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PSYC Lifespan > UNIT 2 > Flashcards

UNIT 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Researchers are not certain about the process of differentiation in infancy, but do agree that infants __________________ self-awareness.
    a. are born prepared to develop
    b. require an interpersonal context to develop
    c. are born with predisposed behaviors that scaffold maturation of
    d. none of these choices
A

c. are born with predisposed behaviors that scaffold maturation of

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2
Q
  1. Piaget’s theory of differentiation doesn’t allow for slowly evolving differentiation during:
    a. adolescence.
    b. the first year of life.
    c. emerging adulthood.
    d. the second year of life.
A

b. the first year of life.

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3
Q
  1. Differentiating oneself from a caregiver is a step in the development of:
    a. social referencing.
    b. parental differentiating.
    c. self-differentiating.
    d. self-awareness.
A

d. self-awareness.

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4
Q
  1. Self-awareness is an essential step in the development of:
    a. emotional regulation.
    b. secondary emotions.
    c. attachment relationships.
    d. social referencing.
A

c. attachment relationships.

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5
Q
  1. Research suggests that true self-awareness develops between ____ months.
    a. 3 and 5
    b. 14 and 18
    c. 10 and 20
    d. 22 and 24
A

b. 14 and 18

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6
Q
  1. Baby Joe’s grandma visits him for his 15-month birthday. She gives him a big wet kiss on the cheek. When baby Joe looks in the mirror he reaches up to his face where his grandma left a lipstick mark. Baby Joe:
    a. has developed a sense of self-awareness.
    b. is using social referencing.
    c. has not developed a sense of self-awareness.
    d. is confused about his reflection.
A

a. has developed a sense of self-awareness.

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7
Q
  1. Helen, 16 months old, has been eating a chocolate chip cookie. When her mom takes her to the bathroom to wash her face, Helen looks in the mirror and touches a spot of chocolate on her cheek. Based on this, her mother might take note that baby Helen:
    a. has developed self-awareness.
    b. has not developed self-awareness.
    c. is afraid of the mirror.
    d. is confused by the mirror
A

a. has developed self-awareness.

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8
Q
  1. Researchers collect data on infant self-awareness by putting rouge on a child’s nose and observing the age at which the young child will ______________the red rouge mark when he or she looks in a mirror.
    a. wipe off
    b. notice
    c. cry about
    d. all of the choices
A

b. notice

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9
Q
  1. According to developmental scientists, self-awareness emerges when language and cognitive complexity develop.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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10
Q
  1. Most researchers suggest that social awareness doesn’t emerge until after the second year of life.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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11
Q
  1. Piaget believed that infants and young children have no awareness of themselves as separate beings.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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12
Q
  1. Baby Consuelo often acts differently than other 6-month-old babies. For example, when his mom covers her ears and looks sad at the funeral, Consuelo is happy and giggling and smiling. Based on this description, we can hypothesize that he may be demonstrating delayed or impaired capacity for:
    a. emotional regulation.
    b. social referencing.
    c. emotional referencing.
    d. social regulation.
A

b. social referencing.

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13
Q
  1. Broadly speaking, thinking about the influence of cultural and social systems on infant development, social referencing is important as a means of:
    a. transmitting information about what is meaningful in a particular society to a new generation.
    b. understanding what is punishable in a particular society.
    c. understanding how one should act in a particular society.
    d. understanding customs in a particular society.
A

a. transmitting information about what is meaningful in a particular society to a new generation.

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14
Q
  1. It is important to understand the role of social referencing in the first months of the lifespan because helping an infant ________________can make a significant impact on emotional development across the lifespan.
    a. learn to read emotional cues
    b. get on a pathway to healthy emotional development
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

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15
Q
  1. ___________ are two theories developmentalists use to explain why children engage in social referencing.
    a. Attachment perspective and social referencing hypothesis
    b. Emotional referencing and social referencing
    c. Attachment perspective and emotional referencing
    d. Social referencing and behavioral referencing
A

a. Attachment perspective and social referencing hypothesis

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16
Q
  1. According to the __________ hypothesis, infants look to their caregivers to reduce ambiguity and learn appropriate ways to react in novel social situations.
    a. attachment theory
    b. social referencing
    c. emotional referencing
    d. all of the choices
A

b. social referencing

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17
Q
  1. Via social referencing, Maggie recognizes that her mom is scared to go into a haunted house. From this experience, a developmentalist would predict that Maggie will be__________ about going in to the haunted house.
    a. excited
    b. cautious
    c. nervous
    d. brave
A

c. nervous

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18
Q
  1. Watching a parade for his first time, 1-year-old Frederick doesn’t know how to respond when the band passes directly in front of him. To understand what is going on, Fredrick is likely to:
    a. begin to cry.
    b. look to his parents.
    c. cover his ears.
    d. none of the choices
A

b. look to his parents.

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19
Q
  1. Using a caregiver’s emotional cue to help understand an uncertain event or stimulus relies on:
    a. parental referencing.
    b. caregiver referencing.
    c. social referencing.
    d. emotional referencing.
A

c. social referencing.

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20
Q
  1. An event such as a loud noise is an example of a situation when a child might use social referencing.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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21
Q
  1. In an emotional situation, an infant will often look to a caregiver’s facial cues to make a decision about responding.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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22
Q
  1. Between 6 and 12 months of age, infants become increasingly social and interactive.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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23
Q
  1. Dylan is 15 months old. With respect to Dylan’s emotional maturity, a developmentalist would predict that Dylan is experiencing a(n):
    a. explosion of his emotional awareness.
    b. new phase of memory processing.
    c. advances in physical and cognitive development associated with the emergence of adult emotions.
    d. new phase of social development as a result of emotional maturation.
A

d. new phase of social development as a result of emotional maturation.

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24
Q
  1. Developmentalists continue to debate which emotions are primary emotions and which are secondary. However, there is general agreement that emotions are best measured and assessed by making observations of:
    a. vocal tone.
    b. facial expressions.
    c. facial tension.
    d. vocal tension.
A

b. facial expressions

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25
Q
  1. _____________ is an example of a primary emotion.
    a. Sadness
    b. Fear
    c. Joy
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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26
Q
  1. Baby Meghan is 2 weeks old. When her dad plays peek-a-boo with her, she smiles. Baby Meghan’s facial expression is an indicator that she is feeling:
    a. a primary emotion.
    b. a secondary emotion.
    c. social competence.
    d. playful
A

a. a primary emotion.

