Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental nurse exam revision > Unit 302 > Flashcards

Unit 302 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NCLEX-RN® flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards
1
Q

Health and safety at work act legislation 1974

A

Protects staff and patients/visitors from potential hazards at work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a risk?

A

A hazard that may cause harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is the health and safety at work act regulated by?

A

HSE health and safety executive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the HSE do?

A

Provides guidance to employers and investigates when any serious incidents occur in any workplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who are the healthcare regulators throughout the UK:

A

England - CQC
wales - HIW
Scotland - HIS
northern Ireland - RQIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a health and safety policy?

A

It states the practices health and safety procedures and the name of the person responsible - all staff must be provided with a copy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why would a dental nurse be appointed as safety representative under the act?

A

To improve co-operation within the practice about health and safety matters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 regulations that support the trainee dental nurses welfare?

A
  1. health and safety (young persons) regulations 1997
  2. management of health and safety at work regulations 1999
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What will the HSE want to see during a practice inspection….

A

written evidence of safety checks, certifications, working policies and protocols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a protocol?

A

Written draft of terms agreed to and signed by all parties as a code of conduct within the workplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Standard operating procedures SOP are…

A

All protocols together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The risk assessment minimises risks, it does not eliminate them.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Steps involved in a risk assessment:

A
  1. identify hazard
  2. identify who may be harmed
  3. evaluate
  4. control
  5. record
  6. review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If common -sense actions in relation to risks have not been followed out who is to blame?

A

The employer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If the health and safety act is not followed by a member of staff what will happen/

A

Investigation and prosecution by the HSE
Fitness to practice hearing by the GDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Advice and guidance on risk assessments are from who?

A

HSE and BDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does COSHH stand for?

A

Control of substances hazardous to health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why are COSHH assessments carried out?

A

To see which chemicals and potentially hazardous substances could harm or injure staff members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A written COSHH report must include:

A

every potential chemical hazard found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hazardous substance symbol is presented as…

A

Diamond shaped white and black pictogram with a red border and a warning phrase beneath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Steps of the COSHH risk assessment procedure:

A
  • identify what is hazardous
  • identify who may be harmed
  • identify how
    -evaluate
    -determine if it may affect health
  • control
    -inform staff
  • record
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the 4 known chemical hazards in a dental practice:

A
  1. mercury exposure
  2. acid etchant
  3. sodium hypochlorite and other disinfectants
  4. nitrous oxide exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ideal storage temperature required is…

A

20`c or cooler - usually cooler for mercury storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Larger cylinders should be secured in an:

A

Upright position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A trolley should be available for moving heavy cylinders.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

are units that use recycled air allowed in a dental practice?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

suitable ventilation in a dental practice:

A
  • windows open
  • use of extractor fans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why is ventilation essential in a dental practice?

A

To prevent the accumulation of hazardous vapour`s and gases and to minimise the risk of them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is mercury toxic?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Inhalation of mercury…

A

toxic vapours are released at room temperature and above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Absorption of mercury…

A

particles can be absorbed through the skin, nails, eye and eventually be lodged in the kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ingestion of mercury….

A

Particles can contaminate food and drink and be taken into the digestive system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When was the use of amalgam on children under 15 and deciduous teeth banned and pregnant women?

A

July 2018

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How to avoid inhalation of mercury?

A

ventilation, cool temperature, amalgam waste pots, capsulated amalgam, PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How to avoid absorption of mercury?

A

PPE, no open toed shoes, safety goggles, gloves, masks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How to avoid ingestion of mercury?

A

food n drink should not be consumed in a dental setting, stocks of mercury and waste amalgam not stored near staff or surgeries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Spillages of mercury should be reported to who and where?

A

Senior dentist and in the accident book.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does mercury form into after a spillage?

A

liquid globules or small balls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

if a Small mercury spillage occurs what do you do?

A

suck up small globules using a dedicated bulb aspirator or disposable plastic syringe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If a large mercury spillage occurs what do you do?

A

Report and use the mercury spillage kit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What can acid etchant do to soft tissues?

A

chemical burns as it is acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What to do when handling acid etchant…

A

Wear PPE
prevent etch going near soft tissues use of Rubber dam
Very careful aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is sodium hypochlorite?

A

Bleach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Bleach is a chemical irritant to soft tissues.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What should be worn when handling bleach?

A

PPE, fresh solutions made daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what should be worn when handling all disinfectants?

A

PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what can disinfectants do to a human?

A

irritate skin, airway, eyes, and sometimes severe allergic reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Waste management is what HTM?

A

HTM07-01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the universal colour coding system do?

