UNIT 4 Flashcards

1
Q

________ scaffolds have been increasingly used in recent years.

a. Teacher
b. Peer
c. Social
d. Technology

A

d. Technology

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2
Q

In regards to memory formation, information travels through ________, then ________, then ________, respectively.

a. sensory memory; working memory; long-term memory
b. working memory; short-term memory; long-term memory
c. sensory memory; long-term memory; short-term memory
d. short-term memory; long-term memory; sensory memory

A

a. sensory memory; working memory; long-term memory

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3
Q

Social and emotional learning programs seek to foster ________ non-subject matter competence(s).

a. 7
b. 1
c. 3
d. 5

A

d. 5

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4
Q

Compared to earlier years, the rate of growth of both height and weight ________ in middle to late childhood

a. stays the same
b. slows down
c. None of the answers are correct.
d. speeds up

A

b. slows down

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5
Q

Melissa is unable to sit in her chair during reading time. She has to stand up and move arounD. Instead of following the book, she likes to look around the room and does not pay attention to what is being reaD. Melissa most likely has ________ disorder.

a. autism spectrum
b. specific learning
c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity
d. intellectual disability

A

c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity

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6
Q

The process of assisting a less experienced individual through complex tasks by providing supports is known as

a. ZPD
b. teaching
c. cognitive load
d. scaffolding

A

d. scaffolding

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7
Q

An achievement goal that focuses on self-improvement and skill development, while downplaying ability level and peer comparison, is called a ________ goal.

a. mastery
b. direct
c. primary
d. performance

A

a. mastery

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8
Q

Charlie is eight years old and is very good at soccer. His ability is a direct result of the maturation of

a. the prefrontal cortex
b. grey matter
c. the cerebellum
d. white matter

A

b. grey matter

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9
Q

Tiffany is told that shape A is bigger than shape B and that shape B is bigger than shape C. She is then asked about the difference between shape A and shape C. If Tiffany is in the concrete operational stage, her answer will most likely be

a. A is smaller than C.
b. None of the answers are correct.
c. A is the same as C.
d. A is bigger than C

A

d. A is bigger than C

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10
Q

Kelly is teaching her class how to reaD. She has the class look at a word and break it down to hear the different sounds. Kelly uses the ________ approach.

a. syllable
b. whole-language
c. sound-it-out
d. phonics

A

d. phonics

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11
Q

Both Cindy and her dad Lou are taking piano lessons. Cindy finds that she is able to learn how to play new songs faster than her dad. Based on this, we can say Cindy has

a. None of the answers are correct.
b. efficiency
c. consistency
d. flexibility

A

c. consistency

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12
Q

________ is an abstract, verbal, mathematical, and logical type of thinking.

a. Analytical intelligence
b. Creative intelligence
c. Triarchic intelligence
d. Practical intelligence

A

a. Analytical intelligence

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13
Q

Recent research reports that the prevalence of prescribed ADHD drugs for Canadian children ________ between 1994 and 2007.

a. significantly decreased
b. significantly increased
c. did not change significantly
d. increased by 50%

A

b. significantly increased

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14
Q

Asthma rates are higher in children from lower SES households because they

a. are unable to get treatment
b. do not have good health care
c. do not have sufficient doctors
d. have poorer health overall

A

d. have poorer health overall

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15
Q

________ is a key area of problem solving.

a. Strategy construction
b. Selective attention
c. All of the answers are correct.
d. Automatization

A

c. All of the answers are correct.

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16
Q

Poverty influences development in middle childhood via

a. all of the alternatives
b. assaults on personal dignity
c. lack of social inclusion
d. restricted access to material assets

A

a. all of the alternatives

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17
Q

A strong reliance on heteronomous morality in middle childhood indicates that moral development is

a. on time
b. overdeveloped
c. delayed
d. None of the answers are correct.

A

c. delayed

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18
Q

Parents engaged in a high-conflict relationship with one another are more likely to use ________ parenting with adolescent children.

a. mild and unpredictable
b. harsh and inconsistent
c. strict and consistent
d. mild and inconsistent

A

b. harsh and inconsistent

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19
Q

Effective parenting in middle childhood involves learning to ________ less and ________ more.

a. monitor; punish
b. monitor; direct
c. direct; monitor
d. direct; reward

A

c. direct; monitor

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20
Q

Low ________ is one reason a child may believe he or she is not capable of doing well in school.

a. self-esteem
b. All of the answers are correct.
c. self-efficacy
d. self-concept of ability

A

b. All of the answers are correct.

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21
Q

An example of a self-conscious emotion that a nine year old might experience is

a. envy
b. pride
c. All of the answers are correct.
d. embarrassment

A

c. All of the answers are correct.

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22
Q

According to Kohlberg, a developmentalist would conclude that a child is operating at the preconventional level of moral development if she

a. was focused on what she can “get away with”
b. behaved according to what was most personally satisfying
c. tried to avoid punishment and get as many rewards as possible
d. All of the answers are correct.

A

d. All of the answers are correct.

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23
Q

Popular children are more likely to be

a. All of the answers are correct.
b. sensitive
c. friendly
d. cooperative

A

a. All of the answers are correct.

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24
Q

In middle childhood, resolving the task of industry versus inferiority results in a child

a. attaining a strong sense of their future self
b. achieving the foundation of an ideal self
c. internalizing a sense of competence
d. expecting that others will see them as competent

A

c. internalizing a sense of competence

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25
Q

Data reported by the World Health Organization show that ________ per cent of eleven-year-olds report being bullied in Canadian schools.

a. 17
b. 11
c. 4
d. 30

A

a. 17

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26
Q

Eleven-year-old Kaitlyn, who is best known for her amazing vocabulary and writing skills, wanted to ________ the trophy she won for running in the local 5K, expecting to feel ________.

a. show her peers; envied
b. hide the trophy from her peers; shame
c. hide the trophy from her peers; anger
d. show her peers; pride

A

d. show her peers; pride

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27
Q

When Martha, a developmentalist, teaches parents how to help scaffold moral development in school-aged children, she suggests that parents and teachers encourage their students to

a. enforce the rules, even if others do not
b. consider why someone is doing what he or she is doing
c. think about the consequences before he or she acts
d. tell an adult when someone else is “bad”

A

b. consider why someone is doing what he or she is doing

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28
Q

As children get older, they get better at distinguishing between ________ stressors, which makes them better able to apply effective coping strategies.

a. authoritative and authoritarian
b. ruminative and punitive
c. controllable and uncontrollable
d. active and passive

A

c. controllable and uncontrollable

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29
Q

Adolescent peer groups become

a. more private (low adult supervision)
b. All of the answers are correct.
c. larger
d. more diverse

A

b. All of the answers are correct.

