocative effect of reinforcers
d. Stimulus preference assessments provide no information on likely reinforcers

Answer 15

a. Stimulus preference assessments provide only a prediction of the efficacy of stimuli as reinforcers

Question 16

Roscoe, Iwata, & Kahng (1999) compared rates of responding when consequated by high-preference and low-preference stimuli in concurrent schedules. They then assessed low-preference stimuli alone, in single-operant schedules. They found that…

a. The low-preference stimuli produced high response rates under the concurrent schedule arrangement, but lower under the single schedule arrangement
b. The low-preference stimuli produced low rates under the concurrent schedule, but often produced high rates during the single-operant schedule
c. Both high- and low-preference stimuli produced similar response rates under both concurrent and single stimulus arrangements
d. The low-preference stimulus always produced low response rates under both arrangements

Answer 16

b. The low-preference stimuli produced low rates under the concurrent schedule, but often produced high rates during the single-operant schedule

Question 17

A progressive ratio schedule is a reinforcement schedule in which the ratio requirements increase following each X . Sessions continue until the participant ceases to respond for a(n) Y that meets a pre-determined criterion.

a.
X = Reinforcer delivery
Y = number of trials

b.
X = Block of time
Y = number of trials

c.
X = Reinforcer delivery
Y = amount of time

d.
X = Block of time
Y = amount of time

Answer 17

c.
X = Reinforcer delivery
Y = amount of time

Question 18

A “break point” refers to the _______ before responding ceases for a set amount of time (the session-termination criterion).

a. Total duration of work completed prior to a break, when
b. Highest schedule requirement (thinnest reinforcement schedule) completed
c. Total amount of work completed (total number of responses)
d. Observed rate of responding (over a set measurement period) immediately

Answer 18

b. Highest schedule requirement (thinnest reinforcement schedule) completed

Question 19

In the studies comparing differing methods of assessment, which of the following common methods used in stimulus preference assessments has been most reliable in predicting stimuli that actually function as reinforcers?

a. Single-stimulus or choice-based preference assessments
b. Formal interview/questionnaire tools such as the RAISD
c. All of these methods are equally predictive
d. Informal caregiver surveys and interviews with the individual

Answer 19

a. Single-stimulus or choice-based preference assessments

Question 20

While this category of preference assessment is most accurate, it is also typically the most time-consuming method.

a. Direct assessment
b. Criterion-based assessment
c. Indirect assessment
d. Informal assessment

Answer 20

a. Direct assessment

Question 21

In selection-based preference assessments, preference hierarchies are created based on percentages. Higher percentages indicate stronger preferences. For some forms of preference assessment, hierarchies are created by dividing:

a. The number of times an item was approached, by the number of times that item was available
b. The number times an item was ignored (not approached), by the number of times that item was available
c. The number of times an item was approached, by the number of times it was ignored (not approached)
d. The number of times an item was approached, by the total number of trials for all items during the preference assessment

Answer 21

a. The number of times an item was approached, by the number of times that item was available

Question 22

During a selection-based preference assessment, Shelia presents Dylan with an array of 10 objects. When he chooses one, she allows him to manipulate it for a short time, and then removes it from the table. He now may choose from an array of 9 objects. This process continues until he makes a choice between the final two objects. Shelia keeps track of the order in which the objects are chosen. Which of the following statements is true?

a. As an MSWO, this will provide a reasonably sensitive preference hierarchy, with less effort for Shelia than a paired choice procedure
b. This is a forced-choice preference assessment, and produces the most sensitive hierarchy
c. Shelia is using an MSW procedure, and will identify a clear and distinct preference hierarchy
d. The size of the array will have no possible effect on the results of the assessment, and this procedure will not trigger problem behavior

Answer 22

a. As an MSWO, this will provide a reasonably sensitive preference hierarchy, with less effort for Shelia than a paired choice procedure

Question 23

To determine how many trials you have to do, you use the following formula: The required number of trials = N (N-1)/2. This formula applies to which of the following selection-based preference assessment procedures?

a. Multiple stimulus with replacement (MSW)
b. Paired stimulus (aka, paired-choice) preference assessment (PS)
c. Single stimulus preference assessment (SS)
d. Multiple stimulus without replacement (MSWO)

Answer 23

b. Paired stimulus (aka, paired-choice) preference assessment (PS)

Question 24

One advantage of the multiple-stimulus preference assessment is that it can:

a. Produce a preference hierarchy quickly, and thus may be used on a daily basis (to capture short term changes in preference hierarchies for that day)
b. Highly unlikely to produce either false positives or false negatives, since all stimuli (including food items) are tested at once
c. Include an unlimited number of items in a single array, so that a single set of trials, for one array, may allow one to construct a comprehensive hierarchy
d. Be very useful for individuals with significant limitations in scanning and choice-making skills