A

enables everyone to be aware of the contents in various containers used to collect and store waste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Categorisation the 3 main waste produced by the dental workplace:

A

Hazardous infectious waste
hazardous chemical waste
non-hazardous waste

51
Q

What act relates to waste management?

A

Environmental Protection Act 1990

52
Q

Who should collect waste?

A

Licensed waste collectors

53
Q

Where is waste disposed of?

A

In an authorised recovery and disposal site.

54
Q

How often should waste collections be arranged?

A

No longer than 12 monthly intervals

55
Q

Non-hazardous waste consignment notes should be kept for?

A

2 years from the date of collection

56
Q

Hazardous waste consignment notes should be kept for?

A

3 years from the date of collection

57
Q

If more than 500kg of hazardous waste is produced yearly who should the workplace register with?

A

Environmental agency

58
Q

Gypsum waste is…

A

Study models

59
Q

Why should a workplace complete a waste audit?

A

To ensure the workplace has discharged its duty of care by correctly describing n packaging its healthcare waste.
Demonstrates good management and governance within the workplace.

60
Q

What does the health and safety (display screen equipment) regulations help to avoid + who does it relate to?

A

Muscle strain, fatigue, eyestrain and headaches.
Display screen equipment users (DSE)

61
Q

What should be carried out to assess users of DSE + why?

A

Risk assessment
To determine who is likely to suffer from the problems listed in (avoidance) and how they can be prevented.

62
Q

Health and safety first aid regulations 1981
In line with clinical governance every practice must have what in line for their staff?

A

All staff BLS trained
1 staff member trained in first aid
first aid kits, oxygen cylinders, accident book.

63
Q

What are the minimum items that should be in the first aid kit?

A

Sterile dressings, eye pads, bandages, sterile water, saline pouches etc

64
Q

Dentists are NOT qualified first aiders unless they have undertaken appropriate training.

A
65
Q

Health and safety first aid regulations 1981
What is the first aid priniciple for severe bleeding + the first step + possible causes?

A

Restrict the blood flow to the wound and encourage clotting to reduce blood loss.
Apply pressure to wound
Surgical trauma, falls, sharps injury

66
Q

What colour will arterial bleeding be?

A

bright red

67
Q

What colour will venous bleeding be?

A

dark red or purple

68
Q

What colour will capillary bleeding be?

A

dark red

69
Q

Health and safety first aid regulations 1981
What is the first aid principle for burns and scalds + the first step + possible causes?

A

To prevent infection of the underlying tissues and to prevent clinical shock developing due to the loss of blood serum.
Place under cold water for 10 mins
Touching hot equipment, touching flames, direct contact with chemicals, excessive exposure to radiation.

70
Q

Health and safety first aid regulations 1981
What is the first aid principle for poisoning + the first step + possible causes?

A

To limit the exposure of the casualty to the poison and maintain life if necessary.
Consult to COSHH file
ingestion/inhalation of agents (corrosive chemicals), toxic chemicals, toxic vapours.

71
Q

Health and safety first aid regulations 1981
What is the first aid principle for electrocution + the first step + possible causes?

A

To remove the casualty from the electrical source and maintain life until help arrives.
Isolate electrical supply and treat surface burns
Faulty electrical equipment

72
Q

Health and safety first aid regulations 1981
What is the first aid principle for fractures+ the first step + possible causes?

A

To prevent further tissue damage by restricting the movement of the casualty.
Not move any part of the injured body, to cover any open skin wounds.
External trauma

73
Q

Manual handling means…

A

Any actions which involve the hands on moving or lifting items without the use of lifting equipment or other mechanical devices.

74
Q

What is the reason behind manual handling operations regulations 1992?

A

to avoid manual handling incidents and injuries within the workplace.

75
Q

How can we make manual handling safe in a workplace?

A

Clear path, split load to make it lighter, keep to a minimum distance, age range elderly are more likely to hurt themselves, training.

76
Q

What are the 2 pressure systems in the workplace?

A

Autocalves and compressors

77
Q

What is the reason behind air recievers (compressors)?

A

To compress atmospheric air which is then used to drive dental handpieces and suction units.

78
Q

What size of compressors have to comply with the pressure systems safety regulations 2000?

A

Large

79
Q

If a pressure system was to fail (faulty) what could happen?

A

Serious injury to anyone in the practice and damage to the environment.

80
Q

Who must test the pressure systems before initial use?

A

Competent person - specialist engineer

81
Q

Autoclave inspections must be carried out every…

A

14 months

82
Q

Large Air recievers (Compressor) inspections must be carried out every….