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27
Q
  1. Julia is talking to her friend Mark. When Mark tells her that he is sad because his goldfish died, Julia finds herself responding to his sadness with similar feelings. Julia is experiencing:
    a. empathy,
    b. pride,
    c. guilt,
    d. shame,
A

a. empathy,

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28
Q
  1. Lori continues to play ball in the house after her mom told her several times to only play ball outside. When Lori accidentally knocks over her mother’s favorite vase, immediately she has a deep feeling of regret; most likely she feels:
    a. empathy.
    b. pride.
    c. guilt.
    d. shame.
A

c. guilt.

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29
Q
  1. An emotion that emerges with the help of certain cognitive and social developments is known as a:
    a. secondary emotion.
    b. primary emotion.
    c. social smile.
    d. basic emotion
A

a. secondary emotion.

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30
Q
  1. A _______________ is an emotion that is present early in life and is most likely innate.
    a. secondary emotion
    b. primary emotion
    c. social smiling
    d. basic emotion
A

b. primary emotion

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31
Q
  1. Pride, guilt, shame, and empathy are secondary emotions.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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32
Q
  1. Parents can expect that the first facial expression they will see in infancy is a social smile.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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33
Q
  1. With respect to emotional development in infancy, emotions can be categorized into two types: primary and secondary.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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34
Q
  1. Differences between boys and girls can be seen as early as:
    a. 2 weeks.
    b. 3 months.
    c. 1 year.
    d. the fetal period.
A

d. the fetal period.

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35
Q
  1. Jake has two children, a son and a daughter. Based on research about father attachment, we can assume that Jake will be ______ sensitive to his son than to his daughter.
    a. more
    b. less
    c. equally
    d. none of the choices
A

a. more

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36
Q
  1. By early childhood, gender differences generally develop in response to:
    a. genetic predispositions.
    b. social influences.
    c. biological predispositions and social influences.
    d. social influences and socioeconomic status.
A

c. biological predispositions and social influences.

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37
Q
  1. With respect to a child’s attachment to fathers, the child’s ________________ plays a role in determining the level and type of attachment security a child is likely to develop.
    a. gender
    b. age
    c. activity preferences
    d. temperament
A

a. gender

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38
Q
  1. During early childhood, girls tend to be more _______ compared to boys.
    a. physically active
    b. vulnerable to infections
    c. emotionally expressive
    d. emotionally restricted
A

c. emotionally expressive

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39
Q
  1. During early childhood, boys tend to be _________ active than girls.
    a. more
    b. less
    c. equally
    d. none of the choices
A

a. more

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40
Q
  1. Research found that mothers and fathers showed the same level of sensitivity to sons, but fathers were ________ sensitive to daughters than mothers.
    a. more
    b. less
    c. equally
    d. none of the choices
A

b. less

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41
Q
  1. Gender describes the social values and expectations people have for males and females.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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42
Q
  1. Sex differences are clear biologically based differences between males and females.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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43
Q
  1. Findings from attachment studies indicate that infants can have different attachment relationships with their mothers and fathers.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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44
Q
  1. Estimates suggest that approximately ____% of infants are securely attached.
    a. 9
    b. 14
    c. 15
    d. 62
A

d. 62

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45
Q
  1. Results from Harlow’s monkey experiment demonstrated that the monkeys preferred the __________ mothers over the __________ mothers when seeking comfort.
    a. cloth; wired
    b. wired; cloth
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

a. cloth; wired

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46
Q
  1. Baby Christopher and his mom are very attuned to one another. Their interactions are reciprocal and mutually rewarding. Developmentalists are likely to note that their relationship is high on:
    a. synchrony.
    b. internal working models.
    c. secure attachment.
    d. none of the choices
A

a. synchrony.

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47
Q
  1. Bethany is 9 months old. She is happy and playful when she is with her parents; when they leave, she begins to cry. Because she is eventually able to be soothed and is pleased when her parents return, a developmentalist is likely to conclude that Bethany is ____________ attached.
    a. insecurely (avoidant)
    b. insecurely (resistant)
    c. insecurely (disorganized)
    d. securely
A

d. securely

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48
Q
  1. The diagnosis of ___________ is given when an infant falls below the developmental growth curve as he or she makes gains in age but not in height and weight.
    a. low birth weight
    b. failure to thrive
    c. infant depression
    d. infant anxiety
A

b. failure to thrive

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49
Q
  1. Attachment experiences generalize beyond the infant–caregiver relationship through the influence of a child’s ___________________ that develops in response to and reflects early attachment experiences.
    a. internal working model
    b. infant working model
    c. parental working model
    d. caregiver working model
A

a. internal working model

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50
Q
  1. An infant who is _______________ attached is very likely to display very high levels of distress when separated from a caregiver and then mixed reactions when reunited with the caregiver.
    a. insecurely (avoidant)
    b. insecurely (resistant)
    c. insecurely (disorganized)
    d. securely
A

b. insecurely (resistant)

