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PSYC Lifespan > UNIT 1 > Flashcards

UNIT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Lifespan human development is the field of study devoted to mapping an understanding of normal _________________ from conception through death.

a. growth and maturation
b. growth and achievement
c. achievement and optimization
d. growth and optimization

A

a. growth and maturation

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2
Q

Developmental scientists identify three primary domains of development across the lifespan:

a) physical, cognitive, and socioemotional.
b) physical, spiritual, and emotional.
c) physical, emotional, and neurological.
d) physical, moodiness, and cognitive.

A

a) physical, cognitive, and socioemotional.

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3
Q

Choose the answer that is true regarding the major domains of development.

a. Physical development is independent.
b. Cognitive development is independent.
c. Socioemotional development is independent.
d. All domains of development are interdependent.

A

d. All domains of development are interdependent.

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4
Q 
If you believe that you are the same person now as you were in childhood, your self-system is organized by the rule of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in development. 
A. continuity
B. discontinuity
C. flexibility 
D. inflexibility
A

A. continuity

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5
Q

Sarah argues that she matured in discrete stages, independent of one another. This view overemphasizes ____________________ in development.

a. continuity.
b. discontinuity
c. self-actualization
d. self-determination

A

b. discontinuity

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6
Q

Developmental maturation is:

a. continuous.
b. discontinuous.
c. both
d. neither

A

a. continuous.

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7
Q

___________ perspective rests on the working assumption that specific human traits and behaviors develop over the lifespan and are maintained throughout history because those characteristics are adaptive for survival.

a) The developmental
b) The evolutionary
c) The developmental
d) The psychosocial

A

b) The evolutionary

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8
Q

Emma is getting ready for the first day of school. Developmental psychologists refer to this as a:

a) normative event.
b) nonnormative event.
c) developmental milestone.
d) sociocultural milestone.

A

a) normative event.

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9
Q

The intercontinental spread of the ebola virus and associated fear can be considered a:

a) nonnormative event.
b) normative history-graded event.
c) nonnormative cultural event
d) normative cultural event

A

b) normative history-graded event.

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10
Q

Researchers use _______________to explore research questions by organizing observations and systematically testing hypotheses.

a) experiments
b) research
c) the research design
d) the scientific method

A

d) the scientific method

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11
Q

The three main goals of using the scientific method in developmental science are to:

a) control, predict, and explain.
b) describe, explain and optimize.
c) describe, predict and explain.
d) gather data, analyze, and publish.

A

b) describe, explain and optimize.

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12
Q

Developmental science is a field of study dedicated to helping individuals reach their potential by:

a) providing universal preschool.
b) optimizing development.
c) exploring cultural differences
d) informing educational practices.

A

b) optimizing development.

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13
Q

Developmental scientists rely on _________________ to refine our understanding of human development across the lifespan.

a) observations of people’s behaviors
b) theories
c) interviews
d) all of these choices

A

c) interviews

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14
Q

If you take some information from one theory and combine it with information from another theory, you are working from a(n) _________________perspective.

a) psychodynamic
b) eclectic
c) integrated
d) complex

A

b) eclectic

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15
Q

The______________ perspective stresses the significance of early life experiences in shaping and determining adult personality and behavior.

a) developmental
b) neo-Freudian
c) psychosocial
d) psychodynamic

A

d) psychodynamic

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16
Q

Freud’s theory of psychosexual development is based on his:

a) own experiences growing up with cold and disconnected parents.
b) knowledge of the eight conflicts individuals need to resolve at various stages.
c) understanding of associations between the emotional problems of adults and the problems they experienced in childhood.
d) observations of his own children and of children in his neighborhood.

A

c) understanding of associations between the emotional problems of adults and the problems they experienced in childhood.

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17
Q

Freud’s psychodynamic stage theory attributes personality development largely to:

a. unconscious sources in the mind.
b. conscious sources in the mind.
c. environmental factors.
d. none of these choices

A

a. unconscious sources in the mind.

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18
Q

Freud developed his theory based on his work with patients who were primarily members of ___________________ Viennese society.

a. lower-class
b. middle-class
c. upper-class
d. a wide range of social classes in

A

c. upper-class

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19
Q

The psychodynamic perspective assumes that the _______ contains basic instincts and seeks to secure pleasure.

a. id
b. ego
c. superego
d. all of these choices

A

a. id

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20
Q

According to Freud, which of the following makes a significant contribution to personality?

a. id
b. ego
c. superego
d. all of these choices

A

b. ego

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21
Q

True/False: The superego struggles to find compromise between the id and the ego.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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22
Q

Identify the correct chronological order of Freud’s psychosexual stages of development.

a. genital, latency, phallic, anal, oral
b. phallic, latency, anal, genital, oral
c. oral, anal, genital, phallic, latency
d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

A

d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

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23
Q

Psychosocial theory emphasizes the:
A. impact of one society on another.
B. interaction of individuals adjusting to the social world.
C. isolation of the individual from society.
D. impact of socialization.

A

B. interaction of individuals adjusting to the social world.

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24
Q

Psychosocial theory emphasizes the:
A. impact of one society on another.
B. interaction of individuals adjusting to the social world.
C. isolation of the individual from society.
D. impact of socialization.