A

2-4 years

83
Q

Small air recievers/compressors inspections should be carried out…

A

Routinely by a service engineer.

84
Q

When relating to fire safety who is the responible person?

A

Employer

85
Q

Risk assessment: Regulatory reform (fire safety) order 2005

A

Identify hazard
identify who may be harmed
evaluate
control
record
review

86
Q

Who is likely to complete a practices fire safety inspection?

A

Qaulified inspector from the fire and rescue service.

87
Q

Fire safety: Manual system

A

Small open workplaces
Basic smoke alarms + klaxon horn- instead of raising the alarm.

88
Q

Fire safety: Electrical system

A

Larger workplaces
Alarm is Activated by manually breaking the glass

89
Q

Fire safety: Automatic system

A

Larger premises e.g. hospitals
Require expert design and installation

90
Q

Fire emergency plan should be written down and put up in an area where it is visible for everyone to see.

A
91
Q

What is a Class A fire?

A

Ignition of carbon containing items e.g. paper, wood

92
Q

What is a Class B fire?

A

Flammable liquids e.g. oils, petrol

93
Q

What is a Class C fire?

A

flammable gases e.g. domestic gas, butane

94
Q

What is a class D fire?

A

reactive metals that oxidise in air e.g. sodium, magnesium

95
Q

What is a class F fire?

A

Liquid fats e.g. kitchens/restaurants.

96
Q

What is a class E fire?

A

Electrical components

97
Q

What is a RED extinguisher used for?
Water

A

ALL except electrical

98
Q

What is a BLACK extinguisher used for?
Carbon dioxide

A

ALL fires

99
Q

What is a BLUE extinguisher used for?
Dry powder

A

ALL fires

100
Q

How often should fire extinguishers be inspected?

A

Annualy

101
Q

Fire exits must lead to a place of….

A

safety

102
Q

What does RIDDOR stand for?

A

Reporting of injuries, diseases and dangerous occurences regulations.

103
Q

RIDDOR: minor accidents:

A

No serious injuries to someone, dealth with within the workplace.
Written record should be made and put in the accident book.

104
Q

RIDDOR: Major accidents:

A

Serious injury or death
“significant events” - report to HSE

105
Q

Occupational diseases that have occured in the dental practice must be reported to HSE, examples of these are:

A

Carpal tunnel, dermatitis, asthma, cancer

106
Q

diseases that have occured in the dental practice must be reported to HSE, examples of these are:

A

legionella, Hepatitis B/C, HIV, MRSA(tends to occur in a hospital)

107
Q

Dangerous occurences that must be reported, examples:

A

Explosion, electrical overload, release of mercury vapour

108
Q

How often should PAT testing be carried out?

A

1-3 years

109
Q

What does PAT testing stand for?

A

Portable appliance testing

110
Q

Back siphonage means…

A

Backflow

111
Q

How is prevention of backflow achieved?

A

Presence of an airgap

112
Q

Dental equipment which relates to the water supply (water fittings) regulations 1999

A

Dental spittoon, delivery system, suction, washer disinfector, automatic radiograph processors.

113
Q

What temperature of water does leigonella usually grow in?

A

Above 20c to below 45c

114
Q

Why are the DUWLS a source for microbial contamination?

A

Presence of Biofilm

115
Q

Disinfectant for DUWLS- hypochlorous acid is used how often?

A

weekly

116
Q

Hypochlorous acid (DUWLS) is tested using:

A

test strips
Should be colour range of 80 ppm or above is effective

117
Q

What do dental nurses do daily to maintain DUWLS.

A

Water lines should be flushed through for 2 mins before first patient.
20-30secs between patients
This reduces the build up of biofilm in the lines.

118
Q

What are occupational hazards?

A

Those that a staff member may encounter during their normal working day.

119
Q

Examples of occupational hazards..

A

Radiation, cross infection, exposure to hazardous chemicals, hazardous waste, use of display screens.

120
Q

What are lasers used for in dentistry and who can use them and what harm can they do?

A

Lasers are used to cut hard and soft tissues such as teeth/oral soft tissues.
The higher the classification the more dangerous
Class 3B or 4 can only be used under supervision
Damage the eyes

121
Q

Curing lights can cause what kind of damage and how is it prevented?

A

damage to the retinal
Orange tinted safety glasses.

122
Q

Maintaining security is achieved by…

A

Locking doors, alarms, shutters, only allowing those in who have a right of entry, CCTV, cash boxes out of reach, patient records password protected.

123
Q

What should be signed by people who are visiting the practice?

A

Visitors book

124
Q
A

Dental nurse exam revision (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions