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CTGN 1st Shift > UNIT 3.2: CELL CYCLE + CONTROLS OF CELL CYCLE > Flashcards

UNIT 3.2: CELL CYCLE + CONTROLS OF CELL CYCLE Flashcards

1
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Transcriptionally active

A

Euchromatin

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2
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

DNA is loosely packed

A

Euchromatin

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3
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Actively present in prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene

A

Euchromatin

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4
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Genetically active

A

Euchromatin

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5
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Present at inner side of the nucleus

A

Euchromatin

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6
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Stained lighter

A

Euchromatin

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7
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Early replicative

A

Euchromatin

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8
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Aren’t sticky

A

Euchromatin

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9
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Allow gene to form a protein

A

Euchromatin

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10
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Low genetic density

A

Euchromatin

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11
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Consist 2-3% part of the genome

A

Euchromatin

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12
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Transcriptionally inactive

A

Heterochromatin

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13
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

DNA is highly packed

A

Heterochromatin

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14
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Only present in eukaryotic genome

A

Heterochromatin

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15
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Genetically inactive

A

Heterochromatin

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16
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Present at nucleus perpiphery

A

Heterochromatin

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17
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Stained dark

A

Heterochromatin

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18
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Later replicative

A

Heterochromatin

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19
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Usually sticky

A

Heterochromatin

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20
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Regulates genetic integrity, and control gene expression

A

Heterochromatin

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21
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:
High genetic density

A

Heterochromatin

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22
Q

Identify if euchromatin or heterochromatin:

Consist 97% to 98% part of the genome

A

Heterochromatin

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23
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

Each of the 46 chromosomes is duplicated by the cell

A

S Phase

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24
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

Cellular contents, excluding the chromosomes are duplicated

A

G1 phase

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25
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

The cell “double checks” the duplicated chromosomes for error, making any needed repairs

A

G2 phase

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26
Q

Checkpoints of the cell division is discovered by ___ in ___

A

Leland Hartwell and Ted Weinert
1988

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27
Q

Internal quality control mechanisms represented by biochemical pathways that control transition between cell-cycle stages

A

Checkpoints

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28
Q

Monitor and modulate the progression of cells in response to intracellular or environmental signals

A

Checkpoints

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29
Q

Defined as the failure to arrest the cell cycle before or at mitosis, resulting in aberrant chromosome segregation

A

Mitotic catastrophe

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30
Q

Caused by malfunction of cell cycle checkpoints and may lead to cell death and tumor cell development

A

Mitotic catastrophe

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31
Q

G1 phase lasts for ___

A

9 to 12 hours

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32
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

Usually the longest and most variable phase of the cell cycle, and it begins at the end of M phase

A

G1 phase

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33
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

The cell gathers nutrients and synthesizes RNA and proteins necessary for DNA synthesis and chromosome replication

A

G1 phase

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34
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

Doubles/increases the volume of the cell

A

G1 phase

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35
Q

Monitors the integrity of newly replicated DNA

A

G1 DNA checkpoint

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36
Q

Sensitive to the size of the cell, the state of the cell’s physiologic processes, and its interactions with extracellular matrix

A

Restriction checkpoint

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37
Q

The restriction checkpoint is mediated by interactions between ___ and a family of ___ with ___

A

pRb
E2F
target promoters

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38
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

DNA is replicated

A

S phase

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39
Q

S phase lasts for ___

A

7.5 to 10 hours

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40
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

Chromosome replication is initiated at many different sites along the chromosomal DNA replicon

A

S phase

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41
Q

Checkpoint during the S phase

A

S DNA-damage checkpoint

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42
Q

G2 phase lasts for ___

A

3.5 to 4.5 hours

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43
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

The cell prepares for cell division and examines its replicated DNA in preparation for cell division

A

G2 phase

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44
Q

Identify the phase of interphase:

Period of cell growth and reorganization of cytoplasmic organelles before entering the mitotic cycle

A

G2 phase

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45
Q

Checkpoints during the G2 phase

A

G2 DNA-damage checkpoint
Unreplicated-DNA checkpoint

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46
Q

M phase lasts for ___

A

about 1 hour

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47
Q

Division of the nucleus

A

Karyokinesis

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48
Q

Division of the cell

A

Cytokinesis

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49
Q

Checkpoints during the mitosis

A

Spindle-assembly checkpoint
Chromosome-segregation checkpoint

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50
Q

Resting phase

A

G0 phase

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51
Q

The activation of G0 phase may occur in what instances?

