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ZHuman Physiology > Unit 4 Material > Flashcards

Unit 4 Material Flashcards

1
Q

The respiratory system includes (3)

A

Ventilation, gas exchange between blood and lung and tissues, oxygen utilization to make ATP (cellular respiration)

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2
Q

External respiration is

A

ventilation and gas exchange in lungs

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3
Q

Internal ventilation is

A

oxygen utilization and gas exchange in tissues

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4
Q

Gas exchange in the lungs occurs via

A

diffusion

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5
Q

O2 concentration is higher in the ______ rather than the _______, so O2 diffuses into _____.

A

Lungs.
Blood.
Blood.

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6
Q

CO2 concentration in the ______ is higher than in the ______, so CO2 diffuses out of the _______.

A

Blood.
Lungs.
Blood.

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7
Q

The respiratory system is anatomically divided into

A

Conduction zone and respiratory zone

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8
Q

Zone that gets air into the respiratory zone

A

Conduction zone

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9
Q

Zone that is site of gas exchange

A

Respiratory zone

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10
Q

Air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange takes place

A

Alveoli

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11
Q

How many alveoli are there and why are there so many

A

300 million. To provide large surface area to increase diffusion rate.

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12
Q

Alveoli form clusters at the end of

A

Respiratory bronchioles

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13
Q

Type I alveolar cells

A

95-97% total surface area where gas exchange occurs

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14
Q

Type II alveolar cells

A

Secrete pulmonary surfactant and reabsorb sodium and water, preventing fluid buildup

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15
Q

Pathway of Air (10)

A

Air travels down the nasal cavity > pharynx > larynx (glottis and vocal cords) > Trachea > Right and left primary bronchi > Secondary bronchi > Tertiary bronchi > Terminal bronchioles > Respiratory zone > terminal alveolar sacs

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16
Q

CH 16 SLIDE 9

A

Shows pics of conducting and respiratory zones

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17
Q

Functions of the conducting zone (3)

A

Transports air to the lungs.
Warms, humidifies, filters, and cleans air.
Voice production in the laryx.

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18
Q

Mucus traps small particles and cilia move it away from the lungs

A

Mucociliary escalator and mucociliary clearance.

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19
Q

What does the thoracic cavity contain

A

Heart, trachea, esophagus, and thymus within the central mediastinum, and lungs

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20
Q

This lines the thoracic cavity

A

Parietal pleura

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21
Q

This covers the lungs

A

Visceral pleura

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22
Q

Potential space between the parietal and visceral pleura

A

Intrapleural space

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23
Q

What does the diaphragm separate

A

The thoracic and abdominal cavities

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24
Q

CH 16 SLIDE 12

A

Thoracic cavity cross section

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25
Q

Air moves from area of ____ pressure to ______ pressure

A

Higher to lower

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26
Q

Pressure differences between the two ends of the conducting zone occur due to

A

changing lung volumes

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27
Q

Important physical properties of the lungs (3)

A

Compliance, elasticity, and surface tension

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28
Q

Pressure of air outside the body

A

Atmospheric pressure

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29
Q

Pressure in the lungs

A

Intrapulmonary or intraalveolar pressure

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30
Q

Pressure within the intrapleural space. Contains a thin layer of fluid to serve as lubricant

A

Intrapleural pressure

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31
Q

1 atmosphere is

A

1033.25 cm H2O = 760 mm Hg

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32
Q

Inspiration pressure

A

Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure. Generally about -1cm H2O

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33
Q

Pressure below that of atmosphere is called

A

Subatmospheric or negative pressure

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34
Q

Expiration pressure

A

Intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. Generally about +1cm H2O

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35
Q

Intrapulmonary pressure at inspiration

A

-1 cm H2O

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36
Q

Intrapulmonary pressure at expiration

A

+1 cm H2O

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37
Q

Intrapleural pressure at inspiration

A

-8 cm H2O

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38
Q

Intrapleural pressure at expiration

A

-5 cm H2O

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39
Q

Transpulmonary pressure at inspiration

A

+7 cm H2O

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40
Q

Transpulmonary pressure at expiration

A

+6 cm H2O

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41
Q

The difference between intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressure is called the