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30
Q

The process of learning about one’s abilities and characteristics by observing how they compare with those of others is known as social

a. comparison
b. compensation
c. optimization
d. selection

A

a. comparison

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31
Q
  1. Asthma rates are higher in children from lower SES households because they:
    a. do not have good health care.
    b. do not have sufficient doctors.
    c. have poorer health overall.
    d. are unable to get treatment.
A

c. have poorer health overall.

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32
Q
  1. Since 1980 obesity rates have:
    a. doubled.
    b. tripled.
    c. quadrupled.
    d. stayed the same.
A

b. tripled.

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33
Q
  1. Asthma is the ______ cause of child hospitalization.
    a. second leading
    b. leading
    c. third leading
    d. none of the choices
A

b. leading

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34
Q
  1. ________ is a chronic illness in which the airways of the lung constrict, resulting in decreased air flow.
    a. Bronchitis
    b. Bronchial infection
    c. Asthma
    d. Bronchial swelling
A

c. Asthma

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35
Q
  1. The recommended average of physical activity is _________ minutes every day.
    a. 45
    b. 30
    c. 60
    d. 20
A

c. 60

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36
Q
  1. Ethnic minorities and low-income communities experience the _____ rates of childhood obesity.
    a. lowest
    b. highest
    c. same
    d. none of the choices
A

b. highest

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37
Q
  1. Physical activity aids in:
    a. developing the cardiovascular system.
    b. improving muscle strength.
    c. promoting healthy tissue growth.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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38
Q
  1. Sports help improve______ skills by teaching strategies, planning, and goal formation.
    a. developmental
    b. behavioral
    c. cognitive
    d. social
A

c. cognitive

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39
Q
  1. Obesity and asthma are two common issues in childhood well-being.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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40
Q
  1. Physical activity plays a role in childhood well-being
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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41
Q
  1. For the first time in history, children have a lower projected life expectancy.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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42
Q
  1. ADHD occurs in approximately _____ of the childhood population.
    a. 2.1 million
    b. 1.3 billion
    c. 25%
    d. 11%
A

d. 11%

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43
Q
  1. The rate of ASD has spiked to:
    a. 1% of the population.
    b. 1.3 billion people.
    c. 12% of the population.
    d. 2.1 million people.
A

a. 1% of the population.

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44
Q
  1. Sasha is really good at writing and reading. However, her teacher notices that she is not as good at math and is often falling behind the other students. Sasha most likely has ____________ disorder.
    a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity
    b. autism spectrum
    c. specific learning
    d. intellectual disability
A

c. specific learning

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45
Q
  1. When Billy was born, his parents noticed that something was off about his behavior. He did not like to talk to people and often sat in the corner flicking his fingers. Billy will most likely be diagnosed with ___________ disorder.
    a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity
    b. autism spectrum
    c. specific learning
    d. intellectual disability
A

b. autism spectrum

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46
Q
  1. Melissa is unable to sit in her chair during reading time. She has to stand up and move around. Instead of following the book, she likes to look around the room and doesn’t pay attention to what is being read. Melissa most likely has __________ disorder.
    a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity
    b. autism spectrum
    c. specific learning
    d. intellectual disability
A

a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity

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47
Q
  1. __________ disorder is a specific difficulty with reading, writing or math that is indicated when academic functioning is substantially below what is expected for age and IQ.
    a. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity
    b. Autism spectrum
    c. Specific learning
    d. Intellectual disability
A

c. Specific learning

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48
Q
  1. A neurodevelopmental disorder, characterized by impaired social communication and interaction and repetitive behaviors, is called _____________ disorder.
    a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity
    b. autism spectrum
    c. specific learning
    d. intellectual disability
A

b. autism spectrum

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49
Q
  1. The national legislation enacted in 2001 directing all public schools to increase standards in academics and allow flexibility of school choice is known as the ________Act.
    a. HIPPA
    b. School Flexibility
    c. Academic Achievement
    d. No Child Left Behind
A

d. No Child Left Behind

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50
Q
  1. By 1975, appropriate schooling for those with special needs was established.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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51
Q
  1. ADHD and ASD are two common learning disorders.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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52
Q
  1. Autism spectrum disorder affects a substantial part of the population.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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53
Q
  1. Teachers’ beliefs about the goals of learning have important implications for their:
    a. instructional behavior.
    b. Interpersonal style in the classroom.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

d. neither a nor b

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54
Q
  1. Metacognitive goals have to do with promoting __________ that support learning.
    a. habits of mind
    b. ways of thinking
    c. reasoning
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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55
Q
  1. SEL programs seek to foster _________ nonsubject matter competence(s).
    a. one
    b. three
    c. five
    d. seven
A

c. five

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56
Q
  1. In elementary school, students are put into classes based on their:
    a. last names.
    b. ability levels.
    c. school referrals.
    d. IQ tests.
A

b. ability levels.