Answer 24

a. Produce a preference hierarchy quickly, and thus may be used on a daily basis (to capture short term changes in preference hierarchies for that day)

Question 25

In competing stimulus preference assessments, the following two measures are recorded:

a. The proportion of allocation for stimulus one and stimulus two
b. The duration of stimulus engagement, and rate of problem behavior
c. The number of times an item was selected, and the rate of manding
d. The number of items selected, and the duration of engagement with each

Answer 25

b. The duration of stimulus engagement, and rate of problem behavior

Question 26

When an individual has difficulty scanning an array, and often picks up whatever is put in front of them, a preference hierarchy can be still developed by using a _______ preference assessment.

a. Duration-based single-stimulus
b. Multiple stimulus without replacement
c. Paired-stimulus (aka, paired-choice)
d. Pictorial stimulus

Answer 26

a. Duration-based single-stimulus

Question 27

All of the following statement-completions regarding paired-choice preference assessments are true, except: Paired-choice (aka paired-stimulus) preference assessments….

a. Provide the most accurate preference hierarchy
b. Can be the most time consuming of all preference assessment techniques
c. Provide neither false positives nor false negatives regarding reinforcer effectiveness
d. Can be subject to position bias, which may be difficult to eliminate

Answer 27

c. Provide neither false positives nor false negatives regarding reinforcer effectiveness

Question 28

When an individual persists in exhibiting position biases during a direct preference assessment, a behavior analyst might effectively complete a preference assessment by using ___________

a. Single stimulus approach-based procedures only
b. Either single-stimulus approach-based procedures, or duration based procedures, but not a paired-choice procedures
c. Paired-choice procedures only
d. Duration-based procedures only

Answer 28

b. Either single-stimulus approach-based procedures, or duration based procedures, but not a paired-choice procedures

Question 29

Conyers et.al. (2002), arranged a study of the accuracy of various types of stimulus preference assessments (as measured by how often a food item, identified as preferred, was chosen in trials offering a choice of two items). They looked at learners who demonstrated discrimination and other skills at a variety of functional levels (as evaluated under the Assessment of Basic Learning Abilities (ABLA) tool). The found, as logic might also suggest, that the ______ stimulus preference assessment was the most accurate when measured across ALL learners (both low and high functioning).

a. Verbal
b. Indirect
c. Pictorial
d. Object

Answer 29

d. Object

Question 30

What is NOT a consideration when selecting a preference assessment method?

a. Can the selected stimulus be easily delivered following the individual’s selection
b. Is the individual sensitive to contingencies
c. Time available to complete the assessment
d. Function of problem behavior

Answer 30

b. Is the individual sensitive to contingencies

Question 31

If problem behavior is maintained by access to tangible reinforcers, which SPA would be most appropriate and least likely to evoke problem behavior?

a. Paired-stimulus
b. MSW
c. Free Operant
d. MSWO

Answer 31

c. Free Operant

Question 32

In a preference assessment study, Kuhn et.al (2006) compared (1) allowing an individual to indicate their preference between two verbally described items or activities without obtaining the item, versus (2) providing that individual with the actual tangible item or activity contingent upon that individual selecting that item. What differential effect does providing the actual item following its selection have on the resulting preference hierarchy as a predictor of how various items will function as reinforcers?

a. Contingent delivery of selected items leads to the identification of stimuli more likely to function as reinforcers
b. Contingent delivery identifies stimuli which will not function as reinforcers under any circumstances
c. There is no reliable predictive effect of contingent delivery
d. Contingent delivery is highly predictive of only those items which are likely to function as punishers

Answer 32

a. Contingent delivery of selected items leads to the identification of stimuli more likely to function as reinforcers

Question 33

When we refer to the ecological fit of reinforcers, we are actually referring, in part, to…

a. The degree to which a reinforcer works as a natural component of a specific setting
b. Whether a reinforcer is biological (unconditioned) or learned
c. Whether the reinforcer fits in as an intrinsic or extrinsic stimulus
d. The environmental impact of the use of a reinforcer (e.g., cigarettes)

Answer 33

a. The degree to which a reinforcer works as a natural component of a specific setting

Question 34

All of the following are arguments in favor of use of praise/social reinforcer, except that they

a. Are natural in the classroom
b. Are likely to take more time to deliver
c. May be less subject to satiation
d. Tend not to interrupt responding

Answer 34

b. Are likely to take more time to deliver

Question 35

In contingent pairing procedures, which are used to establish social reinforcers, _______.

a. Attention is provided to help evoke task completion
b. Primary reinforcers are delivered freely throughout the session
c. Contingent on task completion, primary reinforcers only are presented
d. Contingent on task completion, primary reinforcers and attention are simultaneously provided

Answer 35

d. Contingent on task completion, primary reinforcers and attention are simultaneously provided