A

Transpulmonary pressure

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42
Q

Keeps the lungs against the thoracic wall and allows them to expand during inspiration

A

Intrapleural pressure

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43
Q

Boyle’s law

A

States that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume

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44
Q

An increase in lung volume during inspiration decreases intrapulmoanary pressure to subatomospheric levels…

A

air goes in

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45
Q

A decrease in lung volume during expiration increases intrapulmonary pressure above atmospheric levels

A

Air goes out

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46
Q

The premise that lungs can be expanded when stretched is called

A

Lung compliance. Change in lung volume per change in transpulmonary pressure

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47
Q

The ease in which lungs expand under pressure

A

Lung compliance

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48
Q

This is reduced by factors that produce resistance to distention such as the infiltration of connective tissue in pulmonary fibrosis

A

Lung compliance

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49
Q

Premise that lungs return to initial size after being stretched

A

Elasticity

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50
Q

Lungs are elastic because they have a lot of

A

Elastin fibers

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51
Q

Because lungs are stuck to the thoracic wall, they are always under

A

Elastic tension

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52
Q

Tension increases during inspiration and is reduced by

A

Elastic recoil during expiration

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53
Q

This resists distension

A

Surface tension

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54
Q

Exerted by fluid secreted on the alveoli

A

Surface tension

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55
Q

In surface tension, fluid is absorbed by active transport of ___ and secreted by active transport of ___

A

Na+ and Cl-

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56
Q

Raises the pressure of the alveolar air as it acts to collapse the alveolus

A

Surface tension

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57
Q

People with cystic fibrosis have a genetic defect that causes an impalance of fluid absorption and secretion

A

Surface tension

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58
Q

Law of Laplace

A

Pressure is directly proportional to surface tension and inversely proportional to radius of alveolus. Small alveoli would be at greater risk of collapse without surfactant

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59
Q

Surfactant is secreted by

A

Type II alveolar cells

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60
Q

Surfactant is consisted of

A

Hydrophobic protein and phospholipids

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61
Q

What does surfactant do

A

Reduces surface tension between water molecules by reducing the number of hydrogen bonds between water molecules. Prevents collapse. Allows a residual volume of air to remain in the lungs

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62
Q

Surfactant gets more concentrated as alveoli get smaller during

A

expiration

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63
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

A

High risk for alveolar collapse due to septic shock, reduced compliance, and reduced surfactant. Not treatable with surfactant

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64
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

A

Premature babies may be born with a high risk for alveolar collapse because surfactant production begins late in fetal life. Treated with surfactant.

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65
Q

Muscles involved in breathing (4)

A

Diaphragm, external intercostal muscles, internal intercostal muscles, parasternal intercostal muscles.

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66
Q

Muscle that contracts in inspiration, relaxes in expiration.

A

Diaphragm.
Lowers in inspiration making cavity larger.
Raises in expiration, making cavity smaller.

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67
Q

Muscle that raises the rib cage during inspiration

A

External intercostal muscles

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68
Q

Muscle that lowers the rib cage during forced expiration

A

Internal intercostal muscles

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69
Q

Muscle that works with the external intercostal

A

Parasternal intercostal muscles

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70
Q

Muscles used for forced expiration

A

Scalenes, pectoralis minor, and sternocleidomastoid. And abdominal msucles

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71
Q

Quiet respiration occurs with the relaxation of what muscles

A

Inspiration muscles, which is a passive process

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72
Q

How does inspiration work?

A

Volume of thoracic cavity (lungs) increases vertically when diaphragm contracts (flattens) and laterally when parasternal and external intercostals raise the ribs.
Thoracic and lung volume increase > intrapulmonary pressure decreases > air in.

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73
Q

How does expiration occur?