A

B. interaction of individuals adjusting to the social world.

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25
Q 
According to Erikson, at each stage of psychosocial development, an individual is challenged to resolve a normative:
A.	 turmoil.
B.	 unrest.
C.	 crisis.
D.	 confusion.
A

C. crisis.

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26
Q 
Resolution in each of Erikson’s stages of development results in the accumulation of specific:
A.	 knowledge.
B.	 strengths. 
C.	 coping strategies. 
D.	 defense mechanisms.
A

B. strengths.

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27
Q 
According to Erikson’s psychosocial stage theory, 5-year-old Steven is initiating activities and mastering new tasks. He is working toward successful resolution of which task? 
A.	 trust versus mistrust
B.	 autonomy versus shame, doubt
C.	 initiative versus guilt
D.	 industry versus inferiority
A

C. initiative versus guilt

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28
Q

According to Freud, maturation through developmental stages is driven by a life force, or ______________ energy.

a) libidinal
b) sexual
c) orgasmic
d) reproduction

A

a) libidinal

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29
Q

Freud believed that our mind is primarily controlled by the:

a) conscious.
b) subconscious.
c) unconscious.
d) preconscious.

A

c) unconscious.

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30
Q

Freud believed that early life experiences:

a) have no relationship to adult personality.
b) can only cause problems in childhood.
c) can only cause problems in adulthood.
d) determine adult personality.

A

d) determine adult personality.

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31
Q 
Information-processing theory focuses on how children:
A.	 pay attention to information.
B.	 remember information.
C.	 store information. 
D.	 all of these choices
A

D. all of these choices

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32
Q

Piaget’s stage theory proposes continuous development.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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33
Q

Schemas are:
A. mental structures that represent experiences.
B. abstract images of events yet to occur.
C. documented accounts of events that one has experienced.
D. none of these choices

A

A. mental structures that represent experiences.

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34
Q

Schemas change slowly over time via the process of:

a. adaptation.
b. assimilation.
c. accommodation.
d. integration

A

a. adaptation.

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35
Q

The term assimilation refers to the process of:

a. fitting information or experiences into a mental structure that already exists.
b. adopting the ideas of another person.
c. adapting to new surroundings.
d. fusing one’s ideas with those of another.

A

a. fitting information or experiences into a mental structure that already exists.

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36
Q
  1. According to _________, all children pass through the same four stages of cognitive development and in the same order.
    a. Piaget
    b. Freud
    c. Erikson
    d. Vygotsky
A

a. Piaget

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37
Q
  1. According to Piaget, organization and adaptation are inseparable.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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38
Q
  1. According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, is it possible for children to experience developmental regression?
    a. Yes
    b. No
    c. It depends on a number of factors.
    d. Not enough information is given.
    ‘
A

b. No

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39
Q
  1. One criticism of Piagetian theory is that
    a. development is more continuous than Piaget’s stage theory suggests.
    b. Piaget underestimated the abilities of younger children.
    c. Piaget did not use a large enough sample when testing his theory.
    d. all of these choices
A

d. all of these choices

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40
Q
  1. Information-processing theory attempts to explain the acquisition, comprehension, and retention of information..
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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41
Q
  1. One strength of information-processing theory is that it:
    A. offers a specific and practical model useful for helping children to learn.
    B. provides a broad interpretation of the learning process.
    C. enhances already confirmed techniques of teaching.
    D. assumes that students are born with the basic building blocks of knowledge.
A

A. offers a specific and practical model useful for helping children to learn.

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42
Q 
39.	Learning theory focuses attention on the power of an association between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to be reinforced and become automatic. 
A.	  trauma and response  
B.	  trauma and avoidance 
C.	  stimulus and response 
D.	  stimulus and schema
A

C. stimulus and response

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43
Q
  1. What is classical conditioning?

a. the eliciting of a response from the pairing of two stimuli, one neutral and one conditioned
b. the eliciting of a response regardless of stimuli
c. a common technique used to train children how to behave in society
d. the pairing of a dependent variable and independent variable in eliciting a response

A

a. the eliciting of a response from the pairing of two stimuli, one neutral and one conditioned

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44
Q 
41.	Watson demonstrated the principle of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in teaching Little Albert to fear rats and other furry animals.
A.	 positive reinforcement
B.	 negative reinforcement
C.	 classical conditioning
D.	 operant conditioning
A

C. classical conditioning

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45
Q
  1. Negative reinforcement reduces the likelihood of a previously associated response in the future.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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46
Q 
51.	 Using operant conditioning, the introduction of something that a person finds unpleasant is referred to as:
A.	 positive reinforcement.
B.	 negative reinforcement.
C.	 positive punishment.
D.	 negative punishment.
A

C. positive punishment.

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47
Q 
52.	From a behavioral perspective, when you stop at a red light and go at a green light, you are: 
A.	 generalizing.
B.	 discriminating.
C.	 obeying.
D.	 behaving.
A

B. discriminating

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48
Q
  1. __________ occurs when the same response is elicited by a variety of different stimuli.

a) Generalization
b) Discrimination
c) Behaviorism
d) Conditioning

A

a) Generalization

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49
Q
  1. __________ is a general principle that describes why a satisfying, comforting feeling in response to a situation is likely to occur again under the same conditions.
    a) The first law of neural wiring
    b) The second law of neural wiring
    c) The law of effect
    d) The law of association
A

c) The law of effect

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50
Q

. In operant conditioning, the term positive means that:

a) behavior increases.
b) something good happens.
c) something is added to a situation.
d) something is withheld or taken away.