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57
Q
  1. Marco likes to play speed division with his students. He writes two problems on the board and has two students race each other to see who can get the answer first. Getting the answer first can best be described as a ___________ goal.
    a. performance
    b. mastery
    c. self-
    d. competition
A

a. performance

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58
Q
  1. A measure of children’s knowledge about particular academic subjects, such as reading, writing, or math, is called a(n) ___________ test.
    a. performance
    b. mastery
    c. achievement
    d. intelligence
A

c. achievement

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59
Q
  1. A _________ goal is an achievement goal that emphasizes ability level and competition among peers.
    a. performance
    b. mastery
    c. peer
    d. competition
A

a. performance

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60
Q
  1. An achievement goal that focuses on self-improvement and skill development, while downplaying ability level and peer comparison, is called a __________ goal.
    a. performance
    b. mastery
    c. self-
    d. improvement
A

b. mastery

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61
Q
  1. School plays a central role in a child’s life and development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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62
Q
  1. The goals of learning in school can be academic, social-emotional, metacognitive, and developmental.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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63
Q
  1. Schools are complex, multilevel institutions that affect the development of the whole child.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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64
Q
  1. Reading can lead to decreased motivation which will call on a child’s
    a. temperament.
    b. effortful control.
    c. emotion regulation skills.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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65
Q
  1. Early positive experience with reading is linked to:
    a. later academic achievement.
    b. enhanced vocational success.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

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66
Q
  1. Ricardo is teaching his class to read. He likes the students to look at the relationship between and among the words. Ricardo is using a __________ approach.
    a. whole-language
    b. phonics
    c. word
    d. relationship
A

a. whole-language

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67
Q
  1. Kelly is teaching her class how to read. She has the class look at a word and break it down to hear the different sounds. Kelly uses the __________ approach.
    a. whole-language
    b. phonics
    c. sound-it-out
    d. syllable
A

b. phonics

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68
Q
  1. The __________ approach is a form of reading instruction that emphasizes communication over particular elements of reading and writing.
    a. whole-language
    b. phonics
    c. spelling
    d. word
A

a. whole-language

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69
Q
  1. A form of reading instruction that emphasizes the segments of sounds in words is called the _____________ approach.
    a. whole-language
    b. phonics
    c. sound-it-out
    d. syllable
A

b. phonics

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70
Q
  1. __________ is a principle introduced by McTigue.
    a. “Promote self-evaluation”
    b. “Assess academic resilience”
    c. “Use effective feedback”
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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71
Q
  1. McTigue and his colleagues identified six classroom characteristics that reinforce mastery of reading.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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72
Q
  1. As in all languages, in the English language there are rules; different from other languages, there are many exceptions to the rules in the English language.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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73
Q
  1. Learning to read in English as a second language is one of the most difficult tasks for school-aged children.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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74
Q
  1. What is one significant criticism of intelligence research?
    a. It fails to look at society.
    b. It fails to look at culture.
    c. It fails to include DSM diagnosis.
    d. All of the choices are correct.
A

b. It fails to look at culture.

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75
Q
  1. Johnny scored a 100 on the Stanford-Binet IQ test. Based on his scores, we can assume that his performance is:
    a. what is expected for his age.
    b. above what is expected for his age.
    c. below what is expected for his age.
    d. none of the choices
A

a. what is expected for his age.

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76
Q
  1. Howard Gardner posited _____ intelligences in his theory of multiple intelligence.
    a. two
    b. four
    c. six
    d. eight
A

d. eight

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77
Q
  1. Analytical, practical, and creative are all part of the:
    a. theory of multiple intelligence.
    b. theory of intelligence.
    c. triarchic theory of intelligence.
    d. Stanford-Binet theory of intelligence.
A

c. triarchic theory of intelligence.

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78
Q
  1. Julia took an IQ test. Her results showed that she received a 130. Based on her IQ, Julia is:
    a. gifted.
    b. impaired.
    c. average.
    d. none of the choices
A

a. gifted.

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79
Q
  1. __________ is an abstract, verbal, mathematical, and logical type of thinking.
    a. Practical intelligence
    b. Analytical intelligence
    c. Creative intelligence
    d. Triarchic intelligence
A

b. Analytical intelligence

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80
Q
  1. A disorder characterized by significantly below-average intellectual functioning and impaired adaptive functioning is called an:
    a. intellectual gift.
    b. intellectual impairment.
    c. intellectual disability.
    d. intellectual difficulty.
A

c. intellectual disability.

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81
Q
  1. A score calculated from results on an intelligence test is known as a person’s:
    a. intelligence scale.
    b. intelligence level.
    c. intelligence quotient.
    d. intelligence skill.
A

c. intelligence quotient.

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82
Q
  1. Psychometric theories of intelligence posit the existence of a general intelligence.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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83
Q
  1. There are many different definitions of intelligence.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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84
Q
  1. Metacognition helps us define and assess intelligence.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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85
Q
  1. The information-processing approach focuses on describing changes necessary for success:
    a. in school.
    b. in other aspects, such as games and sports.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

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86
Q
  1. In regards to memory formation, information travels through ____________; then _________; then _________, respectively
    a. sensory memory; working memory; long-term memory
    b. working memory; short-term memory; long-term memory
    c. sensory memory; long-term memory; short-term memory
    d. short-term memory; long-term memory; sensory memory
A

a. sensory memory; working memory; long-term memory

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87
Q
  1. __________ supervises all the processes that are fundamental to cognitive development.
    a. Metamemory
    b. Executive function
    c. Maintenance rehearsal
    d. Metacognition
A

b. Executive function

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88
Q
  1. Allan has the lead in his class’s Thanksgiving Day play. When he gets his lines, he says them again and again to try and remember them. Based on this scenario, Allan is:
    a. using metamemory.
    b. using executive functioning.
    c. performing maintenance rehearsal.
    d. none of the choices
A

c. performing maintenance rehearsal.

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89
Q
  1. Metamemory involves ______ key functions.
    a. two
    b. four
    c. six
    d. eight
A

b. four

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90
Q
  1. Metamemory improvements underlie improvements in _____________ memory:
    a. sensory
    b. working
    c. long-term
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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91
Q
  1. One’s own understanding of one’s own memory process is called:
    a. strategy.
    b. metamemory.
    c. information processing.
    d. maintenance rehearsal.
A

b. metamemory.

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92
Q
  1. ___________ is a key area of problem solving.
    a. Selective attention
    b. Automatization
    c. Strategy construction
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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93
Q
  1. With practice, reaction time decreases and automatization improves.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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94
Q
  1. Selective attention refers to the ability to make a decision about what is relevant and what isn’t among stimuli.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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95
Q
  1. According to information theorists, problem solving improves in four key areas.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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96
Q
  1. Joy is really bad at math. Her teacher wants the class to know their times tables by the end of the week. When Joy tells the teacher she needs help, the teacher just tells her to suck it up and study. Based on this situation, we can assume that:
    a. the teacher has poor scaffolding skills.
    b. the teacher has good scaffolding skills.
    c. Joy has poor scaffolding skills.
    d. Joy has good scaffolding skills.
A

a. the teacher has poor scaffolding skills.