A

Volume of thoracic cavity (and lungs) decreases vertically when diaphragm relaxes (dome) and laterally when external and parasternal intercostals relax for quiet expiration or internal intercostals contract in forced expiration to lower the ribs.
Thoracic and lung volume decreases > intrapulmonary pressure increases > air out.

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74
Q

CH 16 SLIDE 31

A

Mechanisms of Pulmonary Ventilation

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75
Q

How does spirometry work?

A

Breathing into and out of a device that records volume and frequency of air movement on a spirogram

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76
Q

What does spirometry measure? and what can it diagnose?

A

Lung volumes and capacity.

Diagnose restrictive and obstructive lung disorders

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77
Q

Tidal volume is…

A

Amount of air expired or inspired in quiet breathing is called

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78
Q

Expiratory reserve volume is…

A

Amount of air that can be forced out after tidal volume is called

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79
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume is…

A

Amount of air that can be forced in after tidal volume

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80
Q

Residual volume is…

A

Amount of air left in lungs after maximum expiration

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81
Q

Vital capacity is…

A

Maximum amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a maximum inhalation

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82
Q

Total lung capacity is …

A

Air in the lungs after a maximum inspiration

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83
Q

Inspiration capacity is…

A

Air that can be inspired after a normal expiration

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84
Q

functional residual capacity is…

A

Air left in the lungs after a normal expiration

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85
Q

Inspiration reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume + tidal capacity =

A

Vital capacity

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86
Q

Residual volume + expiratory reserve volume =

A

Functional residual capacity

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87
Q

Tidal volume x breaths per minute (~6L/min) =

A

Total minute volume

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88
Q

Restrictive pulmonary disorder

A

Lung tissue is damages. Vital capacity is reduced, but forceful expiration is normal

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89
Q

Example of pulmonary restrictive disorder

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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90
Q

Obstructive pulmonary disorder

A

Lung tissue is normal. Vital capacity is normal, but forced expiration is reduced.

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91
Q

Examples of obstructive pulmonary disorder

A

Asthma; caused by inflammation, mucus, secretion, and construction of bronchioles.
Emphysema

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92
Q

Subjective feeling of shortness of breath

A

Dyspnea

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93
Q

Atmospheric pressure is measured using what

A

Barometer

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94
Q

At sea level, the atmospheric pressure is

A

760 mmHg

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95
Q

Dalton’s law

A

The total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the pressures of each gas in it

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96
Q

Partial pressure

A

The pressure of an individual gas; can be measured by multiplying the % of that has by the total pressure

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97
Q

O2 makes up 21% of the atmosphere, so partial pressure of O2 = 760 x 21% =

A

159 mmHg

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98
Q

Pdry is

A

PN2 + PO2 + PCO2 = 760 mmHg

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99
Q

Pwet (air gets out of lungs) is

A

PN2 + PO2 + PCO2 + PH2O = 760 mmHg

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100
Q

Pressure of water at 37 C is constant

A

47 mmHg

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101
Q

Partial pressure of O2 at sea level is

A

.21(760-47) = 150 mmHg

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102
Q

In the alveoli, the percentage of oxygen _____, and CO2 ____, changing the partial pressure of both

A

Decreases, increases

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103
Q

Henry’s Law: The amount of gas that can dissolve in liquid depends on;

A

Solubility of the gas in the liquid.
Temperature of the liquid.
Partial pressure of the gases, determining factor.

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104
Q

CH 16 SLIDE 47

A

Relationship between Alveoli and capillaries

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105
Q

Blood PO2 only measures what

A

Oxygen dissolved in plasma, not bound to hemoglobins

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106
Q

Properly functioning lungs give systemic arterial blood PO2 less than 5 mmHg than

A

Alveolar air. Normal PO2 is 100 mmHg

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107
Q

CH 16 SLIDE 50

A

Partial pressure of Gas in Blood

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108
Q

The rate of blood flow through the lungs is equal to that through the systemic circuit

A

5.5 L/minute cardiac output

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109
Q

The pressure difference between the left atrium and the pulmonary artery is only

A

10 mmHg

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110
Q

Why is vascular pressure very low

A

Low resistance pathway.