A

c) something is added to a situation.

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51
Q
  1. It is more effective to _______ unwanted behaviors by ignoring them than to use _________.
    a) extinguish; punishment
    b) punish; extinction
    c) punish, reinforce
    d) ignore, punishment
A

a) extinguish; punishment

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52
Q
  1. Who introduced the law of effect?
    a) B. F. Skinner
    b) J. B. Watson
    c) I. Pavlov
    d) E. Thorndike
A

d) E. Thorndike

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53
Q

__________ results from observation and imitation.

a) Operant learning
b) Social learning
c) Classical learning
d) Evolutionary learning

A

b) Social learning

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54
Q

The most well-known theorist associated with contemporary evolutionary psychology is:

a) Charles Darwin.
b) David Buss.
c) Konrad Lorenz.
d) Albert Bandura.

A

b) David Buss.

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55
Q

Lorenz is associated with:

a) behaviorism.
b) evolutionary psychology.
c) ethology.
d) social learning.

A

c) ethology.

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56
Q

The concept of _____________ describes the general rule: living things are born with “prewired” features that guide survival.

a) ethology
b) imprinting
c) evolutionary psychology
d) developmental perspective

A

a) ethology

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57
Q 
According to Bronfenbrenner’s model, which system does not directly involve the child, but has the strongest influence on child development? 
A.	 microsystem
B.	 mesosystem
C.	 exosystem
D.	 macrosystem
A

C. exosystem

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58
Q 
If you believe that it is essential to study child development “in context,” you are working from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ perspective.
A.	 psychodynamic
B.	 psychosocial 
C.	 behavioral
D.	 ecological
A

D. ecological

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59
Q 
Whose work on child development significantly influenced the framework used to design the national Head Start program?
A.	 Jean Piaget
B.	 Uri Brofenbrenner
C.	 Gilbert Gottlieb
D.	 Erik Erikson
A

B. Uri Brofenbrenner

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60
Q
  1. Identify the appropriate order of the scientific method.
    a. Develop a hypothesis. Formulate a question. Choose a method for testing the hypothesis. Analyze the data collected. Draw conclusions. Disseminate the results of the study.
    b. Formulate a question. Develop a hypothesis. Choose a method for testing hypothesis. Analyze the data collected. Draw conclusions. Disseminate the results of the study.
    c. Formulate a question. Develop a hypothesis. Choose a method for testing hypothesis. Analyze the data collected. Disseminate the results of the study. Draw conclusions.
    d. Disseminate the results of the study. Draw conclusions. Analyze the data collected. Choose a method for testing hypothesis. Develop a hypothesis. Formulate a question.
A

b. Formulate a question. Develop a hypothesis. Choose a method for testing hypothesis. Analyze the data collected. Draw conclusions. Disseminate the results of the study.

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61
Q
  1. Amy studies a group of 3-year-olds, 6-year-olds, and 9-year-olds. What type of study is she conducting?
    a. cross-sectional
    b. time-segmented
    c. longitudinal
    d. cross-sequential
A

a. cross-sectional

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62
Q
  1. Brent studied a group of 100 athletes from fifth to twelfth grade, each year assessing the same features of physical and cognitive development. What type of study did Brent conduct?
    a. cross-sectional
    b. time-segmented
    c. longitudinal
    d. cross-sequential
A

c. longitudinal

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63
Q
  1. One weakness of the cross-sectional approach to research is as follows:
    a. This approach does not allow us to make conclusions about intraindividual development.
    b. This approach does not allow us to draw conclusions about interindividual differences
    c. Groups cannot be studied using this method.
    d. Individuals cannot be studied using this method.
A

a. This approach does not allow us to make conclusions about intraindividual development

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64
Q
  1. Which statistic describes the degree of association between two variables?
    a. ecological correlation
    b. linear association
    c. variable association
    d. correlation coefficient
A

d. correlation coefficient

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65
Q
  1. Place the following correlation coefficients in order from strongest to weakest: 0.59, 0.87, –0.86, –1.0.
    a. –1.0, 0.87, –0.86, 0.59
    b. 0.87, 0.59, –0.86, –1.0
    c. –1.0, 0.87, –0.86, 0.59
    d. 0.59, –0.86, 0.87, –1.0
A

a. –1.0, 0.87, –0.86, 0.59

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66
Q
  1. Correlation does not equal causation.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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67
Q 
72.	Christy wants to determine the influence of sleep on academic performance. Blindly, she divides her volunteers into two groups—a control group that will sleep the standard 8 hours a night and a second group that will sleep 5 hours a night. What type of study is Christy conducting?
A.	 a microgenetic study
B.	 a quasi-experiment
C.	 a randomized controlled trial
D.	 a correlational study
A

C. a randomized controlled trial

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68
Q 
The dependent variable: 
A.	 is the outcome variable.
B.	 Is the criterion variable.
C.	 describes the interaction.
D.	 both A and B.
A