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97
Q
  1. One outcome of technology-based scaffolding is that:
    a. technology helped students visualize their understanding.
    b. technology helped students identify resources.
    c. technology managed the number of items that required attention.
    d. All of the choices
A

d. All of the choices

98
Q
  1. ___________ scaffolds have been increasingly used in more recent years.
    a. Social
    b. Peer
    c. Teacher
    d. Technology
A

d. Technology

99
Q
  1. Angelica and her little sister Lillian like to have tea parties. Angelica shows Lillian how to hold her pinkie up and sip the tea slowly. Angelica is:
    a. assisting.
    b. conservating.
    c. scaffolding.
    d. automatizing
A

c. scaffolding.

100
Q
  1. ______________ is a key feature of scaffolding.
    a. Sharing a common goal
    b. Fading and transfer of responsibility
    c. Offering dynamic and adaptive support
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

101
Q
  1. Researchers have identified _____key features of scaffolding
    a. one
    b. three
    c. five
    d. seven
A

c. five

102
Q
  1. ____________ refers to the total number of items that must be attended by one’s working memory.
    a. Cognitive load
    b. Memory formation
    c. Scaffolding
    d. Information processing
A

a. Cognitive load

103
Q
  1. The process of assisting a less experienced individual through complex tasks by providing supports is known as:
    a. cognitive load.
    b. ZPD.
    c. scaffolding.
    d. teaching
A

c. scaffolding.

104
Q
  1. Teachers, peers, parents, and members of the community all have the potential to contribute to healthy child development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

105
Q
  1. Vygotsky proposed the sociocultural theory as a framework for understanding universal child development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

106
Q
  1. Vygotsky is a developmentalist known for his research on child social development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

107
Q
  1. Children progress to the concrete operational stage via their interactions with(within):
    a. the world.
    b. their parents.
    c. their teachers.
    d. themselves.
A

a. the world.

108
Q
  1. Some limitations of the concrete operational stage include:
    a. Knowledge is based on their own world.
    b. Knowledge is based on their own reality.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

109
Q
  1. Tiffany is told that shape A is bigger than Shape B and that Shape B is bigger than shape C. She is then asked about the difference between shape A and Shape C. If Tiffany is in the concrete operational stage, her answer will most likely be:
    a. A is smaller than C.
    b. A is bigger than C.
    c. A is the same as C.
    d. none of the choices
A

b. A is bigger than C.

110
Q
  1. Lana likes to drink her juice in her Little Mermaid Cup. When the new babysitter gives her juice in an Aladdin cup, Lana gets upset. The babysitter pours the juice from the Aladdin cup into the Little Mermaid Cup, but Lana cries that her juice is not the same. Based on this scenario, Lana has not yet developed:
    a. conservation.
    b. reversibility.
    c. transitivity.
    d. seriation.
A

a. conservation.

111
Q
  1. Kyle loves to play with Play-Doh. He rolls it into a ball and then flattens it out again. Based on his actions, we can assume that Kyle understands:
    a. classification.
    b. reversibility.
    c. transitivity.
    d. seriation.
A

b. reversibility.

112
Q
  1. The logical rule that says if A is greater than B and B is greater than C, then A is greater than C is known as:
    a. classification.
    b. reversibility.
    c. transitivity.
    d. seriation
A

c. transitivity.

113
Q
  1. ____________ is the ability to sort objects using a rule that determines an increasing magnitude of one or more dimensions.
    a. Classification
    b. Reversibility
    c. Conservation
    d. Seriation
A

d. Seriation

114
Q
  1. The ability to create groups of objects and sort them by similar properties is known as:
    a. classification.
    b. reversibility.
    c. conservation.
    d. seriation.
A

a. classification.

115
Q
  1. Two hallmarks of the concrete operational stage are seriation and classification.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

116
Q
  1. Children begin to think logically in the concrete operational stage.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

117
Q
  1. The concrete operational stage is the third stage in Piaget’s stages of development
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

118
Q
  1. Christy is able to write complex sentences and communicate her ideas through writing. Her writing is clear and easy to read. Christy has been able to improve her:
    a. fine motor skills.
    b. gross motor skills.
    c. hand–eye coordination.
    d. consistency.
A

c. hand–eye coordination.

119
Q
  1. Writing abilities improve in children with better hand-eye coordination. Maturation of hand-eye coordination is the result of:
    a. maturation of the CNS.
    b. maturation of the muscle systems.
    c. development of the fine motor skills.
    d. development of the gross motor skills.
A

a. maturation of the CNS.

120
Q
  1. Nate is just learning how to swim. His movements are spastic and he is always splashing water on the lifeguard. Based on this we can Nate needs improvement on his:
    a. flexibility.
    b. efficiency.
    c. consistency.
    d. hand–eye coordination.
A

b. efficiency.

121
Q
  1. Bryan loves arts and crafts time. He likes to paint with paint brushes, draw with pencils and color with crayons. Based on his wide use of art supplies, we can say Bryan has good:
    a. flexibility.
    b. efficiency.
    c. consistency.
    d. hand–eye coordination
A

a. flexibility.

122
Q
  1. Both Cindy and her dad Lou are taking piano lessons. Cindy finds that she is able to learn how to play new songs faster than her dad. Based on this we can say Cindy has:
    a. flexibility.
    b. efficiency.
    c. consistency.
    d. none of the choices
A

c. consistency.

123
Q
  1. The muscular and cardiovascular system energy expense used to perform a physical action is known as:
    a. flexibility.
    b. efficiency.
    c. consistency.
    d. cardio.
A

b. efficiency.

124
Q
  1. __________ is the ability to perform a physical act in a variety of contexts with a similar outcome.
    a. Flexibility
    b. Efficiency
    c. Consistency
    d. Adaptation
A

a. Flexibility

125
Q
  1. The ability to physically repeat an action in the same way with the same level of function is called:
    a. flexibility.
    b. efficiency.
    c. consistency.
    d. repetition.
A

c. consistency.