Reduces possibility of pulmonary adema.

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111
Q

Pulmonary arterioles construct when alveolar partial pressure O2 is __ and dilate when partial pressure O2 is __

A

Low, high.

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112
Q

Blood flow to alveoli is __ when they are full of Oxygen

A

Increased

113
Q

Systemic arterioles constrict when partial pressure O2 is __

A

High. This ensure that only tissues that need oxygen are sent blood.

114
Q

Voluntary breathing comes from what part of the brain

A

Cerebral cortex

115
Q

Involuntary breathing comes from

A

The respiratory control centers of the medulla oblongata and pons

116
Q

Motor neurons that innervate the diaphragm from the phrenic nerve and arise from

A

the cervical region of the spinal cord

117
Q

Motor neurons that innervate the other breathing muscles arise form the

A

Thoroacolumbar region of the spinal cord

118
Q

Medulla rhythmicity center

A

Contains inspiratory and expiratory neurons that stimulate or inhibit the phrenic nerve controlling respiratory muscles in a reciprocal way to produce the rhythmic pattern of breathing

119
Q

What influences the activity of the medulla

A

The pons

120
Q

The automatic control of breathing is influenced by feedback from chemoreceptors, which monitor…

A

pH of fluids in the brain and pH, CO2, and O2 of the blood.

121
Q

Which ones senses changed in blood CO2 that lead to changes in brain pH since H+ can’t cross BBB

A

Central chemoreceptors in medulla

122
Q

Which sense blood CO2 and pH

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aorta arteries

123
Q

When blood O2 is very low and actually has change, it’s called…

A

Hypoxic drive and affects the carotid bodies

124
Q

CH 16 SLIDE 60

A

Regulation of ventilation by the CNS

125
Q

When ventilation is inadequate, CO2 levels rise and pH falls is called

A

Hypercapnia

126
Q

If hyperventilation, CO2 levels fall and pH rises this is called

A

Hypocapnia

127
Q

Oxygen levels do not change as rapidly because of oxygen reserves in

A

hemoglobin

128
Q

Ventilation is controlled to maintain constant levels of

A

CO2 in the blood. Oxygen naturally follows

129
Q

CH 16 SLIDE 62

A

Chemoreceptor Control of Breathing

130
Q

Plasma O2 concentration is systemic arteries is about

A

0.3mL/100mL of blood

131
Q

Total O2 content of blood depends on

A

PO2 and hemoglobin concentration

132
Q

Most of the oxygen in blood is bound to

A

hemoglobin

133
Q

each hemoglobin can carry ___ molecules of O2

A

4

134
Q

___ million hemoglobin per RBC

A

280

135
Q

Hemoglobin where iron is reduced from (Fe2+) and can bind with O2

A

Oxyhemoglobin/ rediced (deoxyhemoglobin) hemoglobin

136
Q

Hemoglobin with oxidized iron (Fe3+) can bind do O2. Some drugs can cause this

A

Methemoglobin

137
Q

Hemoglobin is bound with carbon monoxide; has stronger bond with CO and O2

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

138
Q

When hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs, it’s called

A

Loading

139
Q

When oxyhemoglobin drops off oxygen in the tissues, it’s called

A

Unloading

140
Q

High PO2 favors (unloading or loading)

A

loading

141
Q

Strong bond favors _____ and inhibits ______

A

Loading, unloading

142
Q

Oxygen remaining in the veins after unloading serves as

A

Oxygen reserve

143
Q

22% oxygen unloading at

A

rest

144
Q

39% oxygen unloading at

A

light exercise

145
Q

80% oxygen unloading at

A

heavy exercise

146
Q

pH and temperature change the affinity of hemoglobin for

A

O2; which ensures that muscles get more O2 when exercising.