A. is the outcome variable.

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69
Q 
75. A case study can utilize: 
A. test results.
B. 		Interviews.
C.	 observations.
D.	 all of these choices
A

D. all of these choices

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70
Q 
76.	How do psychologists gather data about children’s development?
A.	observational studies
B.	assessments
C.	self-reports
D.	all of these choices
A

D. all of these choices

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71
Q
  1. In the context of data collection for a research study, observations involve:
    A. asking parents about a child’s behavior at home.
    B. watching what a child does.
    C. having the child write down his or her thoughts.
    D. modeling a behavior and having the child imitate it.
A

B. watching what a child does.

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72
Q 
78.	 Collecting observational data must be: 
A.	 random.
B.	 systematic.
C.	 both random and systematic.
D.	 none of the choices.
A

B. systematic.

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73
Q
  1. What is one weakness of observational studies?
    A. Parents can influence the observer.
    B. Children will behave normally when being observed.
    C. Children may alter their behavior because they are being observed.
    D. Researchers will seek to validate their hypothesis rather than remain unbiased.
A

C. Children may alter their behavior because they are being observed.

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74
Q
  1. Validity refers to the degree to which a(n):
    A. instrument measures what it is intended to measure.
    B. instrument fails to measure what it is intended to measure.
    C. researcher implements an instrument.
    D. hypothesis is proven
A

A. instrument measures what it is intended to measure.

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75
Q 
81.	Reliability refers to:
A.	validity.
B.	consistency.
C.	accuracy.
D.	accountability.
A

B. consistency.

76
Q
  1. A weakness of self-report data is one of the following:
    A. Researchers may maintain a biased approach to research.
    B. Children never alter their typical behavior even if they know they are being observed.
    C. Reporters are not always honest.
    D. Reporters are always honest.
A

C. Reporters are not always honest.

77
Q 
83.	 To draw scientific conclusions based on assessments, data must be:
A.	 reliable.
B.	 valid.
C.	 consistent.
D.	 all of these choices
A

D. all of these choices

78
Q

Researchers should not report their results if their hypotheses are not supported by the data.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

79
Q
  1. Before publication, Laura’s article must be peer reviewed or evaluated by individuals:
    A. of a similar age.
    B. in the same area of research.
    C. who originate from a similar background.
    D. who have the same educational experience.
A

B. in the same area of research.

80
Q
  1. Julia has decided to conduct a study that will involve participants younger than 10 years of age. Before she can begin her study, she must first:
    A. ensure that the study will cause no harm to the participants.
    B. obtain informed consent.
    C. maintain confidentiality.
    D. all of these choices
A

D. all of these choices

81
Q
  1. To fulfill a requirement of a research seminar he is taking, Jason has designed a research study that involves collecting data from mothers and their children. Before he collects any data, he must have his research plan reviewed and approved by the:
    A. American Psychological Association.
    B. Institutional Review Board.
    C. Society for Research in Child Development.
    D. Department Faculty.
A

B. Institutional Review Board.

82
Q 
88.	 According to Erikson, individual development across the lifespan can be organized into \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ stages. 
A.	 four distinct 
B.	 four overlapping 
C.	 eight distinct 
D.	 eight overlapping
A

C. eight distinct

83
Q
  1. Constructivism is the approach used by developmentalist(s):
    a. Jean Piaget.
    b. Lev Vygotsky.
    c. Piaget and Vygotsky.
    d. none of these
A

c. Piaget and Vygotsky.

84
Q
  1. The term organization, in the context of cognitive development, refers to:
    a. the linking of one mental structure to another.
    b. cleaning out one’s childhood belongings and making room for adolescent collections.
    c. a company that meets the needs of clients.
    d. the agreement of one individual’s concepts with those of another.
A

a. the linking of one mental structure to another.

85
Q
  1. Aiden, 4 years of age, has begun to make a connection between objects and names. He knows that a boat is a “boat” and that a dog is a “dog.” Aiden is currently in which of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
    a. sensorimotor
    b. preoperational
    c. concrete operational
    d. formal operational
A

b. preoperational

86
Q
  1. How did Lev Vygotsky differ from Jean Piaget with regard to his theory of cognitive development?
    a. Vygotsky believed that children construct knowledge on their own.
    b. Vygotsky believed that children construct knowledge through the help of others.
    c. Vygotsky argued that children do not construct knowledge.
    d. Vygotsky aligned with Piaget’s theory and did not differ.
A

b. Vygotsky believed that children construct knowledge through the help of others.

87
Q
  1. According to Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development, what parameters do developmentalists use to scaffold development?
    a. assimilation
    b. accommodation
    c. organization
    d. Zone of Proximal Development
A

d. Zone of Proximal Development

88
Q
  1. Pavlov conducted an experiment studying the digestive process in dogs, in which he discovered that a dog’s salivation response could be activated, over time, simply with the presence of a lab worker and no food or the sound of a bell. He succeeded in doing this using:
    a. operant conditioning.
    b. scaffolding.
    c. accommodation.
    d. classical conditioning.
A

d. classical conditioning.

89
Q
  1. Jackson secured the lead role in the school play. Upon receiving the news, he immediately called his parents, who were elated at his accomplishment and congratulated him on his success. His parents’ response is a form of:
    a. positive reinforcement.
    b. negative reinforcement.
    c. positive punishment.
    d. negative punishment.
A

a. positive reinforcement.