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51
Q
  1. When a developmentalist observes an infant showing flexibility with respect to the proximity he seeks and maintains between himself and his caregiver, and the infant remains calm while playing, the developmentalist would likely describe this infant as ______________ attached.
    a. insecurely (avoidant)
    b. insecurely (resistant)
    c. insecurely (disorganized)
    d. securely
A

d. securely

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52
Q
  1. Infants can be classified by their attachment style in one of four categories.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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53
Q
  1. Harry Harlow looked at attachment using an ethological perspective.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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54
Q
  1. Harry Harlow used baby panda bears to demonstrate attachment.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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55
Q
  1. Bowlby’s work explains the attachment process through
    a. an adaptive perspective.
    b. an ethological perspective.
    c. Bowlby’s own lens, neither a nor b
    d. both a and b, an eclectic approach
A

d. both a and b, an eclectic approach

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56
Q
  1. Joelle is 12 weeks old. She often smiles and stares at the people who are talking to her. Based on Bowlby’s attachment theory, Joelle in the __________ phase.
    a. pre-attachment
    b. beginning of attachment
    c. clear attachment
    d. goal-directed attachment
A

c. clear attachment

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57
Q
  1. Bowlby proposed a _____-phase sequence of attachment.
    a. two
    b. four
    c. six
    d. eight
A

b. four

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58
Q
  1. Ronnie, 10 months old, is very attached to his mother. When Ronnie’s mother drops him off at daycare, he cries and demonstrates significant distress. A developmental scientist would conclude that Ronnie is showing typical signs of ______________ anxiety.
    a. stranger
    b. separation
    c. caregiver
    d. attachment
A

b. separation

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59
Q
  1. Georgina, 9 months old, is very attached to her parents. When they take her on a playdate, she clings to her parents and appears particularly distressed when other adults, not her parents, reach out to hold her. Georgina is experiencing:
    a. stranger anxiety.
    b. separation anxiety.
    c. distressed anxiety.
    d. caregiver anxiety.
A

a. stranger anxiety.

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60
Q
  1. Infants experience at least two types of normative and expected anxiety: _______________________ anxiety.
    a. attachment and separation
    b. attachment and stranger
    c. relational and separation
    d. separation and stranger
A

d. separation and stranger

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61
Q
  1. The extent to which an infant can deliberately modulate behavioral and emotional responses is determined by the health and maturity of an infant’s _______________ -regulation system.
    a. behavior
    b. attitude
    c. emotion
    d. self
A

d. self

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62
Q
  1. ____________theory describes a way of understanding how the quality of the caregiver–infant relationship determines the context for emotional, social, and cognitive development during the first years of life.
    a. Bowlbinian
    b. Caregiver–Infant Relationship
    c. Attachment
    d. None of the choices
A

c. Attachment

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63
Q
  1. John Bowlby was one of the first developmental scientists to describe the role of attachment in determining healthy versus unhealthy adjustment during the first years of the lifespan.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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64
Q
  1. A child’s primary attachment figures are typically grandparents.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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65
Q
  1. Attachment is a construct that describes an enduring emotional bond that connects a child to caregivers.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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66
Q
  1. Based on cutting-edge findings using fMRI, developmental scientists may predict that a child who scores high on the inhibition scale may grow up to:
    a. have an outgoing personality.
    b. be socially withdrawn.
    c. have a psychological disorder.
    d. all of the choices
A

b. be socially withdrawn.

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67
Q
  1. Cutting-edge findings from using fMRI to study children and adults at different ages and stages through the lifespan indicate that temperament ______________ throughout our lives.
    a. is relatively stable
    b. is relatively fluid
    c. doesn’t affect us
    d. doesn’t affect others
A

a. is relatively stable

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68
Q
  1. When 5-year-old Kori’s parents see that she is distressed by the clown at her birthday party, they immediately try to soothe her and they help her avoid the clown for the rest of the party. This is an example of the way Kori’s parents try to ______________ goodness-of-fit between Kori and her social world.
    a. promote
    b. suppress
    c. destroy
    d. force
A

a. promote

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69
Q
  1. Which of these behaviors would a developmental scientist most likely code as ‘low’ goodness-of-fit?
    a. parents choosing not to soothe a crying infant
    b. parents choosing to play loud music to cover the loud cries of the baby while in the car
    c. parents choosing to feed their newborn on their 3-meal-a-day schedule to match with their family schedule.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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70
Q
  1. Charlotte is 4 years old, and she is afraid of loud noises. To promote goodness-of-fit, her parents choose to avoid taking her to:
    a. see fireworks.
    b. the town concert.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

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71
Q
  1. Julio’s parents do nothing to help soothe him when he is in a stressful situation. They believe they are helping him learn to “suck it up” when they expect him to soothe himself. In this scenario, the parents place little value on ____________________ goodness-of-fit.
    a. optimizing
    b. reducing
    c. ignoring
    d. neutralizing
A

a. optimizing

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72
Q
  1. When parents react calmly and minimize exposure to negative stimuli, a young child is likely to experience high:
    a. goodness-of-fit.
    b. sociability.
    c. IQ.
    d. ego development.
A

a. goodness-of-fit.

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73
Q
  1. ______________ describes the relationship between environmental forces and predisposed temperamental behavior.
    a. Environment of temperament
    b. Sociability of temperament
    c. Goodness of fit
    d. Temperament of environment
A

c. Goodness of fit

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74
Q
  1. Behavioral differences in children often occur along with related differences in a child’s physiology—for example, differences in heart rate and pupil dilation response.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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75
Q
  1. Parents influence the level of goodness-of-fit a child experiences.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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76
Q
  1. Developmental scientists who study temperament consider environmental influences when they create goodness-of-fit indices.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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77
Q
  1. Approach and withdrawal behaviors describe extremes of a young child’s temperament, both on the same:
    a. end of the scale.
    b. stage.
    c. continuum.
    d. pattern
A

c. continuum.

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78
Q
  1. To study differences between inhibited and uninhibited children, developmental scientists use _______________________ to examine amygdala activity.
    a. fMRI
    b. observations
    c. CAT scan
    d. none of the choices
A

a. fMRI

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79
Q
  1. The part of the brain responsible for the behavioral and physiological differences in temperament is known as:
    a. the cerebellum.
    b. occipital love.
    c. Brocha’s area.
    d. the amygdala.
A

d. the amygdala

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80
Q
  1. While at a birthday party Lucas sees a clown. He immediately goes up to the clown and starts to laugh and giggle when the clown starts doing a silly dance. Based on this scenario, Lucas is behaviorally:
    a. shy.
    b. sociable.
    c. happy.
    d. sad
A

b. sociable.

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81
Q
  1. When Alma was playing at the park and another girl came up to her to play, Alma hid behind her mother and was cautious to begin playing with her. Based on this scenario, we can say Alma is behaviorally:
    a. shy.
    b. sociable.
    c. happy.
    d. sad
A

a. shy.