126
Q
  1. Physical activity does not play a role in the development of muscles.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

127
Q
  1. The lengthening and differentiation of muscle fibers result in improved motor skills.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

128
Q
  1. The muscular system and skeletal systems follow similar developmental paths.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

129
Q
  1. The average increase and weight for ages 6 through 12 is about:
    a. 8 pounds 2–3 inches per year.
    b. 8 pounds 5–7 inches per year.
    c. 2 pounds 4 inches per year.
    d. 2 pounds 2 inches per year.
A

a. 8 pounds 2–3 inches per year.

130
Q
  1. Timmy just had his tenth birthday. Based on his age, we can say that Timmy has attained ____ of his ultimate bone mass.
    a. all
    b. none
    c. 50%
    d. ¼
A

c. 50%

131
Q
  1. Susie is 10 years old. She is about to begin puberty. Based on skeletal development, we can assume her:
    a. pelvis and hips will widen.
    b. hips and legs will lengthen.
    c. pelvis and spinal cord will lengthen.
    d. hips and spinal cord will widen.
A

a. pelvis and hips will widen.

132
Q
  1. Human growth hormone stimulates organs to ______ cell production in the bones.
    a. decrease
    b. increase
    c. stop
    d. double
A

b. increase

133
Q
  1. Height increases mainly due to the lengthening in the lower part of the skeleton, mainly the:
    a. ribs and hips.
    b. tarsals and metatarsals.
    c. pelvis and the legs.
    d. hips and the legs.
A

c. pelvis and the legs.

134
Q
  1. Compared to earlier years, the rate of growth of both height and weight __________in middle to late childhood
    a. slows down
    b. speeds up
    c. stays the same
    d. none of the choices
A

a. slows down

135
Q
  1. The human growth hormone is responsible for:
    a. lengthening and enhancing mass.
    b. lengthening and decreasing mass.
    c. enhancing mass and decreasing lengthening.
    d. enhancing mass and stopping lengthening.
A

a. lengthening and enhancing mass.

136
Q
  1. The ____________ stimulates the production of the human growth hormone.
    a. hypothalamus
    b. pituitary gland
    c. both a and b
    d. Neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

137
Q
  1. Physical activity contributes to increased mineral content and bone density.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

138
Q
  1. The results of skeletons developing with respect to both width and height are more adult-like proportions and improved coordination.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

139
Q
  1. As children approach puberty, their skeletons expand in both width and height.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

140
Q
  1. Maggie likes to do math, wear pink, and help her mom cook. Her self-reflections are a direct result of maturation of:
    a. gray matter.
    b. white matter.
    c. her prefrontal cortex.
    d. her cerebellum.
A

c. her prefrontal cortex.

141
Q
  1. Charlie is 8 years old and is very good at soccer. His ability is a direct result of the maturation of:
    a. gray matter.
    b. white matter.
    c. the prefrontal cortex.
    d. the cerebellum.
A

a. gray matter.

142
Q
  1. Faster communication between the left and right hemispheres is dependent on development of the:
    a. pons.
    b. corpus callosum.
    c. brain stem.
    d. prefrontal cortex.
A

b. corpus callosum.

143
Q
  1. The prefrontal cortex is responsible for:
    a. complex thought.
    b. planning.
    c. problem solving.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

144
Q
  1. Myelination of white matter results in:
    a. faster communication between the left and right hemispheres.
    b. improving coordination.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

145
Q
  1. ____________ is(are) responsible for the speed of actions of neurons.
    a. Myelination
    b. Conduction
    c. Convection
    d. Action potentials
A

a. Myelination

146
Q
  1. The foremost part of the frontal lobe is:
    a. gray matter.
    b. white matter.
    c. the cerebellum.
    d. the prefrontal cortex.
A

d. the prefrontal cortex.

147
Q
  1. The tissue that connects brain areas via nerve fibers is referred to as:
    a. gray matter.
    b. white matter.
    c. the cerebellum.
    d. the prefrontal cortex.
A

b. white matter.

148
Q
  1. _____________ is the part of the brain that contains neuronal cell bodies.
    a. Gray matter
    b. White matter
    c. The cerebellum
    d. The prefrontal cortex
A

a. Gray matter

149
Q
  1. The prefrontal cortex is located in the back of the brain.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

150
Q
  1. Compared to younger children, school-aged children are less likely to be frustrated while waiting in line and are better able to follow instructions.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

151
Q
  1. Gray and white matter work together to perform functions of the brain.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

152
Q
  1. During middle childhood, children shift toward more realistic self-evaluations.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

153
Q
  1. In middle childhood, advances in the ability to compare oneself to another facilitates development of a sense of self.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

154
Q
  1. The first elements of self-concept appear in middle childhood.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

155
Q
  1. The process of learning about one’s abilities and characteristics by observing how they compare with those of others is known as social:
    a. compensation.
    b. comparison.
    c. selection.
    d. optimization.
A

b. comparison.

156
Q

Bloom: Application

  1. ____________refers to a child’s multidimensional understanding of one’s own personality, attributes, abilities, and attitudes.
    a. Self-esteem
    b. Self-concept
    c. Self-awareness
    d. Self–other relatedness
A

b. Self-concept

157
Q

. _______________ refers to the evaluation of one’s beliefs about one’s personality, attributes, abilities, and attitudes.

a. Self-esteem
b. Self-concept
c. Self-awareness
d. Self–other relatedness

A

a. Self-esteem

158
Q
  1. Culture __________ influence on a child’s self-concept
    a. has an
    b. has no
    c. for boys, has an
    d. for girls, has an
A

a. has an

159
Q
  1. Self-esteem involves the process of children ____________________ about themselves.
    a. making judgments
    b. having feelings
    c. both of the choices
    d. neither of the choices
A

c. both of the choices

160
Q
  1. Low ________________ is one reason a child may believe he or she is not capable of doing well in school.
    a. self-esteem
    b. self-concept of ability
    c. self-efficacy
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

161
Q
  1. Given one minute to evaluate a child’s self-esteem, a developmentalist is likely to conclude that a child has high self-esteem if she observes that the child:
    a. is doing well in school.
    b. has low levels of anxiety.
    c. has a number of friends.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

162
Q
  1. In middle childhood, signs of depression and breaking school rules suggest that the child:
    a. has low self-esteem.
    b. has not yet developed self-esteem.
    c. has too much self-esteem.
    d. is confused about his self-esteem.
A

a. has low self-esteem.