147
Q

Oxygen unloading is higher at ___ pH

A

Lower; Bohr effect

148
Q

How do RBCs obtain their energy?

A

From the anaerobic metabolism of glucose…which created 2,3-DPG, increases unloading

149
Q

When is 2,3-DPG created?

A

If a person is anemic or at high altitudes

150
Q

CH 16 Slide 73

A

Factor chart that affects affinity of Hemoglobin for O2

151
Q

Similar to hemoglobin, only 1 heme, so can only carry 1 oxygen molecule

A

Muscle hemoglobin

152
Q

Where is muscle hemoglobin found?

A

In skeletal and cardiac muscles

153
Q

Describe muscle hemoglobin affinity to O2

A

Higher affinity. Oxygen is only released when PO2 is very low.

154
Q

Three ways in which carbon dioxide is carried in the blood

A

Dissolved in plasma, as carbaminohemoglobin attached to amino acid in hemoglobin, as bicarbonate ions

155
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction to form carbonic acid

A

Carbonic anhydrase

156
Q

Once bicarbonate ions is formed in the RBC, it diffuses where

A

plasma

157
Q

H+ RBC attach to hemoglobin and attract

A

Cl-

158
Q

What is the chloride shift?

A

The exchange of bicarb out of and Cl- into RBC

159
Q

In pulmonary capillaries, increased PO2 favors the production of

A

oxyhemoglobin

160
Q

The production of oxyhemoglobin makes H+ dissociate from hemoglobin and recombine with bicarb to form

A

Carbonic acid (H2CO3)

161
Q

In low PCO2, carbonic anhydrase converts carbonic acid (H2CO3) back to

A

CO2 + H2O

162
Q

pH of the blood ranges

A

7.34 - 7.45

163
Q

Volatile acid

A

Carbonic acid because it can be converted and exhaled

164
Q

Nonvolatile acids are buffered by…and are regulated by

A

Bicarbonate .

Kidneys.

165
Q

What is the major buffet run the blood

A

Bicarbonate ion

166
Q

When blood pH falls below 7.35, it is called

A

Acidosis

167
Q

caused by hypoventilation rise of CO2 which increases H+ (lowers pH)

A

Respiratory acidosis

168
Q

Caused by excessive production of acids or loss of bicarbonate (diarrhea)

A

Metabolic acidosis

169
Q

When blood pH rises above 7.45 it is called

A

Alkalosis

170
Q

Caused by hyperventilation, pH increases

A

Respiratory alkalosis

171
Q

Caused by inadequate production of acids or overproduction of bicarbonates, loss of digestive acids from vomiting

A

Metabolic alkalosis

172
Q

Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis occurs with abnormal

A

CO2 concentration

173
Q

Metabolic acidosis or alkalosis occurs with abnormal

A

bicarbonate concentration

174
Q

Ventilation is insufficient, PCO2 is high, carbonic acid is high, and respiratory acidosis occurs

A

Hypoventilation

175
Q

Rate of ventilation is faster than CO2 production. Less carbonic acid forms, PCO2 is low, and respiratory alkalosis occurs

A

Hyperventilation

176
Q

A person with metabolic acidosis will hyper/hypoventilate to blow off CO2, H+ decreases, pH rises.

A

Hyperventilate

177
Q

A person with metabolic alkalosis will hyper/hypoventilate, slowsslow down respiration, build up CO2, H+ increase, pH lowers

A

Hypoventilate

178
Q

Ch 16 slide 91/92

A

Charts comparing respiratory acid-base

179
Q

Kidneys function to regulate the extracellular fluid in the environment including (5)

A

Volume of blood plasma, wastes, electrolytes, oH, secrete erythopoieten

180
Q

Where is urine made

A

In the kidney nephrons

181
Q

Urine is transported using

A

peristalsis

182
Q

Order of urine to exit the body

A

Made in kidney nephrons > drains into renal pelvis > down ureter to bladder > through urethra

183
Q

Two distinct regions of the kidney

A

renal cortex and renal medulla (renal pyramids and columns)