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82
Q
  1. The terms ______________ can be used interchangeably with the terms sociable and shy to describe a young child’s temperament.
    a. inhibited and uninhibited
    b. naughty and nice
    c. happy and sad
    d. charismatic and repelling
A

a. inhibited and uninhibited

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83
Q
  1. Approach and withdrawal are dimensions of a toddler’s response to:
    a. daycare.
    b. sudden noises.
    c. unfamiliar people and situations.
    d. unfamiliar body functions
A

c. unfamiliar people and situations.

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84
Q
  1. Temperament researchers rely on genetic tests to determine the extent to which a child’s temperament is due to environmental effects, for example, parenting.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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85
Q
  1. Inhibited and uninhibited are synonymous with the terms sociable and shy, respectively.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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86
Q
  1. Two dimensions of toddler behavior fully describe social style on temperament scales: sociable and shy.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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87
Q
  1. the NLYS described ____ dimensions of temperament, while Rothbart revised it to ____ dimensions of temperament.
    a. nine; three
    b. three; nine
    c. five; two
    d. two; five
A

a. nine; three

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88
Q
  1. Given what you know about the NYLS, which of the following topics is likely to be discussed in an annual report of findings?
    a. intensity to reaction
    b. attention span/persistence
    c. adaptability
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

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89
Q
  1. Scott notices that his son often has a low activity level and withdraws from new people. However, after repeat visits with the same person, his young son will adjust to new people. A developmentalist would describe Scott as having a(n) _______________ temperament.
    a. difficult
    b. easy
    c. slow-to-warm-up
    d. open
A

c. slow-to-warm-up

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90
Q
  1. Joe is quite often irritable and fussy. His parents observe that he does not do well in new situations, and they complain that he has irregular patterns of eating and sleeping. A developmentalist is likely to conclude that Joe has a(n)__________ temperament.
    a. difficult
    b. easy
    c. slow-to-warm-up
    d. open
A

a. difficult

91
Q
  1. Margo’s parents describe her as a “good” baby. They view her as always happy; they understand her to be a baby who can easily adapt to new situations; and they recognize that she has regular patterns of eating and sleeping. Based on this description, a developmentalist would describe Margo as having a(n) _______________ temperament.
    a. difficult
    b. easy
    c. slow-to-warm-up
    d. open
A

b. easy

92
Q
  1. An infant’s tendency to react with inhibitory control, attention control, low-intensity pleasure, and perpetual activity would be described as high on:
    a. negative affectivity.
    b. extraversion/surgency.
    c. effortful control.
    d. none of the choices
A

c. effortful control

93
Q
  1. The dimension of infant temperament defined by low shyness, smiling, and activity level is known as:
    a. negative affectivity.
    b. extraversion/surgency.
    c. effort control.
    d. none of the choices
A

b. extraversion/surgency.

94
Q
  1. The dimension of temperament that describes a tendency toward fear, frustration, sadness, and discomfort is:
    a. negative affectivity.
    b. extraversion/surgency.
    c. effort control.
    d. none of the choices
A

a. negative affectivity.

95
Q
  1. Rothbart and the New York Longitudinal Study (NYLS) each described a set of dimensions that each, respectively, fully describe temperament.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

96
Q
  1. There are three patterns of temperament: easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

97
Q
  1. Biologically based individual differences that determine variation in the way individuals respond to the environment references the role of temperament.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

98
Q
  1. Julie and James have a new son, Charles. When the baby cries during the day, Julie and James are able to soothe and comfort him. However, at night they are both very tired. They have chosen to let Charles “cry it out.” The new parents are concerned that they may be undermining his healthy development, so the pediatrician tells them that they should focus on the baby developing __________________, the strength he should be developing at this stage.
    a. self-soothing
    b. response to tough love
    c. trust
    d. mistrust
A

c. trust

99
Q
  1. Freud believed that the ______ was developed during the oral stage and the _______ during the anal stage.
    a. ego; id
    b. ego; superego
    c. id; ego
    d. id; superego
A

c. id; ego

100
Q
  1. Sylvia prides herself on being neat, orderly, and controlled. Her brother, Gustav, knows himself to be messy, creative, and emotionally wild. Based on these two extremes, we can assume that both have:
    a. an anal fixation.
    b. OCD.
    c. an oral fixation.
    d. a personality disorder
A

a. an anal fixation.

101
Q
  1. Janine is a toddler; she increasingly wants to do tasks “on own.” Based on her behavior, we can say that Janine is working on resolving:
    a. initiative versus guilt.
    b. autonomy versus shame/doubt.
    c. trust versus mistrust.
    d. integrity versus despair
A

b. autonomy versus shame/doubt.

102
Q
  1. Jeffery and Molly are concerned that their son Marcus is still sucking his thumb at 5 years of age. They are more concerned that Marcus will, in fact, put anything in his mouth. Based on his behavior, we can say that Marcus has a(n):
    a. anal fixation.
    b. tongue fixation.
    c. oral fixation.
    d. taste fixation.
A

c. oral fixation.

103
Q
  1. ___________ is successfully resolved when the toddler begins to understand self-control through achievements
    a. Initiative versus guilt
    b. Autonomy versus shame/doubt
    c. Trust versus mistrust
    d. Integrity versus despair
A

b. Autonomy versus shame/doubt

104
Q
  1. The first stage of Erikson’s psychosocial stage theory, _________________, is successfully resolved when the individual develops the understanding that the environment will meet his or her needs.
    a. initiative versus guilt
    b. autonomy versus shame/doubt
    c. trust versus mistrust
    d. integrity versus despair
A

c. trust versus mistrust

105
Q
  1. _________ is the return to the ________ stage later in life shown through obsessive personality issues.
    a. Anal fixation, anal
    b. Anal fixation, oral
    c. Oral fixation, anal
    d. Oral fixation, oral
A

a. Anal fixation, anal

106
Q
  1. The return to the ________ stage later in life, through actions such as smoking, is known as ________.
    a. oral; anal fixation
    b. oral; oral fixation
    c. anal; anal fixation
    d. anal; oral fixation
A

b. oral; oral fixation

107
Q
  1. Erikson proposed that autonomy versus shame/doubt is the primary developmental task of infancy.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

108
Q
  1. Freud’s psychosexual stage theory contains both an oral and anal stage of development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