163
Q
  1. Elodie’s father often tells her that she is good at math. Her mother was a dancer and often tells Elodies stories that compare Elodie’s ability with her own ability at Elodie’s age. These interactions are likely to have the following effect on Elodie’s self-esteem:
    a. a positive effect.
    b. a negative effect.
    c. an unknown effect.
    d. contradictory effects, both positive and negative
A

c. an unknown effect.

164
Q
  1. Principal Scott, a developmentalist, explained to parents why he was replacing report cards for elementary school students. To facilitate development of students’ academic self-concepts, he is replacing grades with:
    a. student and teacher evaluations of students’ strengths and weaknesses in each school subject.
    b. rankings of each student compared to their peers.
    c. standardized test scores.
    d. teacher evaluations of effort and creativity each student demonstrates.
A

a. student and teacher evaluations of students’ strengths and weaknesses in each school subject

165
Q
  1. A child’s understanding of differences between right and wrong is a core element of moral development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

166
Q
  1. During middle childhood, moral development is influenced only by peers.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

167
Q
  1. Moral development in infancy and early childhood has no influence on moral development during middle childhood.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

168
Q
  1. According to Piaget, moral development in middle childhood mirrors:
    a. maturation of physical coordination.
    b. cognitive development.
    c. visual-spatial capacity.
    d. auditory-spatial ability.
A

b. cognitive development.

169
Q
  1. Moral development in middle childhood is most likely to involve:
    a. a lack of understanding of what is right versus wrong.
    b. learning that right versus wrong depends on the current situation.
    c. increasing adherence to the rules set by authority.
    d. decreasing reliance on peer norms.
A

b. learning that right versus wrong depends on the current situation.

170
Q
  1. A strong reliance on heteronomous morality in middle childhood indicates that moral development is:
    a. delayed.
    b. overdeveloped.
    c. on time.
    d. none of the choices
A

a. delayed.

171
Q
  1. An 8-year-old child’s use of autonomous morality to explain why another person behaved as she did suggests that the child’s moral development is:
    a. delayed.
    b. overdeveloped.
    c. on time.
    d. none of the choices
A

c. on time.

172
Q
  1. When a child who uses autonomous morality asks, “why did you throw the ball that hit me in the head?” she is searching for information that will help her understand:
    a. if the other child is good.
    b. if the other child is bad.
    c. the intentions of the other child.
    d. how to punish the other child.
A

c. the intentions of the other child.

173
Q
  1. Throughout childhood, moral development in girls and boys:
    a. proceeds in the same way.
    b. proceeds in different ways.
    c. may proceed differently; this remains a debate.
    d. proceeds in different ways in Western cultures only.
A

c. may proceed differently; this remains a debate.

174
Q
  1. According to Kohlberg, a developmentalist would conclude that a child is operating at the preconventional level of moral development if she:
    a. was focused on what she can “get away with.”
    b. behaved according to what was most personally satisfying.
    c. tried to avoid punishment and get as many rewards as possible.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

175
Q

. According to Kohlberg, the following would be an indicator that an older child was advancing to a conventional level of moral development: The child:

a. is obedient to authority to avoid punishment.
b. will do something to get a favor in return
c. is concerned with being nice and gaining approval.
d. asks what her reward will be for doing a good deed.

A

c. is concerned with being nice and gaining approval.

176
Q
  1. According to Kohlberg, it would be rare to observe a precocious child operating at a postconvetional level of moral development. However, a sign of such precocity would be reflected in a child becoming upset when:
    a. another child is teased for not celebrating Christmas.
    b. she doesn’t get the first-place ribbon when she clearly won the race.
    c. her side of the story is different from her friend’s.
    d. her parents expect her to set a good example for her younger siblings.
A

c. her side of the story is different from her friend’s.

177
Q
  1. When Martha, a developmentalist, teaches parents how to help scaffold moral development in school-aged children, she suggests that parents and teachers encourage their students to:
    a. “consider why someone is doing what he or she is doing.”
    b. “tell an adult when someone else is bad.”
    c. “think about the punishment they’ll get before they act.”
    d. “enforce the rules if others don’t.”
A

a. “consider why someone is doing what he or she is doing.”

178
Q
  1. A developmentalist who works from Carol Gilligan’s model would recognize and emphasize the value of a 9-year-old girl emphasizing the value of _______________________ when making a decision.
    a. preserving a meaningful relationship with another
    b. correcting another’s misinformation
    c. attending to rules rather than feelings
    d. making quick evaluations
A

a. preserving a meaningful relationship with another

179
Q
  1. According to Erikson, middle childhood is the developmental stage during which students are challenged to gain a sense of industry.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

180
Q
  1. According to Erikson, healthy development during middle childhood results in a sense of competence.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

181
Q
  1. According to Erikson, a child who feels inferior to others is showing the key sign that he is having difficulty resolving the psychosocial crisis of middle childhood.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

182
Q
  1. In middle childhood, resolving the task of industry versus inferiority results in a child:
    a. internalizing a sense of competence.
    b. expecting that others will see him as competent.
    c. attaining a strong sense of her future self.
    d. achieving the foundation of an ideal self.
A

a. internalizing a sense of competence.

183
Q
  1. Sophia is a 9-year-old dancer who is very proud that she has scored very high at every dance competition she has entered. However, before each competition she voices a great deal of self-doubt, often worrying that she won’t perform well at all. This is an indication that:
    a. her sense of inferiority dominates her sense of competence.
    b. she will not be able to resolve the industry versus Inferiority crisis.
    c. unresolved psychosocial crises from her past may be interfering with internalizing a sense of competence.
    d. due to her raw talent, she does not need to resolve the industry versus inferiority crisis.
A

c. unresolved psychosocial crises from her past may be interfering with internalizing a sense of competence.