A
  1. normal wound healing
  2. repopulation of seminiferous epithelium after intense acute exposure of the testis to X-irradiation
  3. regeneration of an organ, such as the liver, after removal of a major portion
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52
Q

Reversibly growth-arrested cells that can regrow

A

Quiescent cells

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53
Q

Cells that cannot be induced to proliferate by means of growth factor stimulation of transduction of cellular oncogenes

A

Terminally differentiated cells

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54
Q

Identify the differentiation potential:

Zygote

A

Totipotent

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55
Q

Identify the differentiation potential:

Embryonic stem cells
Induced stem cells

A

Pluripotent

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56
Q

Identify the differentiation potential:

Amniotic fluid stem cells
Mesenchymal stem cells
Hematopoietic stem cells
Amniotic epithelial cells

A

Broadly multipotent/multipotent

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57
Q

Identify the differentiation potential:

Mesenchymal stem cells
Hematopoietic stem cells
Epithelial stem cells
Neural stem cells

A

Multipotent

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58
Q

Identify the differentiation potential:

Myeloid, lymphoid, osteogenic, cardiomyocyte, endothelial, hepatocyte, renal, neural, glial progenitor cells

A

Oligopotent/unipotent

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59
Q

Identify the differentiation potential:

Lymphocytes, erythrocytes, osteocytes, muscle cells, endothelial cells, hepatocytes, podocytes, neurons, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes

A

Terminally differentiated

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60
Q

A part of the ear derived from the mother

A

Otic capsule

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61
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

Replicated chromosomes condense and become visible

A

Prophase

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62
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

Sister chromatids are held together by the ring of proteins

A

Prophase

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63
Q

Ring of proteins that hold the sister chromatids during the prophase

A

Cohesins and centromere

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64
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

The nuclear envelope begins to disintegrate into small transport vesicles and resembles the sER

A

Prometaphase (late prophase)

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65
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

The nucleolus, which may still be present in some cells, also completely disappears

A

Prometaphase (late prophase)

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66
Q

A highly specialized protein complex called a ___ appears on each chromatid opposite to the centromere during the ___

A

Kinetochore
Prometaphase (late prophase)

67
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

Begins as the mitotic spindle becomes organized around the MTOCs located at the opposite poles of the cell

A

Metaphase

68
Q

MTOC means ___

A

Microtubule-organizing centers

69
Q

Three types of tubules that organize during the metaphase

A

Astral microtubules
Polar microtubules
Kinetochore microtubules

70
Q

___ and their associated motor proteins direct the movement of the chromosomes to a plane in the middle of the cell

A

Kinetochore microtubules

71
Q

Motor proteins associated to the kinetochore microtubule

A

Dynein and kinesin

72
Q

Motor protein associated to the kinetochore microtubule that move to the (-) end

A

Dynein

73
Q

The center of the cell is the ___ (+/-) end

A

(-)

74
Q

Motor protein associated to the kinetochore microtubule that moves to the (+) end

A

Kinesin

75
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

Begins at the initial separation of sister chromatids

A

Anaphase

76
Q

Responsible for anaphase

A

Cohesins
Microtubule-associated molecular motors (dyneins and kinesins)

77
Q

The polymers that compose the mitotic spindle that has a vital role in mitosis

A

Microtubule

78
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

Marked by the reconstitution of a nuclear envelope around the chromosomes at each pole

A

Telophase

79
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

Chromosomes uncoil and become indistinct except at regions that will remain condensed in the interphase nucleus

A

Telophase

80
Q

Identify the phase of mitosis:

Nucleoli reappear, and the cytoplasm divides to form two daughter cells

A

Telophase

81
Q

An important protein during the telophase that consists of a very thin array of actin filaments