109
Q
  1. Freud posited a psychosexual stage theory for normal child and adolescent development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

110
Q
  1. ___________ is a risk factor associated with an increased risk of SIDS.
    a. Sleeping in a hot room
    b. Exposure to second-hand smoke
    c. Low birth rate
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

111
Q
  1. When Gabrielle was born, doctors told her parents that the most effective way to reduce the risk of SIDS is to:
    a. exclusively breastfeed her.
    b. lay her on her back to sleep.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

112
Q
  1. The highest rate of SIDS occurs in infants between _______ months.
    a. 1 and 2
    b. 2 and 3
    c. 3 and 4
    d. 5 and 6
A

b. 2 and 3

113
Q
  1. In the United States, African American infants are ______ as likely to die of SIDS compared to Caucasian American babies.
    a. 1 to 2 times
    b. 2 to 3 times
    c. 4 to 5 times
    d. equally
A

b. 2 to 3 times

114
Q
  1. Since the beginning of the Safe to Sleep Campaign in 1994, the rate of SIDS has dropped more than ____%.
    a. 25
    b. 50
    c. 45
    d. 30
A

b. 50

115
Q
  1. SIDS is the ______ leading cause of infant mortality.
    a. first
    b. second
    c. third
    d. fourth
A

c. third

116
Q
  1. The National Institute of Child Health and Human Development designed the _______ campaign to reduce the number of SIDS-related deaths.
    a. Safe to Sleep
    b. Reduce SIDS
    c. Breast Is Best
    d. Protect Your Child
A

a. Safe to Sleep

117
Q
  1. Annually, in the United States, approximately ________ families will face the loss of their child to SIDS.
    a. 1500
    b. 3000
    c. 2300
    d. 9000
A

c. 2300

118
Q
  1. There are often many signs and symptoms of SIDS.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

119
Q
  1. Sudden infant death syndrome describes the sudden and unexplained death of a seemingly healthy infant.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

120
Q
  1. Breastfeeding has many benefits, including but not limited to:
    a. decreased risk of SIDS.
    b. lower risk of high blood pressure.
    c. lower risk of problematic blood cholesterol.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

121
Q
  1. The duration of breastfeeding is a highly controversial subject in society. According to the AAP, the proper length of time for breastfeeding is:
    a. determined by the child and mother.
    b. 6 months.
    c. 5 years.
    d. 3 months.
A

a. determined by the child and mother.

122
Q
  1. Elizabeth recently gave birth to her first baby. While breastfeeding, she has no menstrual cycle. This is most likely due to:
    a. lactational amenorrhea.
    b. increased oxytocin.
    c. ovum amenorrhea.
    d. postpartum infertility.
A

a. lactational amenorrhea.

123
Q
  1. Juliette is a new mother who has made the decision to breastfeed. She notices that the more her baby suckles and stimulates her nipples, the more milk she produces. This is due to the release of the hormone:
    a. oxytocin.
    b. estrogen.
    c. dopamine.
    d. prolactin
A

d. prolactin

124
Q
  1. Two maternal hormones, _____________ and _____________ directly affect milk production and, indirectly, the breastfeeding experience for mother and infant.
    a. estrogen; oxytocin
    b. prolactin; oxytocin
    c. testosterone; dopamine
    d. prolactin; estrogen
A

b. prolactin; oxytocin

125
Q
  1. Jana is 6 months old. She receives breast milk and other forms of solid food to meet her nutritional requirements. The type of feeding Jana is receiving is referred to as ________________ breastfeeding.
    a. on-demand
    b. exclusive
    c. joint
    d. complementary
A

d. complementary

126
Q
  1. ________ is the densely nutritious, yellowish, sticky breast milk secreted during the first 2 to 3 days after birth.
    a. Cilia
    b. Colostrum
    c. Regular breast milk
    d. none of the choices
A

b. Colostrum

127
Q
  1. When an infant receives breast milk as her only form of nutrition, this type of feeding is known as:
    a. exclusive breastfeeding.
    b. on-demand breastfeeding.
    c. complementary breastfeeding.
    d. nutritional breastfeeding.
A

a. exclusive breastfeeding

128
Q
  1. Nursing a baby when the baby shows signs of hunger is a form of feeding referred to as complementary breastfeeding.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

129
Q
  1. Infant nutrition involves monitoring the consumption of a healthy balance of carbohydrates, fats, and other forms of calories.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

130
Q
  1. After The Lancet published the findings on the MMR vaccination and autism, vaccination rates fell from ___ to 80%.
    a. 50%
    b. 35%
    c. 92%
    d. 65%
A

c. 92%

131
Q
  1. Vaccine mandates have successfully eliminated a variety of childhood illnesses, including:
    a. polio.
    b. diphtheria.
    c. smallpox.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

132
Q
  1. In the United States, when Bruce goes to the pediatrician for his well check-up at age 1, it is likely that he will be given:
    a. an APGAR test.
    b. vaccines.
    c. a Babinski test.
    d. none of the choices
A

b. vaccines.

133
Q
  1. The 1998 study on associations between the MMR and autism stirred significant controversy because:
    a. the study couldn’t be replicated.
    b. the sample size was suspect.
    c. data was found to be falsified.
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

134
Q
  1. In countries that don’t mandate vaccinations at birth and in the first few years of life, communicable illnesses and diseases _____________ infants and children.
    a. have a significant potential to harm vulnerable
    b. have low potential to harm vulnerable
    c. are unlikely to affect high-risk
    d. are likely to affect low-risk
A

a. have a significant potential to harm vulnerable

135
Q
  1. In 1998, research published in The Lancet linked the MMR vaccine to ___________________________. Later, the story was retracted and described as “false.”
    a. autism
    b. schizophrenia
    c. low IQ
    d. childhood depression
A

a. autism

136
Q
  1. Jordan is 2 years old. It is likely that she has received approximately ____ vaccines.
    a. 9
    b. 5
    c. 15
    d. 12
A

c. 15

137
Q
  1. The MMR vaccine is delivered to children around their third birthday.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

138
Q
  1. MMR stands for the standard measles, mumps, rubella vaccine given to infants.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