184
Q
  1. Sam could read when he was 4 and could do addition and subtraction by the time he was 5. By sixth grade, however, he complained that he didn’t understand what the teachers wanted from him, that he felt he was he “stupid,” and so he refused to go to middle school. Recognizing his sense of inferiority in the context of knowing Sam’s high ability led his teacher to consider that Sam:
    a. may have had an undiagnosed learning disability undermining his sense of competence.
    b. was angry that his teachers didn’t recognize his competence.
    c. wanted easier work to feel more competent like he did when he was younger.
    d. did not have the ability to achieve competence.
A

a. may have had an undiagnosed learning disability undermining his sense of competence.

185
Q
  1. Parents remain an important influence on children’s development in middle childhood.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

186
Q
  1. A “tween” experiences the world through the lens of both a child and an adolescent.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

187
Q
  1. Parents are challenged to change their strategies to effectively care for and nurture kids through middle childhood.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

188
Q
  1. Effective parenting in middle childhood involves learning to ________________ less and ________________more.
    a. monitor; direct
    b. direct; monitor
    c. monitor; punish
    d. direct; reward
A

b. direct; monitor

189
Q
  1. Parents who use _____________ are likely to feel more effective in facilitating healthy development through middle childhood.
    a. reasoning
    b. suggestions
    c. neither of these
    d. both of these
A

d. both of these

190
Q
  1. Children whose parents are disengaged in middle childhood are more likely to be more:
    a. irresponsible.
    b. immature.
    c. less socially skilled.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

191
Q
  1. Poverty influences development in middle childhood via:
    a. restricted access to material assets.
    b. assaults on personal dignity.
    c. lack of social inclusion.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

192
Q
  1. In the United States, the poverty rate for children ages 0 to 18 hovers around:
    a. 2%.
    b. 5%.
    c. 10%.
    d. 20%.
A

d. 20%.

193
Q
  1. It is impossible for children living below the poverty line to meet normal developmental milestones, achieve developmental tasks, and succeed at the same rate as their peers who live at or above poverty level.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

194
Q
  1. A developmental systems view of poverty emphasizes the potential for poverty to indirectly undermine healthy child development by:
    a. reducing the chances that a child will eventually drop out of school.
    b. increasing risk for homelessness due to foreclosures and evictions.
    c. impeding vulnerable groups of people from getting jobs that pay a living wage.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

195
Q
  1. Developmental science research reveals that children raised by same-sex parents have ___________________ experiences and outcomes as children raised by opposite sex parents.
    a. the same type of
    b. different types of
    c. more positive
    d. more negative
A

a. the same type of

196
Q
  1. Parental divorce has long-lasting, negative effects on child development.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

197
Q
  1. Developmental science research findings indicate that interparental conflict has a strong, undermining effect on child development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

198
Q
  1. In the United States, divorce rates are declining, making it less likely that adolescents will experience a parental divorce.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

199
Q
  1. Younger children tend to blame themselves for interparental conflict, whereas adolescents tend to:
    a. become anxious and worried.
    b. become aggressive with others.
    c. ask adults for help with their feelings.
    d. turn to their peers for support.
A

b. become aggressive with others.

200
Q
  1. Maintaining the parent–adolescent relationship with the noncustodial parent:
    a. is always associated with better adolescent outcomes.
    b. is associated with better adolescent outcomes except when neglect or abuse has been established.
    c. neither choice
    d. both choices
A

b. is associated with better adolescent outcomes except when neglect or abuse has been established

201
Q
  1. Parents engaged in a high-conflict relationship with one another are more likely to use __________________ parenting with adolescent children.
    a. mild and inconsistent
    b. strict and consistent
    c. harsh and inconsistent
    d. mild and unpredictable
A

c. harsh and inconsistent

202
Q
  1. To reduce the negative impact parental divorce has on adolescents, _________________ is a new process that results in a divorce while helping parents limit conflict and focus on positive solutions.
    a. collaborative divorce
    b. mediation
    c. court-ordered separation
    d. collaborative
A

a. collaborative divorce

203
Q
  1. Parent education programs benefit adolescents by teaching parents:
    a. the value of teens having a healthy relationship with each parent.
    b. to limit the amount of conflict and stress to which teens are exposed.
    c. how to coparent effectively.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

204
Q
  1. When Jess was upset about her parents’ separation and upcoming divorce, the school counselor recommended that Jess talk to:
    a. her father, because fathers are more reasonable during separation and divorce.
    b. her mother; because mothers are more reasonable during separation and divorce.
    c. a therapist, because parents are often emotionally unavailable during divorce.
    d. her brother, because siblings are often supportive during their parents’ separation and divorce.
A

c. a therapist, because parents are often emotionally unavailable during divorce.

205
Q
  1. For adolescents, relationships with their siblings have the potential to last the longest across their lifespans.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A. True

206
Q
  1. Sibling rivalry can be a feature of relationships in childhood and through adolescence.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

207
Q
  1. Over _____ of U.S. adolescents have at least one sibling.
    a. 10%
    b. 25%
    c. 50%
    d. 75%
A

d. 75%

208
Q
  1. The quality of adolescents’ relationships with their siblings is influenced primarily by:
    a. parent–adolescent interactions.
    b. sibling temperament.
    c. both choices
    d. neither choice
A

a. parent–adolescent interactions.

209
Q
  1. Sibling rivalry tends to:
    a. decrease as adolescents become guides and mentors to younger siblings.
    b. increase as adolescents become guides and mentors to younger siblings.
    c. remain consistent from childhood through adulthood.
    d. fluctuate in adolescence as it does in childhood.
A

a. decrease as adolescents become guides and mentors to younger siblings.