184
Q

Renal pyramids drain into

A

Minor calyx > major calyx > renal pelvis

185
Q

the muscles that line the wall of the urinary bladder are called

A

Detrusor muscles

186
Q

The internal urethral sphincter is what kind of muscle

A

Smooth muscle

187
Q

The external urethral sphincter is what kind of muscle

A

skeletal muscle

188
Q

Neurons in the S2-S4 normally inhibit parasympathetic nerves to the

A

detrusor muscles. called guarding reflex

189
Q

Where is the micturition center located

A

in the pons

190
Q

How many nephrons does each kidney have

A

more than a million

191
Q

Consists of small tubules and associated blood vessels

A

Nephrons

192
Q

Ch 17 Slide 9/10

A

Anatomy of the kidneys

193
Q

Order of the renal blood vessels

A

Renal artery > Interlobar arteries > Arcuate arteries > Interlobular arteries > Afferent arterioles Glomerulus >
Efferent arterioles > Peritubular capillaries > Interlobular veins > Arcuate veins > Interlobar veins > Renal vein

194
Q

What parts make up the renal corpuscle

A

Glomerular capsule and the glomerulus

195
Q

Filtrate produced in the renal corpuscle passes into the

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

196
Q

After filtrate passes through the proximal convoluted tubule, the fluid passes into the

A

descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle

197
Q

After the loop of Henle, fluid passes into the

A

distal convoluted tubule and then into the collecting duct and then into the minor calyx

198
Q

Two types of nephrons

A

Juxtamedullary (better at making concentrated urine), and cortical

199
Q

Fenestrated capillaries of the glomerulus allow for what to happen

A

Large pores allow for water and solutes to leave but not blood cells and most plasma proteins

200
Q

Filtrate must pass through

A

Capillary fenestrae, glomerular basement membrane, visceral later of the glomerular capsule composed of cells called podocytes

201
Q

CH 17 SLIDE 17

A

Glomerular Corpuscle and Filtration Barrier

202
Q

What is the major barrier for the filtration of plasma proteins in the glomerular corpuscle

A

Slits in the pedicles called slit diaphragm pores

203
Q

Proteins in urine are caused by and is called

A

Defects in the slit diaphragm pores.

called proteinuria

204
Q

How does the fluid in the glomerular capsule get there (3)

A

hydrostatic pressure of the blood, colloid osmotic pressure, and very permeable capillaries

205
Q

Net filtration pressure in the glomerular capillaries is

A

10 mmHg

206
Q

What is the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

A

the volume of filtrate produced by both kidneys each minute (115-125mL = 180 L/day)

207
Q

How long does it take for the total blood volume to be filtered

A

40 minutes

208
Q

Extrinsic regulation of filtration rates occurs from

A

Sympathetic nervous system

209
Q

Intrinsic regulation of filtration rate occurs from and is called

A

the kidneys; renal autoregulation

210
Q

What happens to filtration with the sympathetic nervous system.

A

In F/F situation, vasoconstriction, which helps divert blood to heart and muscles, urine formation decreases to compensate for the drop in blood pressure.

211
Q

What happens to filtration during renal autoregulation

A

GFR is constant even if BP fluctuates. Myogenic constriction.
Tubulogolmerular feedback

212
Q

What is myogenic constriction?

A

Smooth muscles in arterioles sense an increase in blood pressure

213
Q

What is tubuloglomerular feedback

A

Cells in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle (macula densa) sense a rise in water and sodium as occurs with increased blood pressure

214
Q

Ch 17 Slide 25

A

Chart comparing Glomerular Rates regulation

215
Q

What is reabsorption

A

The return of filtered molecules to the blood

216
Q

where does 85% of reabsorption occur

A

In the proximal tubules of the descending hoop of Henle

217
Q

Osmolality of filtrate in the glomerular capsule is equal to that of

A

Blood plasma (isoosmotic)