139
Q
  1. Infants are given vaccines to provide complete or improved immunity against diseases and infections.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

140
Q
  1. Ginger will not cross the plexiglass, visual cliff. Research findings suggest that Ginger may be aware of the change in depth of the floor under her but may not:
    a. understand why there is a change in depth.
    b. feel fear.
    c. cry.
    d. none of the choices
A

b. feel fear

141
Q
  1. With respect to infant pain, research findings indicate that:
    a. too much pain may have negative behavioral consequences.
    b. infants experience pain.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

142
Q
  1. Infants who have been crawling for a longer period of time are ______ likely to cross the visual cliff.
    a. equally as
    b. more
    c. less
    d. two times as
A

c. less

143
Q
  1. _________ releases a natural pain killer for infants.
    a. Breast milk
    b. Cuddling
    c. Feeding
    d. Rocking
A

a. Breast milk

144
Q
  1. Jake, born a week ago, is scheduled for a circumcision. His parents may mistakingly believe that Jake:
    a. lacks the ability to form explicit memories at this age, which guarantees that he won’t feel the pain.
    b. is an infant and so doesn’t feel pain in the same way an adult would feel the pain.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

145
Q
  1. Jacqi is 6 months old. When she experiences the visual cliff, she is most likely to:
    a. ignore the visual cliff.
    b. refuse to engage in the task.
    c. cry when she sees the visual cliff.
    d. stop crawling at the visual cliff.
A

d. stop crawling at the visual cliff.

146
Q
  1. The visual cliff is an experimental apparatus used to test an infant’s __________________perception.
    a. depth
    b. pain
    c. visual
    d. emotion
A

a. depth

147
Q
  1. Developmental science research offers evidence that infants do experience pain.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

148
Q
  1. Developmental scientists ______________ the amount of pain an infant has the potential to experience.
    a. agree about
    b. disagree about
    c. understand the exact amount
    d. all of these choices
A

b. disagree about

149
Q
  1. Carmella’s mother constantly holds her throughout the day and sleeps with the infant at night. These infant–caregiver interactions are likely to predict _____________ for Carmella.
    a. physiological and psychological benefits
    b. unwanted, negative attachment problems
    c. cognitive and memory deficits
    d. none of these choices
A

a. physiological and psychological benefits

150
Q
  1. ____________ separate(s) a carrying species from a nesting species.
    a. Response to loving and kissing
    b. Interest in cuddling and playing
    c. Breast milk composition and frequency of demand feedings
    d. The amount of food and type of food a newborn eats
A

c. Breast milk composition and frequency of demand feedings

151
Q
  1. Katy is a newborn. She cries often and makes funny faces when she tastes sour liquids. We can infer that Katy:
    a. has a highly developed sense of taste.
    b. has a highly developed sense of smell.
    c. prefers her mom’s milk over other tastes.
    d. none of the choices
A

a. has a highly developed sense of taste.

152
Q
  1. Infants crave touch and have inborn behaviors that encourage others to come close to and hold them. These features of early infant–caregiver interactions categorize humans as a ____________ species.
    a. nesting
    b. loving
    c. touching
    d. carrying
A

d. carrying

153
Q
  1. As an inborn protective mechanism, infants will turn their heads away from bad-smelling stimuli as early as:
    a. 1 week.
    b. 3 days.
    c. 5 months.
    d. 2 years
A

a. 1 week.

154
Q
  1. _____________ is a sense that is highly developed prior to birth and facilitates the baby’s ability to latch on to the mother’s nipple for the first time.
    a. Touch
    b. Taste
    c. Smell
    d. Hearing
A

c. Smell

155
Q
  1. The ________________ the part of the retina responsible for color vision.
    a. rods are
    b. cones
    c. cilia
    d. lenses
A

b. cones

156
Q
  1. Jeffery is an infant and likes to look at yellow but not red objects. Based on this preference, we can assume that:
    a. he is able to discriminate color differences.
    b. he is only able to see yellow.
    c. he is unable to see the color red.
    d. yellow is his favorite color.
A

a. he is able to discriminate color differences.

157
Q
  1. Hearing, touch, taste, vision, and smell are senses that mature and strengthen over time in typically developing children.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

158
Q
  1. Following stimulation, the high-order interpretation of physical sensatiion is experienced as a cognitive perception of the same event.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

159
Q
  1. When an infant physically receives a stimulus, she typically feels a sensation.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

160
Q
  1. Developmentalists who emphasize the role of socialization in language development work from a(n) ___________ approach.
    a. interactionist
    b. social
    c. constructivist
    d. psychopathology
A

a. interactionist

161
Q
  1. By age 2, children’s vocabularies increase to around _________words.
    a. 150
    b. 200
    c. 250
    d. 300
A

b. 200

162
Q
  1. Alejandro is 7 months old. His family thinks it is so cute when he says things like “ma, ba, pa, and da.” When Alejandro makes these sounds, he is:
    a. babbling.
    b. cooing.
    c. talking.
    d. crying.
A

a. babbling

163
Q
  1. The repetition of single-syllable sounds is a type of speech known as:
    a. cooing.
    b. crying.
    c. babbling.
    d. bantering
A

c. babbling

164
Q
  1. When Adrian’s parents leave for the movies, she runs up to them and asks, “daddy go?” Adrian is using:
    a. babbling.
    b. talking.
    c. telegraphic speech.
    d. receptive language
A

c. telegraphic speech

165
Q
  1. Toddlers use short phrases that convey meaning but lack some parts of speech required to form a complete sentence, also known as:
    a. telegraphic speech.
    b. receptive language.
    c. toddler speak.
    d. expressive language
A

a. telegraphic speech

166
Q
  1. Noam Chomsky introduced the term _________________ to describe a theoretical structure that prewire infants and children to learn the language of our culture.
    a. babbling
    b. language acquisition device
    c. infant-directed speech
    d. expressive language
A

b. language acquisition device

167
Q
  1. Tammy talks to her baby niece in high-pitched tones, using simple, repetitive words. Tammy is using _________________ to communicate with her niece.
    a. receptive language
    b. babbling
    c. language acquisition devices
    d. infant-directed speech
A

d. infant-directed speech

168
Q
  1. Developmentalists understand that expressive language is ________ receptive language.
    a. less complex than
    b. the same as
    c. more complex than
    d. none of the choices
A

c. more complex than

169
Q
  1. Infant and child development involves maturation of both receptive and symbolic language ability.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

