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CTGN 1st Shift > UNIT 3.1: THE CELL + CENTRAL DOGMA > Flashcards

UNIT 3.1: THE CELL + CENTRAL DOGMA Flashcards

1
Q

3 basic components of a nucletodie

A

Nitrogenous base
Pentose sugar
Phosphate group

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2
Q

Adenine and Guanine are __

A

Purine bases

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3
Q

Thymine and Cytosine are __

A

Pyrimidine bases

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4
Q

Pentose sugar + Nitrogen base

A

Nucleoside

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5
Q

Phosphate group + Pentose sugar + Nitrogen base

A

Nucleotide

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6
Q

Demonstrated how the 3 components are physically assembled to form DNA

A

Watson and Crick

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7
Q

DNA is like a twisted ladder with chemical bonds as it runs

A

Double helix model

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8
Q

Nucleotides are joined to form a ___

A

Polynucleotide chains

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9
Q

Covalent bond that links adjacent nucleotides

A

Phosphodiester bond

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10
Q

5’ is the ___ group of the new nucleotide and is linked to the free 3’ __ group of the existing nucleotide

A

Phosphate
OH

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11
Q

Having opposite orientations

A

Antiparallel

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12
Q

Important for the attachment of DNA binding proteins involved in replication and transcription

A

Major and minor grooves

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13
Q

Enumerate the central dogma

A

Replication
Transcription
Translation

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14
Q

Important in duplicating the DNA so that there will be sister chromatids at anaphase stage at the end of cytokinesis

A

Replication

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15
Q

DNA replication is ___ because each separated strand serve as template for the synthesis of a complementary strand

A

Semiconservative

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16
Q

Major steps of replication

A

Initiation
Elongation
Termination

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17
Q

Unwinding of the double stranded DNA

A

Initiation

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18
Q

DNA synthesis

A

Elongation

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19
Q

Rewinding of the double helix

A

Termination

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20
Q

Unwinds the two DNA strands at the replication fork

A

Helicase

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21
Q

Stabilize ssDNA as it forms so it will not anneal to reform the double helix

A

Single-strand DNA binding proteins (SSB)

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22
Q

Releases the tension ahead of the replication fork caused by the unwinding of the DNA helix

A

DNA Gyrase

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23
Q

The DNA Gyrase releases a the tension and causes a ____ supercoil

A

positive

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24
Q

The replication bubble is more common on ___ (eukaryote or prokaryote) because their DNA is ___

A

Prokaryote
Circular

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25
Q

The SSB stabilizes the ssDNA at the ___

A

Replication fork

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26
Q

Short fragments produced during the discontinuous synthesis

A

Okazaki fragments

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27
Q

The process by which an RNA sequence is formed from a DNA template

A

Transcription

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28
Q

Used for RNA synthesis and serves as the template

A

Template strand

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29
Q

The template strand is also known as ___

A

Antisense strand

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30
Q

Has the same sequence as the RNA produced, with exception of U replacing T

A

Coding strand

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31
Q

The non-template strand

A

Coding strand

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32
Q

The coding strand is also known as ___

A

Sense strand

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33
Q

Type of RNA produced by the transcription process

A

mRNA

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34
Q

The RNA polymerase enzyme that binds to a promoter site on the DNA

A

RNA polymerase II

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35
Q

Pulls a portion of the DNA strands apart from each other and exposes unattached DNA bases during the transcription

A

RNA polymerase

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36
Q

The RNA sequence is synthesized in ___ direction

A

5’ to 3’

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37
Q

Transcription continues until a group of bases called ___ is reached

A

Termination sequence

38
Q

Processes of post-transcription modification

A

Splicing
Capping
Polyadenylation

39
Q

Identify the post-transcription modification process:

Introns in the precursor mRNA are excised, and the exons are spliced together to form a shorter mature mRNA

40
Q

Identify the post-transcription modification process:

5’ end of RNA is ___ by the addition of a methylated guanin nucleotide

A

Capping
Capped

41
Q

Identify the post-transcription modification process:

3’ end acquires a poly (A) tail that contains approximately ___ adenine residues)