90
Q
  1. What technique is effective in working with children with autism spectrum disorders?
    a. applied behavioral analysis
    b. social learning theory
    c. observational learning
    d. information-processing theory
A

a. applied behavioral analysis

91
Q
  1. What is one critique of the behavioral approach?
    a. It cannot explain the development of language.
    b. It fails to take into account individual differences.
    c. It disregards cultural influence.
    d. All of these choices are correct.
A

d. All of these choices are correc

92
Q 
98.	 For his final project, Brad used Bronfenbrenner’s model as a theoretical framework for studying the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ because he was interested in the intersection of home and school, more specifically, the impact of home environment on a child’s academic performance. 
A.	  chronosystem
B.	  exosystem
C.	  mesosystem
D.	  microsystem
A

C. mesosystem

93
Q 
99.	The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ issued by the federal government present(s) guidelines for protecting human participants in research studies.
A.	 confidentiality rule
B.	 common rule
C.	 ethical guidelines
D.	 informed consent
A

B. common rule

94
Q 
. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to the responsibility of researchers to keep private the identity and data of all research participants.
A. Informed consent
B. Privacy
C. Confidentiality
D. Debriefing
A

C. Confidentiality

95
Q 
1.	 DNA is an abbreviation for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ acid. 
A.	diethylnucleic
B.	deneural
C.	diribionucleic
D.	deoxyribonucleic
A

D. deoxyribonucleic

96
Q 
2. The process of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_involves reducing the number of chromosomes in body cells by half.
A.	mitosis
B.	meiosis
C.	osmosis
D.	autosomes
A

B. meiosis

97
Q 
3. Eye color is an example of:
A.	a genotype.
B.	a phenotype.
C.	a karyotype.
D.	gametes.
A

B. a phenotype.

98
Q 
4. Directly observable characteristics manifest as an individual’s:
A.	phenotype.
B.	genotype.
C.	karyotype.
D.	gametes.
A

B. genotype.

99
Q
  1. The primary role of the chromosome is to:
    A. carry on the mother’s genes.
    B. carry on the father’s genes.
    C. store and maintain nutrients essential for health.
    D. store and transmit genetic information
A

D. store and transmit genetic information

100
Q 
6.  DNA duplicates during;
A. mitosis.
B. meiosis.
C. osmosis.
D. gamete formation.
A

A. mitosis.

101
Q 
7. Twenty-two matched pairs of chromosomes are called:
A.	duodnosomes. 
B.	nucleosomes. 
C.	allelesomes. 
D.	autosomes.
A

D. autosomes.

102
Q 
8. A student’s twenty-third pair of chromosomes is XY. This person:
A.	is male.
B.	is female.
C.	has PKU.
D.	has Down syndrome
A

A. is male.

103
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about sex chromosomes?
    A. The X chromosomes carry most of the genetic material.
    B. Both boys and girls have several pairs of X and Y chromosomes.
    C. X and Y separate into different cells in females.
    D. The baby’s sex is determined by the presence of an X or Y in the fertilizing sperm.
A

D, The baby’s sex is determined by the presence of an X or Y in the fertilizing sperm.

104
Q 
10. Which of the following determines female sex? 
A.	XX
B.	XY
C.	XXY
D.	XYY
A

A. XX

105
Q
  1. A heterozygous person who has one recessive allele:
    A. will pass the dominant trait to his or her children.
    B. will pass the recessive trait to his or her children.
    C. may be a carrier of the trait.
    D. cannot pass on the trait.
A

C. may be a carrier of the trait.

106
Q 
13. If the alleles from both parents are alike, their child will be:
A.	monozygotic.
B.	female.
C.	homozygous.
D.	heterozygous
A

C. homozygous.

107
Q 
14. The combination of genetic information that uniquely identifies an individual presents itself to others via \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_expression. 
A.	phenotypic 
B.	genotypic 
C.	allelic 
D.	autosomic
A

A. phenotypic

108
Q 
15. Which of the following is the result of dominant alleles?
A.	hemophilia
B.	Huntington’s disease
C.	thyroid disease
D.	anemia
A

B. Huntington’s disease

109
Q
  1. Which sex chromosome carries more genes?
    A. male
    B. female
    C. Both sexes carry the same number of genes.
    D. The answer is unknown.
A

B. female

110
Q 
17. Which gender is associated with a greater number of sex-linked inherited disorders?
A.	male
B.	female
C.	Both are the same.
D.	No one knows.
A

A. male

111
Q
  1. Why do developmental scientists believe that the male sex is associated with a higher number of sex-linked inherited disorders?
    A. because they have a matched pair of sex chromosomes
    B. because they have an unmatched pair of sex chromosomes
    C. because men are more fragile
    D. because females are hardier
A

B. because they have an unmatched pair of sex chromosomes

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about sex differences?
    A. Miscarriage of girls is more common, and birth defects are more common in boys.
    B. Rates of miscarriage and birth defects are higher for boy fetuses.
    C. Rates of miscarriage and birth defects are higher for girl fetuses.
    D. A total of 106 girls are born worldwide for every 100 boys.
A