170
Q
  1. Receptive language describes language an infant can understand but can’t produce.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

171
Q
  1. During infancy, “time to habituation” is correlated with IQ; _____________________________.
    a. the faster habituation occurs, the lower the infant’s IQ.
    b. the faster habituation occurs, the higher the infant’s IQ.
    c. the slower habituation occurs, the higher the infant’s IQ.
    d. IQ and habituation are independent.
A

b. the faster habituation occurs, the higher the infant’s IQ

172
Q
  1. Prior to Rovee-Collier’s work, it was believed that infants could not form and store long-term memories before __________months.
    a. 6
    b. 9
    c. 12
    d. 24
A

c. 12

173
Q
  1. In the car Jenny’s mom always plays classical music. Jenny is bored with it and no longer pays attention. One day Jenny’s mom plays a rock-and-roll song. Jenny shows strong interest in the music. Jenny is demonstrating:
    a. dishabituation.
    b. habituation.
    c. rock shock.
    d. desensitization.
A

a. dishabituation.

174
Q
  1. Billy has had the same mobile hanging above his crib since he was born. When his mother lays him down for a nap, Billy does not look at the mobile likely because he has become _________ to what was once a novel stimulus.
    a. sensitized
    b. habituated
    c. dishabituated
    d. gotten used to
A

b. habituated

175
Q
  1. At dinner, Matthew’s sister, Carly, makes a silly face when she doesn’t like what she puts in her mouth. The next night Mathew imitates the facial expression Carly made the night before when he tastes a food he does not care for, exhibiting:
    a. explicit memory.
    b. implicit memory.
    c. habitation.
    d. dishabituation
A

a. explicit memory.

176
Q
  1. _______ involves a heightened response to a stimulus, usually because it is novel.
    a. Habituation
    b. Dishabituation
    c. Interest
    d. none of the choices
A

b. Dishabituation

177
Q
  1. ________is the process by which response to a stimulus is reduced.
    a. Dishabituation
    b. Habituation
    c. Sensitization
    d. Specification
A

b. Habituation

178
Q
  1. Memory research suggests that early memories are:
    a. implicit.
    b. explicit.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

179
Q
  1. Explicit memories involve a clear, observable conscious effort to recall an event or information.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

180
Q
  1. Implicit memories are automatically stored and retrieved without apparent conscious effort.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

181
Q
  1. Courtney is assessed by a developmentalist to be operating at the final sensorimotor substage, according to Piaget’s model. Courtney is able to:
    a. pick up a rattle and shake it.
    b. talk about her favorite teddy bear in the other room.
    c. expect her mom’s jewelry box to play music.
    d. all of these choices
A

d. all of these choices

182
Q
  1. Caleb likes to take his fork and bang it on different surfaces to make different sounds Based on Piaget’s substages, we can assume that Caleb is:
    a. between 12 and18 months old.
    b. between 6 and 9 months old.
    c. 2 years old.
    d. between 6 and 9 months old.
    e. 1 year old
A

a. between 12 and18 months old

183
Q
  1. Accommodation and assimilation underlie the development and refinement of mental structures Piaget referred to as:
    a. schemas.
    b. categories.
    c. groups.
    d. analogies
A

a. schemas

184
Q
  1. Susie is 6 months old; she likes to pick up her rattle and shake it. According to Piaget, Susie is in the _____________ of sensorimotor development: ________________.
    a. first substage: reflexes
    b. second substage: habits and repetition
    c. third substage: actions with objects
    d. fourth substage: coordination of schemas
A

c. third substage: actions with objects

185
Q
  1. ________ and ________ are two processes that facilitate cognitive development in infancy and later stages of development.
    a. Assimilation; accommodation
    b. Cognition; behavior
    c. IQ; attitude
    d. Learning; memory
A

a. Assimilation; accommodation

186
Q
  1. Observations of infant behaviors such as sucking and grasping are most likely to be noted in Piaget’s __________ of sensorimotor development: _________________.
    a. third substage; actions with objects
    b. second substage: habits and repetition
    c. first substage: reflexes
    d. fourth substage: coordination of schemas
A

c. first substage: reflexes

187
Q
  1. Brittany’s dad puts her favorite stuffed elephant under the yellow blanket and no toy under the green blanket. Brittany immediately grabs the yellow blanket to look for her toy. When her dad puts the stuffed elephant under the green blanket, Brittany again looks under the yellow blanket because she is making the:
    a. object permanence error.
    b. A-not-B error.
    c. error of conservation.
    d. error of permanence.
A

b. A-not-B error.

188
Q
  1. Philip watches his mom put his favorite toy underneath his blanket. When the toy is not visible Philip loses interest and does not know where the toy is. Based on this scenario, we can assume that Philip:
    a. has not yet developed a sense of object permanence.
    b. is making the A-not-B error.
    c. has not yet developed an understanding of conservation.
    d. has a low IQ.
A

a. has not yet developed a sense of object permanence.

189
Q
  1. Jean Piaget provided us with a road map to understanding cognitive development from infancy through adolescence.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

190
Q
  1. During the sensorimotor stage, a typically maturing infant develops from a reflexive to a symbolic thinker.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

191
Q
  1. Anton is 16 months old. Based on normal developmental milestones for his age, we can expect that Anton can:
    a. stack blocks.
    b. stand alone.
    c. both a and b
    d. none of the choices
A

c. both a and b

192
Q
  1. Mackynzie is able to pull herself up and stand while holding on to the coffee table. Based on this ability, we can infer that Mackynzie is between _________________ months old.
    a. 5 and 11
    b. 2 and 5
    c. 6 and 9
    d. 12 and 24
A

a. 5 and 11

193
Q
  1. Gross motor skills are essential for infants to:
    a. kiss.
    b. stack blocks.
    c. wink.
    d. none of the choices
A

d. none of the choices

194
Q
  1. Posture is the integrating process that ____________all gross motor activities.
    a. supports and incorporates
    b. leads and combines
    c. connects and provides a foundation for
    d. none of the choices
A

c. connects and provides a foundation for

195
Q
  1. When baby Brielle wiggles her fingers and her toes, she is practicing her __________ skills.
    a. gross motor
    b. pointing
    c. wiggling
    d. fine motor
A

d. fine motor

196
Q
  1. According to developmental science research, African American infants ___________ earlier than Caucasian infants.
    a. sit independently
    b. stand independently
    c. walk
    d. all of the choices
A

d. all of the choices

197
Q
  1. Edward is a newborn. As expected he cannot sit alone, nor can he support his own body weight. Developmentalists would observe that Edward has yet to develop:
    a. a spinal cord.
    b. voluntary postural control.
    c. good posture.
    d. bad posture
A

b. voluntary postural control.