A

Polyadenylation
200

42
Q

The process in which mRNA provides a template for the synthesis of a protein

A

Translation

43
Q

Carries code for protein synthesis

44
Q

Component essential for structural support and catalytic activity

45
Q

Adaptor molecule that provides physical and informational link between mRNA and the polypeptide being synthesized

46
Q

Site of protein synthesis

47
Q

A subunit of ribosome which is the decoding site

A

Small subunit

48
Q

A subunit of ribosome that mediates interaction between mRNA and tRNA

A

Small subunit

49
Q

A subunit of ribosome which is the active site

A

Large subunit

50
Q

A subunit of ribosome which catalyzes peptide bond formation

A

Large subunit

51
Q

In the translation process, the ribosome finds the initiation site on the ___

A

mRNA sequence

52
Q

Start codon

A

AUG (for methionine)

53
Q

Binds the tRNA to its surface so that base pairing can occur between tRNA and mRNA

54
Q

The ribosome moves along the mRNA codon by codon in the ___direction

A

5’ to 3’

55
Q

An amino acid is translated by the interaction of ___ and ___

56
Q

An enzyme that catalyzes the covalent peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids

A

Peptidyl transferase

57
Q

The ___ provides the peptidyl transferase

58
Q

Identify the protein structure:

Linear sequence of amino acids

59
Q

Identify the protein structure:

Local folded proteins that occur inside a polypeptide due to atom interactions

60
Q

Identify the protein structure:

alpha-helix and beta-pleated

61
Q

Identify the protein structure:

3D framework or the polypeptide, due to interactions between the R groups of the AA sequence of the protein

62
Q

Identify the protein structure:

Hydrophobic interactions, H bonds, sulfur bridgers

63
Q

Identify the protein structure:

Association of two or more polypeptides into multi-subunit complex

A

Quaternary

64
Q

Identify the protein structure:

Assembly of individual polypeptides into a larger functional cluster

A

Quaternary

65
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

catalyze covalent bond breakage or formation

66
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

Speeds up chemical reactions

67
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

Provide mechanical support to cells and tissues

A

Structural

68
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

Serves as antibodies that protect the body from antigens

A

Protective

69
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

Serves as coagulation factor

A

Protective

70
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

Bind to DNA to switch the gene on or off

A

Regulatory

71
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

Carry extracellular signals from cell to cell

A

Nerve impulse transmission (Hormones)

72
Q

Identify the type of protein by function:

Carry small molecules or ions

73
Q

Represents a self-regulated sequence of events that controls cell growth and cell division

A

Cell Cycle

74
Q

Identify the organelle:

non-membrane bound organelles that are responsible for the synthesis of protein

75
Q

rRNA are synthesized in the ___

76
Q

Component of ribosome

A

Protein + rRNA

77
Q

Ribosomes are attached to the ___

78
Q

T/F: ribosomes may be free floating in the cytoplasm but not attached in the perinuclear membrane

A

F (they can be both)

79
Q

Identify the organelle:

Responsible for glucose and lipid synthesis

80
Q

Identify the organelle:

Site for post-transcriptional modification

A

Golgi body

81
Q

Identify the organelle:

Site of oxidative phosphorylation

A

Mitochondria

82
Q

Identify the organelle:

Provides energy to the cell by producing ATPs

A

Mitochondria

83
Q

Identify the organelle:

Responsible for cell division

A

Centrosome

84
Q

Identify the organelle:

Complex structure that contains two barrel-shaped centrioles

A

Centrosome

85
Q

A prominent regulator of cell division

86
Q

Plays essential role during centrosome separation, chromosome movements, spindle organization, spindle positioning, and mitotic checkpoint silencing

87
Q

Identify the organelle:

Produces hydrogen peroxide for cell clean up

A

Peroxisome

88
Q

Identify the organelle:

Also known as microbodies

A

Peroxisome

89
Q

Chromosome is a condensed ___

90
Q

Threadlike strands of nuclear DNA with proteins

A

Chromosome

91
Q

Protein in the nuclear DNA

CTGN 1st Shift (8 decks)

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