A

Contractile Ring

82
Q

Responsible for the splitting of the cells during the telophase

A

Actomyosin ring (myosin II)

83
Q

Where actomyosin ring is found

A

Cleavage furrow

84
Q

The cell division that happens in germ cells

A

Meiosis

85
Q

T/F: Cytoplasmic events during meiosis are the same in both sexes

A

F

86
Q

T/F: Nuclear events during meiosis is different from male and female

A

F

87
Q

During the ___ that precedes meiosis, DNA is replicated forming sister chromatids joined together by the centromere

A

S phase

88
Q

During meiosis, the DNA content becomes ___, but chromosome number remains ___

A

4d
2n

89
Q

T/F: after meiosis I, another interphase will happen to prepare the cell for meiosis II

A

F

90
Q

Chromosome number is reduced from diploid to haploid

A

Reductional division (meiosis I)

91
Q

The amount of DNA is reduced from 4d to 2d

A

Reductional division (meiosis I)

92
Q

No DNA replication

A

Meiosis II

93
Q

The number of chromosomes remains at 1n, although the amount of DNA represented by the number of chromatids is reduced to 1d

A

Meiosis II

94
Q

Five stages of Prophase I

A

Leptotene
Zygotene
Pachytene
Diplotene
Diakinesis

95
Q

Identify the phase in meiosis:

An extended phase in which pairing of homologous chromosomes, synapsis, and recombination of genetic material on homologous chromosomes is observed

A

Prophase I

96
Q

Close association of homologous chromosomes

A

Synapsis

97
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Characterized by the condensation of chromatin and by the appearance of chromosomes

A

Leptotene

98
Q

Means “thin ribbon”

A

Leptotene

99
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Sister chromatids also condense and become connected with each other by meiosis-specific cohesion complexes

A

Leptotene

100
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Pairing of homologous chromosomes of maternal and paternal origin is initiated

A

Leptotene

101
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Synapsis begins and continues throughout pachytene

A

Zygotene

102
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Formation of a synaptonemal complex

A

Zygotene

103
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Synapsis is complete

A

Pachytene

104
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

“thick” stage

A

Pachytene

105
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Crossing over occurs early in this phase and involves transposition of DNA strands between two different chromosomes

A

Pachytene

106
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Early in this stage, the synaptonemal complex dissolved, and the chromosomes condense further

A

Diplotene

107
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Homologous chromosomes begin to separate from each other and appear to be connected by newly formed junctions between chromosomes

A

Diplotene

108
Q

The junction between chromosomes during diplotene

A

Chiasmata

109
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Sister chromatids still remain closely associated with each other

A

Diplotene

110
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Homologous chromosomes condense and shorten to reach their maximum thickness

A

Diakinesis

111
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Nucleolus disappears

A

Diakinesis

112
Q

The nucleolus disappears during diakinesis in preparation for ___

A

Further division

113
Q

Identify the phase of prophase I:

Nuclear envelope disintegrates

A

Diakinesis

114
Q

Identify the phase in meiosis:

Paired chromosomes are aligned at the equatorial plate with one member on either side

A

Metaphase I

115
Q

Homologous chromosomes are still held together by chiasmata

A

Metaphase I

116
Q

Identify the phase in meiosis:

Once the nuclear envelope has broken down, the spindle microtubules begin to interact with the chromosomes through the multilayered protein structure which is usually positioned near the centromere

A

Metaphase I

117
Q

Identify the phase in meiosis:

The centromeres do not splite

A

Anaphase I and Telophase I

118
Q

Identify the phase in meiosis:

The sister chromatids, held together by cohesin complexes and by the centromere, remain together

A

Anaphase I and Telophase I

119
Q

Identify the phase in meiosis:

A maternal or paternal member of each homologous pair, now containing exchanged segments, moves to each pole

A

Anaphase I and Telophase I

120
Q

Identify the phase in meiosis:

Genetic diversity

A

Anaphase I and Telophase I

121
Q

Inactivated X chromosomes seen in female somatic cells present adjacent to the nuclear membrane