198
Q
  1. _________ describes an infant’s ability to support his or her body as a whole.
    a. Posture
    b. Stature
    c. Stability
    d. Scaffolding
A

a. Posture

199
Q
  1. Infants develop their gross motor skills when they practice crawling and walking.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

200
Q
  1. Fine motor skills develop in infancy through increased expertise in using small muscle groups, for example, those that coordinate finger movements.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

201
Q
  1. Infant play facilitates development of their ________motor skills.
    a. fine
    b. gross
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

202
Q
  1. Michele and Fredrik are concerned that their newborn son Jason is sleeping too much. When they ask their doctor if this is normal, the pediatrician tells the couple that a significant amount of sleep is normal during infancy to allow for:
    a. continued brain development.
    b. learning and memory consolidation.
    c. neither of these choices
    d. both of these choices
A

d. both of these choices

203
Q
  1. Juan and Anita speak Spanish at home to their infant daughter, Maria. When Maria begins school in the United States, where English is spoken by the teachers and her classmates, the teacher finds she often rolls her Rs. Maria’s language development provides us with an example of:
    a. experience-dependent processing.
    b. speech impairment.
    c. low IQ.
    d. synaptic pruning
A

a. experience-dependent processing

204
Q
  1. Juliette is a newborn demonstrating normal reflexes, which indicates that she:
    a. had a perfect APGAR score.
    b. has a normally developing central nervous system.
    c. has an increased likelihood of developing neurological tics.
    d. may demonstrate developmental delay in the next 2 years
A

b. has a normally developing central nervous system

205
Q
  1. Infant sleep includes, a ______________ phase during which random eye movements and intense, irregular brain activity and dreaming occur.
    a. REM
    b. delta
    c. alpha
    d. beta
A

a. REM

206
Q
  1. George is 2 months old. Although not in a single segment, he is likely to be sleeping between _______ hours a day.
    a. 6 and 8
    b. 7 and 9
    c. 10 and 19
    d. 3 and 5
A

c. 10 and 19

207
Q
  1. The brain removes unused, unnecessary synapses via:
    a. myelination.
    b. synaptic pruning.
    c. dendritic cutting.
    d. neural irrigation.
A

b. synaptic pruning

208
Q
  1. With respect to neural development, ___________________ receive(s) electrical impulses from neighboring neurons.
    a. dendrites
    b. axons
    c. white matter
    d. gray matter
A

a. dendrites

209
Q
  1. The ________ control(s) voluntary muscles and conveys sensory information to the CNS.
    a. somatic nervous system
    b. autonomic nervous system
    c. dendrites
    d. central nervous system
A

a. somatic nervous system

210
Q
  1. The two components of the central nervous system are the:
    a. brain and spinal cord.
    b. somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system.
    c. myelin and axons.
    d. myelin and dendrites
A

a. brain and spinal cord

211
Q
  1. The peripheral nervous system carries information to and from the central nervous system.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

212
Q
  1. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

213
Q
  1. Why is it important to chart an infant’s growth through the first 2 years of the lifespan?
    a. Growth during these years provides information about growth and development through the later years of the lifespan.
    b. Growth during these years provides information about whether development is proceeding typically or atypically.
    c. neither of these
    d. both of these
A

d. both of these

214
Q
  1. Rachel and Rebecca are expecting their first baby; according to U.S. averages, we can hypothesize that their newborn might measure and weigh________________________, respectively.
    a. 12 pounds, 25 inches
    b. 10 pounds, 15 inches
    c. 7.5 pounds, 19.5 inches
    d. 9.5 pounds, 20 inches
A

c. 7.5 pounds, 19.5 inches

215
Q
  1. Through infancy, demonstrating an expected pattern of cephalocaudal growth and development, we can expect an infant’s head to:
    a. be slightly larger than the rest of his body.
    b. develop first.
    c. both a and b
    d. neither a nor b
A

c. both a and b

216
Q
  1. On average by 2 years of age a child should measure approximately _____ inches and weigh approximately _____pounds.
    a. 37; 60
    b. 22; 30
    c. 34; 26
    d. 42; 20
A

c. 34; 26

217
Q
  1. After the first 6 months postbirth, the human growth rate begins to:
    a. slow down.
    b. accelerate.
    c. stabilize.
    d. cease
A

a. slow down

218
Q
  1. On average, in 2 years an infant’s height is expected to:
    a. stay the same.
    b. double.
    c. triple.
    d. quadruple
A

b. double.

219
Q
  1. Jessa and Ben just had a baby boy. They observed that his head was the first thing to start growing, followed by his lower body. They are observing the ______________ growth pattern.
    a. proxomidistal
    b. cephalocaudal
    c. hedonic
    d. eudaimonic
A

b. cephalocaudal

220
Q
  1. Weight and height gains occur most rapidly during the:
    a. first 6 months after birth.
    b. first 3 weeks after birth.
    c. toddler years.
    d. second year of life.
A

a. first 6 months after birth

221
Q
  1. According to the CDC, by 2 years of age the average child should weigh over 30 pounds.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

222
Q
  1. The proxomidistal growth pattern refers to a pattern of development that proceeds:
    a. head down.
    b. bottom up.
    c. inside out.
    d. outside in.
A

c. inside out.

223
Q
  1. A head-down growth pattern for development is known as cephalocaudal growth.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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