210
Q
  1. Peer relationships in adolescence tend to be similar in quality to childhood peer relationships.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

211
Q
  1. Bullying refers to unwanted peer behavior that takes advantage of a power imbalance and occurs multiple times.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

212
Q
  1. Through middle childhood, children spend less time with peers in groups and spend more one-on-one time with peers.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

213
Q
  1. Sociometric measurement is useful for measuring peer popularity in middle childhood by:
    a. interviewing peers.
    b. counting party invitations.
    c. recording peer rankings.
    d. listening to children’s secrets
A

c. recording peer rankings

214
Q
  1. Adolescent peer groups become:
    a. larger.
    b. more diverse.
    c. private (low adult supervision).
    d. all of these choices
A

d. all of these choices

215
Q
  1. Popular children receive:
    a. many positive votes; few negative votes.
    b. few positive votes; few negative votes.
    c. many positive votes.
    d. few positive or negative votes.
A

a. many positive votes; few negative votes.

216
Q
  1. Rejected peers are those who receive:
    a. many negative votes; few positive votes.
    b. few negative votes; few positive votes.
    c. many negative votes.
    d. few positive or negative votes.
A

a. many negative votes; few positive votes.

217
Q
  1. Neglected peers are those who receive:
    a. many negative votes; few positive votes.
    b. few negative votes; few positive votes.
    c. many negative votes.
    d. few positive or negative votes.
A

d. few positive or negative votes.

218
Q

Bloom: Analysis

  1. Popular children are more likely to be:
    a. friendly.
    b. cooperative.
    c. sensitive.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

219
Q
  1. Children tend to attract peer rejection if they act ________________________ with others.
    a. assertively
    b. aggressively
    c. shyly
    d. selfishly
A

b. aggressively

220
Q
  1. Art, a sixth grader, has been considered a bully for a number of years. From a developmental perspective we can predict that Art:
    a. has been a victim of harsh parenting.
    b. wants to be respected and in charge.
    c. is disruptive in school.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

221
Q
  1. Self-conscious emotions tend to first appear in middle childhood.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

222
Q
  1. Emotions reach peak complexity by the time children reach school age.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

223
Q
  1. School-aged children have a basic emotion vocabulary that allows them to correctly identify facial expressions and behaviors.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

224
Q
  1. An example of a self-conscious emotion that a 9-year-old might experience is:
    a. envy.
    b. embarrassment.
    c. pride.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

225
Q
  1. Children who have ____________________ tend to have better emotional knowledge.
    a. mature cognitive abilities
    b. strong verbal skills
    c. Both of these choices contribute to emotional knowledge.
    d. Neither of these choices contributes to emotional knowledge.
A

c. Both of these choices contribute to emotional knowledge.

226
Q
  1. Emotions gain complexity when children begin to recognize that their:
    a. behaviors are observed by others.
    b. behaviors can be judged as good or bad.
    c. feelings can be recognized by others.
    d. behaviors can be judged as good or bad.
A

a. behaviors are observed by others.

227
Q
  1. Aiden wanted to spend his time working on his robotics project every day after school, but he goes to his social skills class to learn how to:
    a. express his emotions.
    b. reduce the frequency of “meltdowns” he feels when stressed.
    c. understand social cues.
    d. all of these
A

d. all of these

228
Q
  1. Eleven-year-old Kaitlyn, who is best known for her amazing vocabulary and writing skills, wanted to __________________ the trophy she won for running in the local 5k, expecting to feel _______________.
    a. show her peers; pride
    b. show her peers; envied
    c. hide the trophy from her peers; shame
    d. hide the trophy from her peers; anger
A

a. show her peers; pride

229
Q
  1. In elementary school, Sarah held hands with her mom and kissed her good-bye before she went into the classroom. Now, in middle school, Sarah is likely to feel:
    a. the same love toward her mother.
    b. embarrassed that her peers might call her a ”baby.”
    c. guilty that she refuses to hold hands with her mom.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

230
Q
  1. Resilient children demonstrate positive development in the face of adversity.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

231
Q
  1. The majority of U.S. children can be described as resilient.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

232
Q
  1. A risk factor such as _____________________ has the potential to interfere with healthy development in children.
    a. insecure attachment
    b. death of a parent
    c. neighborhood violence
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

233
Q
  1. A protective factor, such as ____________________ has the potential to facilitate healthy child development.
    a. high self-efficacy
    b. authoritative parenting
    c. supportive friends
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

234
Q
  1. Under adverse conditions, the likelihood that a child will demonstrate resilience depends on the influence of:
    a. risk factors.
    b. protective factors.
    c. both of these choices combined
    d. both of these choices independently
A

c. both of these choices combined

235
Q
  1. _______________________ is a risk factor that may contribute to childhood adversity.
    a. A difficult temperament
    b. Parent psychopathology
    c. Living in poverty
    d. any of these choices
A

d. any of these choices

236
Q
  1. _______________________is a protective factor that may contribute to childhood adversity.
    a. Having a higher IQ
    b. Having a close relationship with at least one caring adult
    c. An effective school
    d. any of these choices
A

d. any of these choices

237
Q
  1. Unhealthy coping includes ______________________coping.
    a. aggressive
    b. denial
    c. ruminative
    d. all of these choices
A

d. all of these choices

238
Q
  1. A child who uses active coping to deal with peer bullying will:
    a. try to solve the problem.
    b. seek help from others.
    c. either of these choices
    d. neither of these choices
A

c. either of these choices

239
Q
  1. An example of an unhealthy coping strategy a child can use when he feels rejected by a peer is:
    a. asking for help from others.
    b. pretending not to care.
    c. problem solving.
    d. seeking support.
A

b. pretending not to care.

240
Q
  1. Risk and protective factors influence childhood adjustment primarily through:
    a. individual characteristics.
    b. family features.
    c. community factors.
    d. all of these choices
A

d. all of these choices

241
Q
  1. As children get older, they get better at distinguishing between _____________________ stressors, which makes them better able to apply effective coping strategies.
    a. authoritative and authoritarian
    b. controllable and uncontrollable stressors
    c. active and passive
    d. ruminative and punitive
A

b. controllable and uncontrollable stressors

242
Q
  1. When Grayson made the transition from sixth to seventh grade, he felt like his world had crashed: Middle school was more challenging, his parents divorced, and he didn’t make the basketball team. Knowing these facts, we can conclude that Grayson:
    a. will be resilient in the face of adversity.
    b. had many protective factors in his life.
    c. experienced additional risk factors.
    d. would benefit from protective factors
A

d. would benefit from protective factors