A

Barr body

122
Q

Small, well-defined body which stains intensely with nuclear dyes

A

Barr body

123
Q

Present in a large proportion of nuclei of female origin and absent in male nuclei

A

Barr body

124
Q

The average size of a Barr body is estimated as ___

A

0.7 x 1.2 um

125
Q

In Klinefelter’s syndrome, the number of Barr bodies in male is ___, and in female is ___

A

1
2

126
Q

In a normal male, the number of Barr bodies is ___, while in female ___

A

0
1

127
Q

pRb means ___

A

Retinoblastoma protein

128
Q

Promotes the formation of Cdk inhibitor

A

p53

129
Q

Scans DNA for any damage

A

p53

130
Q

A powerful tumor suppressor gene

A

p53

131
Q

Another suppressor gene aside from p53

A

pRb

132
Q

Responsible for S DNA-damage checkpoint

A

Polymerase

133
Q

___ oncogenes and ___ tumor suppressor gene lead to cancer

A

high
low

134
Q

Tumor suppressor genes are also called ___

A

“gatekeepers”
“caretakers”

135
Q

Code for proteins involved in regulating cell growth and differentiation

A

Proto-oncogenes

136
Q

Code for proteins that help slow down cellular growth/promote apoptosis

A

Tumor suppressor genes

137
Q

A small protein that induces the cell to begin cell division

A

Mitogen

138
Q

A naturally occurring substance that is capable of stimulating the cell proliferation, wound healing, and cellular differentiation

A

Growth factor

139
Q

Trigger the rate of cell division by removing intracellular molecular breaks that restrain the cell cycle progression in G1 in the cell cycle

A

Mitogen

140
Q

Promote and increase in cell mass by triggering the synthesis and inhibiting the degradation of macromolecules

A

Growth factor

141
Q

Mitogen mainly act upon the ___ phase

A

G1

142
Q

Growth factor mainly act upon phase’s transition such as ___

A

G0 to G1
G1 to S

143
Q

Identify the growth factor:

Mitogenic for vascular smooth muscle, fibroblasts

A

Platelet-derived growth factor

144
Q

Identify the growth factor:

Mitogenic for most epithelial tissues, fibroblasts, endothelial cells

A

Epidermal growth factor

145
Q

Identify the growth factor:

Mesenchymal and neural tissue mitogen

A

Fibroblast growth factor

146
Q

Identify the growth factor:

Inhibits replication of most cells in vitro, including keratinocytes, endothelial cells, lymphocytes, and macrophages; may inhibit or stimulate fibroblasts

A

Transforming growth factor-beta

147
Q

Identify the growth factor:

Mitogenic for endothelial cells, but not keratinocytes, smoot muscles, or fibroblast

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor

148
Q

Caused by mutations in the ATM gene

A

A-T

149
Q

Gene which encodes a protein of ATM protein

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia Mutated gene

150
Q

Protein responsible for the coordination of cellular signaling pathways in response to DNA double strand breaks, oxidative stress and other genotoxic stress

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia Mutated protein

151
Q

Identify the CDK for Cyclin D

A

CDK 4/6

152
Q

Identify the CDK for Cyclin E

A

CDK 2

153
Q

Identify the CDK for Cyclin A (S phase)

A

CDK 2

154
Q

Identify the CDK for Cyclin A (G2 phase)

A

CDK 1

155
Q

Identify the CDK for Cyclin B (M phase)

A

CDK 1

156
Q

Occurs toward the end of growth phase I

A

Cell growth checkpoint

157
Q

Checks whether the cell is big enough and has made the proper proteins for the synthesis phase

A

Cell growth checkpoint

158
Q

If the cell is not ready yet, it goes through a ___ until it is ready to divide

A

Resting period (G0)

159
Q

Occurs during the synthesis phase (S)

A

DNA synthesis checkpoint

160
Q

Checks whether DNA has been replicated correctly

A

DNA synthesis checkpoint

161
Q

Occurs during the mitosis phase

A

Mitosis checkpoint

162
Q

Checks whether mitosis is complete

A

Mitosis checkpoint

163
Q

An enzyme which prevents the sister chromatids to divide

A

Securin

CTGN 1st Shift (8 decks)

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