B. Rates of miscarriage and birth defects are higher for boy fetuses

113
Q 
20.  About how many ripened ova does a woman carry through her reproductive life?
A.	400
B.	4000
C.	40,000
D.400, 000
A

A. 400

114
Q 
21. A man releases about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ sperm in each ejaculation.
A.	300
B.	3000
C.	30,000
D.	300,000,000
A

D. 300,000,000

115
Q 
22. Of the sperm released during intercourse, about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ reach the egg.
A.	20
B.	200
C.	2000
D.	2
A

B. 200

116
Q
  1. More than 50% of fertilized eggs fail to implant on the wall of the uterus.
    a. True
    B. False
A

a. True

117
Q 
24. Only about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fertilized eggs develop to maturity.
A.	1 in 10
B.	2 in 20
C.	3 in 10
D.	4 in 20
A

C. 3 in 10

118
Q 
25. Biologically, ova and sperm are known as:
A.	ovatum.
B.	gametes.
C.	meiotic.
D.	mitotic.
A

B. gametes.

119
Q 
26. Cell division in gametes is achieved by:
A.	mitosis.
B.	meiosis.
C.	They don’t divide.
D.	It depends on the sex.
A

B. meiosis.

120
Q
  1. The mother’s genes predominantly determine the gender of the baby.
    A True
    B. False
A

B. False

121
Q 
28. On average, how long do sperm survive in the female body?
A.	2 hours
B.	24 hours
C.	48 hours
D.	72 hours
A

D. 72 hours

122
Q
  1. Twins result from two sperm penetrating an egg at the same time.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

123
Q 
30. Which of the following chromosomal patterns determines female sex?
A.	XX
B.	XY
C.	XXY
D.	XYY
A

A. XX

124
Q 
32. Which of the following is closest to an average human gestation? 
A.	40 weeks
B.	32 weeks
C.	45 weeks
D.	49 weeks
A

A. 40 weeks

125
Q 
33. The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_period refers to the first 2 weeks after fertilization.
A.	fetal
B. embryonic
C. germinal
D. zygotic
A

C. germinal

126
Q 
34. The fetal period spans from:  
A.	2 to 8 weeks.
B.	9 to 30 weeks.
C.	9 to 24 weeks.
D.	9 weeks to birth.
A

D. 9 weeks to birth

127
Q 
35. Fertilization usually occurs in the:
A.	uterus.
B.	cervix.
C.	Fallopian tube.
D.	cilia.
A

C. Fallopian tube.

128
Q
  1. A fertilized egg is a zygote.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

129
Q
  1. The embryoblast transforms into the placenta.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

130
Q 
38. From which layer does the nervous system develop?
A.	ectoderm
B.	endoderm
C.	mesoderm
D.	embryoblast
A

A. ectoderm

131
Q 
39. Which layer gives rise to the heart and circulatory systems?
A.	ectoderm
B.	endoderm
C.	mesoderm
D.	embryoblast
A

C. mesoderm

132
Q
  1. _________________ is the early process of differentiation that results in the maturation of the internal organs such as the lungs, heart, and gastrointestinal systems.

A. The cephalocaudal pattern
B. Organogenesis
C. The proximodistal pattern
D. Semmatogenesis

A

B. Organogenesis

133
Q
  1. By the time a woman realizes she has missed her period, most of the baby’s major organs are in place and the brain has developed into five components.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

134
Q
  1. By the 8th week, when the woman usually realizes she is pregnant, all the baby’s essential organs are in place, including heart, brain, nose, lips, ears, and limbs, and the baby is responsive to touch.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

135
Q
  1. The fetal period is a distinct period of prenatal development.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A. True

136
Q 
44. The mother can feel her baby move in her uterus; that is, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ can be felt early in pregnancy, as early as 14 weeks. 
A.	lanugo
B.	quickening
C.	vernix
D.	butterflies
A

B. quickening

137
Q 
45. One of the first senses the baby develops is:
A.	vision.
B.	taste.
C.	smell.
D.	hearing.
A

D. hearing

138
Q 
46. Which technique uses sound waves to check on the developing baby?
A.	amniocentesis
B.	ultrasound
C.	fetal monitoring
D.	chorionic villi sampling
A

B. ultrasound

139
Q
  1. The age of viability refers to the maturation point marked by the:
    A. heart beating.
    B. onset of brain development.
    C. baby’s ability to survive outside of the womb.
    D. baby’s ability to breathe on his or her own.
A

C. baby’s ability to survive outside of the womb.

140
Q
  1. The _____________________ pattern of physical growth proceeds from the head down through the long axis of the body.

a. cephalocaudal
b. proximodistal
c. umbilical
d. fetal

A

a. cephalocaudal

141
Q
  1. The ________________________ pattern of physical growth proceeds from the center of the body through the appendages.

a. cephalocaudal
b. proximodistal
c. umbilical
d. fetal

A

b. proximodistal

142
Q
  1. Prior to the twentieth week of pregnancy, the unexpected death and delivery of the embryo or fetus is known as:

a. developmental arrest.
b. miscarriage.
c. blastocyst.
d. sudden infant death syndrome.

A

b. miscarriage.