218
Q

Na+ is actively transported in/out of the filtrate into the peritibular blood to set up a concentration gradient to drive osmosis

A

Out

219
Q

Active transport in the proximal tubule

A

Cells have a lower Na+ concentration than filtrate, so Na+ diffuses into these cells and is then pumped out on the other side

220
Q

Passive transport in the proximal tubule

A

The pumping of sodium into the interstitial space attracts negative Cl - out of the filtrate. Water follows Na+ and Cl- into the tubular cells and the interstitial space. Then into the peritubular capillaries

221
Q

How much water is absorbed through the descending limb of the Loop of Henle

A

20% of water. The rest is absorbed in the nephron under the control of ADH

222
Q

Fluid entering the loop of Henle is ____ to extracellular fluids

A

Isotonic

223
Q

What part of the Loop of Henle sets up a gradient for the osmosis of water?

A

Ascending portion

224
Q

NaCl is actively pumped into the interstitial fluid from the thick segment. Walls are not permeable to water. Surrounding fluid becomes concentrated at the bottom of the tube. Tubular fluid entering the descending loop of Henle becomes more hypotonic as it ascends the loop

A

Ascending Loop of Henle

225
Q

is permeable to water but not salt. Water is drawn out of the filtrate and into the interstitial space where it is picked up by capillaries. As it descends, it becomes more solute concentrated

A

Descending loop of henle

226
Q

Mechanism created between the two portions of the loop of Henle

A

Positive feedback. the more salt the ascending limb removes, the saltier the fluid entering it will be.

227
Q

Countercurrent multiplication

A

the more salt the ascending limb removes, the saltier the fluid entering it will be.

228
Q

Countercurrent mechanism steps

A

Interstitial fluid is hypertonic due to NaCl pumped out of the ascending limb.
Water leaves descending limb by osmosis, making the filtrate hypertonic going into the ascending limb.
More NaCl in the ascending limb can now be pumped out into the interstitial fluid.
The greater concentration of the interstitial fluid draws more water from the descending limb.
Filtrate in ascending limb now more concentrated.
Continues until the maximum NaCl concentration of the inner medulla is reached.

229
Q

Ch 17 Slide 38

A

Diagram showing Countercurrent Exchange

230
Q

What is the vasa recta

A

Specialized blood vessels around Loop of Henle which create the countercurrent system because it takes in salts from the descending region but lose them again in the ascending region. Keeps the salt in the interstitial space.

231
Q

What pulls water down the ascending region of the vasa recta, which is removed from the interstitial space

A

High salt concentration at the beginning

232
Q

Urea

A

Waster product of protein metabolism which contributes to countercurrent exchange

233
Q

Where does urea come from?

A

Transported out of collecting duct and into interstitial fluid. Diffuses back into ascending limb and cycles around continuously. Helps set up solute concentration gradients.

234
Q

Ch 17 slide 44

A

Puts it all together

235
Q

Last stop in urine formation, impermeable to NaCl but permeable to water

A

collecting duct

236
Q

Collecting duct and ADH path sequence

A

ADH binds to receptors on collecting duct cells > cAMP > protein kinase > vesicles with aquaporin channels fuse to plasma membrane

237
Q

Where is ADH produced, stored, and released

A

Produced in hypothalamus. Stored and released from posterior pituitary gland. Release stimulated by increase in blood osmolality

238
Q

Renal clearance - excretion

A

Just getting rid of stuff

239
Q

Renal clearance - reabsorption

A

Everything that could get excreted, but doesn’t. Returns stuff to the blood.