143
Q
  1. A ____________ period is an interval of heightened plasticity, when environmental influences are most efficient at affecting an organism’s development.

a. critical
b. sensitive
c. malleable
d. teratogenic

A

b. sensitive

144
Q
  1. A _____________ period is a finite window of opportunity for development, outside of which environmental influences are said to have no effect.

a. critical
b. sensitive
c. malleable
d. teratogenic

A

a. critical

145
Q 
54. A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a substance that introduces risk to the developing organism during pregnancy.  
A.	poison
B.	habituation
C.	monster
D.	teratogen
A

D. teratogen

146
Q 
55. Two factors that determine the extent of risk a teratogen represents to a developing organism are: 
A.	timing and dosage.
B.	dosage and age of fetus.
C.	response and dosage.
D.	threshold and timing
A

A. timing and dosage

147
Q 
56. One of the most common, yet preventable, birth syndromes is an outcome of fetal exposure to:
A.	cocaine.
B.	alcohol.
C.	heroin.
D.	nicotine.
A

B. alcohol.

148
Q
  1. How much alcohol exposure is associated with significant risk for fetal alcohol syndrome?

A. 1 drink per day
B. 2 drinks per day
C. 3 drinks per month
D. The dosage risk is uncertain

A

D. The dosage risk is uncertain

149
Q
  1. The only way to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome is to ___________________ during pregnancy.
    A. drink alcohol in moderation
    B. ask the doctor before drinking
    C. abstain from drinking alcohol
    D. drink alcohol made specifically for consumption
A

C. abstain from drinking alcohol

150
Q 
59. Mary’s baby was born with distinctive facial features, short stature, and intellectual disabilities that were entirely preventable. The baby most likely has:
A.	Down syndrome.
B.	fetal alcohol syndrome.
C.	second-hand smoke exposure.
D.	a cocaine-addicted mother
A

B. fetal alcohol syndrome.

151
Q
  1. Kristen’s pregnancy has been complicated with placenta previa, a pregnancy risk commonly associated with:

a. a male-dominant genetic profile.
b. a female-dominant genetic profile.
c. smoking during pregnancy.
d. alcohol use during pregnancy

A

c. smoking during pregnancy.

152
Q 
61. When the placenta detaches from the wall of the uterus, it is known as:
A.	placenta previa.
B.	placenta abruptio.
C.	placenta displacement.
D.	placenta dislodgement
A

B. placenta abruptio.

153
Q
  1. Babies born to women who smoked heavily during pregnancy are at an increased risk for being born at a low birth weight, fewer inches in length, with a smaller than normal head circumference.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

154
Q 
63. Joe was born with tremors, irritability, and problems with sleeping, and was difficult to soothe. It is likely that his mother \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ during pregnancy. 
A.	smoked cigarettes
B.	used crack cocaine
C.	drank alcohol
D.	used heroin
A

B. used crack cocaine

155
Q 
64. Which of the following substances will prime an infant to experience withdrawal both during pregnancy and after birth? 
A.	heroin
B.	cocaine
C.	alcohol
D.	nicotine
A

A. heroin

156
Q 
65.  Sarah’s doctor tells her that she is experiencing a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pregnancy; her uterus has grown 20 times its normal size, and her heart has enlarged nearly 12%. 
A.	high-risk
B.	low-risk 
C.	abnormal 
D.	normal
A

D. normal

157
Q 
66. Which of the following is a typical symptom of pregnancy?
A.	fatigue
B.	nausea, heartburn
C.	feet swelling, shortness of breath
D.	all of the choices
A

D. all of the choices

158
Q 
67. Ashley is an average-size woman. Her doctor tells her that she should expect to gain \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pounds during her pregnancy.
A.	5 to 10
B.	15 to 25
C.	25 to 35
D.	28 to 40
A

C. 25 to 35

159
Q 
68. How long does labor last from beginning to end? 	
A.	5 hours
B.	12 hours
C.	24 hours
D.	It varies.
A

D. It varies

160
Q 
69. Labor consists of \_\_\_\_ stage(s).
A.	one
B.	two
C.	three
D.	four
A

C. three

161
Q 
70. For most women, what is the longest stage of labor?
A.	dilation
B.	descent and birth
C.	delivery of the placenta
D.	birth
A

A. dilation

162
Q
  1. Dilation begins with/when __________ and ends when _____________.
    A. regular contractions; the cervix is completely open
    B. the cervix is dilated; the baby is born
    C. the baby is born; the placenta is expelled
    D. dilation of the cervix; the placenta is expelled
A

A. regular contractions; the cervix is completely open

163
Q
  1. Identify the order of the stages of labor from beginning to end.
    A. delivery of the placenta, dilation, descent, and birth
    B. dilation, delivery of the placenta, descent, and birth
    C. descent and birth, dilation, delivery of the placenta
    D. dilation, descent and birth, delivery of the placenta
A

D. dilation, descent and birth, delivery of the placenta

164
Q 
73. During which phase of labor are contractions strongest and most frequent?
A.	transition
B.	descent and birth
C.	dilation
D.	both A and C
A

D. both A and C

165
Q 
74. Which regulatory system triggers the onset of labor?
A.	endocrine system
B.	lymphatic system
C.	reproductive system
D.	cardiovascular system
A

A. endocrine system

166
Q 
75. Levels of oxytocin increase during the \_\_\_\_\_\_ trimester(s).
A.	first
B.	second
C.	third
D.	first and third
A

C. third

167
Q 
76. A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a type of delivery that involves the surgical removal of the baby from the mother’s uterus via an incision in the mother’s abdomen.
A.	natural delivery
B.	Cesarean delivery
C.	medical delivery
D.	none of the choices
A

B. Cesarean delivery

168
Q 
77. Between 20% and 30% of the births in the United States are delivered via: 
A.	induced labor.
B.	assisted vaginal delivery.
C.	Cesarean section.
D.	natural delivery.
A

C. Cesarean section.

169
Q 
78. A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_ in Cesarean delivery has contributed to a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in infant mortality.
A.	increase; reduction
B.	decrease; increase
C.	decrease; reduction
D.	increase; increase
A

A. increase; reduction

170
Q
  1. A “premature infant” is a baby born:
    A. before 37 weeks of gestation.
    B. at any time before the planned delivery date.
    C. in the first trimester.
    D. after 37 weeks of gestation
A

A. before 37 weeks of gestation.

171
Q 
80. What is the low end of the normal range of a human gestation? 
A.	32 weeks
B.	37 weeks
C.	39 weeks
D.	42 weeks
A

B. 37 weeks

172
Q 
82. A baby that weighs less than the low end of the average range is referred to as:
A.	premature.
B.	preterm.
C.	small for gestational age.
D.	below set weight.
A

C. small for gestational age

173
Q
  1. Small-for-gestational age infants are at the same risk for negative outcomes as those infants who are born prematurely.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

174
Q 
84. Alice’s newborn baby girl weighs 3 pounds 8 ounces. What term best describes the baby’s birth weight?
A.	low birth weight
B.	very low birth weight
C.	extremely low birth weight
D.	critically low birth weight
A

A. low birth weight

175
Q 
85. What unit of the hospital is designed to meet the needs of preterm infants who experience complications?
A.	Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
B.	Intensive Care Unit
C.	Pediatric Unit
D.	Birthing Unit
A

A. Neonatal Intensive Care Unit

176
Q
  1. Kimberly’s baby receives the following scores on the Apgar Scale immediately following birth and at 5 minutes postdelivery: heart rate (2), weak cry (1), muscle tone (2), reflex irritability (1), and color (1). According to the Apgar Scale, does Kimberly’s baby require medical assistance?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information is given.
D. It is up to the doctors and nurses present to determine if the baby needs additional care.

A

A. Yes

177
Q
  1. Compared to the infant mortality rate in other countries, the infant mortality rate in the United States is one of the lowest.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

178
Q
  1. A local anesthetic injected into the lower back to numb labor pain is called a(n):

a. episiotomy.
b. epidural.
c. anesthetic.
d. analgesic

A

b. epidural.

179
Q
  1. _________ is a risk factor associated infant mortality and is related to several serious physical problems among babies that survive.

a. Working while pregnant
b. Exercising while pregnant
c. Low birth weight
d. High birth weight

A

c. Low birth weight

180
Q
  1. Carol gave birth 2 weeks ago. Now she feels a deep sense of sadness, feels isolated, complains of emotional distress, experiences periods of crying, and describes a sense of detachment. These symptoms fit the profile of what postbirth medical issue?

a. postgestational anxiety
b. postgestational diabetes
c. postpartum psychosis
d. postpartum depression

A

d. postpartum depression

181
Q
  1. The first measure of an infant’s health status is taken using the _______________ Scale.

a. APGAR
b. Brazelton
c. NBAS
d. VLBW

A

a. APGAR

182
Q
  1. Kersten, a 40-year-old woman, found it impossible to stop smoking and using alcohol during her pregnancy. These behaviors increase risk for:

a. sudden infant death syndrome.
b. hyaline membrane disease.
c. delivering a low-birth-weight infant.
d. miscarriage

A

c. delivering a low-birth-weight infant

183
Q
  1. The leading cause of infant mortality is:

a. SIDS.
b. LBW.
c. STD.
d. FAS

A

b. LBW.

184
Q
  1. A specially trained adviser who provides physical, emotional, and informational support in the postpartum period is called the:

a. birth mother.
b. birth father.
c. postpartum doula.
d. midwife.

A

c. postpartum doula

185
Q
  1. At birth, a baby born at 37 weeks weighing 5 pounds 8 ounces is:

a. premature.
b. low birth weight.
c. very low birth weight.
d. small for gestational age.

A

d. small for gestational age

186
Q
  1. Katie is in her 38th week of pregnancy when she experiences “bloody show,” a sign that:
    a. labor will soon begin.
    b. she is having a miscarriage.
    c. she is in the last stage of labor.
    d. Braxton Hicks contractions are starting.
A

a. labor will soon begin.

187
Q
  1. The five domains of an APGAR assessment are:

a. respiration, heart rate, skin color, activity, reflex.
b. activity, crying, pulse, eye blink, reflexes.
c. grimace, pulse, digestion, lung capacity, color.
d. blue hands and feet, heart beat and pulse, limpness, flexibility.

A

a. respiration, heart rate, skin color, activity, reflex

PSYC Lifespan (9 decks)

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