240
Q

Renal clearance - secretion

A

Substances are moved form the peritubular capillaries into the tubules

241
Q

Excretion rate =

A

(Filtration rate + secretion rate) - reabsorption rate

242
Q

Excretion rate is used to measure

A

GFR (glomerular filtration rate), an indicated of renal health

243
Q

Organic anion transporters and organic cation transporters are

A

membrane carriers specific to foreign substances that transport drugs into the tubules

244
Q

Drug secreting carriers are polyspecific

A

overlap function

245
Q

GFR =

A

(rate of urine formation x inulin concentration) / (inulin concentration in plasma)

246
Q

What is para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)

A

An exogenous molecule injected for measurement of total renal blood flow

247
Q

All PAH in the peritubular capillaries will be secreted by

A

OATs, so the time it takes to clear all PAH injected indicates blood flow to these capillaries

248
Q

Ch 17 Slide 58

A

Renal clearance of PAH

249
Q

Where is glucose completely reabsorbed

A

In the proximal tubule via secondary active transport, with sodium, facilitated diffusion, and simple diffusion

250
Q

Glucose/Na+ cotransporters have a maximum and if maximum is reached, then the carriers are

A

saturated. Saturation spills glucose into the urine = glycosuria and is a sign of diabetes.

251
Q

Kidneys match electrolyte excretion to

A

ingestion

252
Q

Na+ healthy levels are important for

A

Blood pressure and blood volume

253
Q

Control of K+ is important in

A

healthy skeletal and cardiac muscle activity

254
Q

Aldosterone plays a big role in

A

Na+ and K+ balance

255
Q

Aldosterone independent response

A

Increase in blood K+ triggers an increase in the number of K+ channels in the cortical collecting duct. Channels removed when blood K levels drop.

256
Q

Aldosterone dependent response

A

Increase in blood K triggers adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. Increases K secretion in the distal tubule and collecting duct.

257
Q

A rise in blood K directly stimulates production of aldosterone in the

A

adrenal cortex

258
Q

A fall in blood Na indirectly stimulates production of aldosterone via the

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

259
Q

Where is the juxtaglomerular apparatus located

A

Where the afferent arteriole comes into contact with the distal tubule

260
Q

What does the juxtaglomerular apparatus sense

A

A decrease in plasma Na which results in a fall in blood volume

261
Q

Granular cells secrete renin into the

A

afferent arteriole

262
Q

Angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I by

A

the juxtaglomerular apparatus

263
Q

What converts Angiotensin I into angiotensin II

A

Angiotensin-convering enzyme (ACE)

264
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus stimulates the cortex to make what

A

Aldosterone. Promotes the reabsorption of Na from distal tubule and cortical collecting duct.

265
Q

Low salt levels result in lower blood volumes due to inhibition of

A

ADH secretion

266
Q

Renin is secreted by granular cells when they detect

A

Reduced blood volume

267
Q

What is the macula densa

A

Part of the distal tubule that forms the juxtaglomerular apparatus

268
Q

What does the macula densa do?

A

Sensor for tubuloglomerular feedback needed for regulation of glomerular filtration rate. Controlled via negative feedback

269
Q

When there is more Na and H2O in the filtrate, a signal is sent to the afferent arteriole to

A

inhibit the production of renin

270
Q

Increases in blood volume also increase the release of

A

atrial natriuretic peptide hormone from the atria of the heart when atrial walls are stretched

271
Q

What does atrial natriuretic peptide do?

A

Stimulates kidneys to excrete more salt and therefore more water. Decreases blood volume and blood pressure.

272
Q

B-type natriuretic peptide is secreted in response to

A

increased volume and pressure within the ventricles and it acts like ANP to promote diuresis

273
Q

Reabsorption of __ stimulates the secretion of other positive ions; K and H

A

Na

274
Q

Acidosis stimulates the secretion of __ and inhibits the secretion of __ ions and can lead to hyperkalemia

A

H and K ions

275
Q

Alkalosis stimulates the secretion and excretion of more

A

K

276
Q

Hyperkalemia stimulates the secretion of __ and inhibits the secretion of __ and can lead to acidosis

A

K and H ions

277
Q

Kidneys maintain blood pH by reabsorbing bicarbonate and secreting __; urine is thus acidic

A

H

278
Q

Proximal tubule uses Na/H pump to let __ out and __ in

A

Na; H

ZHuman Physiology (6 decks)

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