Unit 3 - Pearls Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Why have a whole new generation of ‘super bugs’ (bacterial resistance) been generated in the U.S.?

A

Overuse, overprescribing, sharing meds, not taking the full course of treatment, saving the rest for later, and self-medication have allowed bacteria to develop resistance.

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3
Q

What is the causative organism? Are bacteria autonomous or parasitic?

A

Bacteria. They are autonomous and can reproduce on their own without a host cell.

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4
Q

How are bacteria identified?

A

By size, shape, staining characteristics, cell wall, oxygen requirements, classification, and bacterial arrangement.

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5
Q

What is a culture and sensitivity?

A

Sampling a bacterial site, growing it in the laboratory, and testing different antibiotics on the sample. If the bacteria is resistant, that antibiotic will not be used.

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6
Q

What is a superinfection?

A

Overgrowth of another organism or bacteria not treated by the initial medication, often caused by the elimination of normal flora.

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7
Q

Which bacteria are bactericidal? Which are bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal: penicillins, beta lactamase inhibitors, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, vancomycin, Flagyl. Bacteriostatic: tetracyclines, macrolides, ketolides, lincosamides, sulfonamides.

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8
Q

What is the difference between pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria?

A

Pathogenic bacteria cause disease, while nonpathogenic bacteria do not.

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9
Q

What is the difference between gram negative and gram positive bacteria?

A

Gram negative bacteria tend to be more lethal and are sometimes anaerobic.

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10
Q

What are acid fast bacteria?

A

They must be treated with acid before they will take a stain. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is one example.

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11
Q

What do antibiotics treat?

A

Bacterial infections and cancer.

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12
Q

What is a broad spectrum antibiotic? What is a narrow spectrum antibiotic?

A

Broad spectrum treats both gram negative and gram positive bacteria; narrow spectrum treats one or the other.

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13
Q

What is empiric therapy?

A

Based on a probable offending organism, the patient is given a broad spectrum antibiotic.

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14
Q

What is prophylactic therapy?

A

Preventative therapy taken before exposure to a causative agent.

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15
Q

Name some common side effects of antibiotics.

A

Nausea, diarrhea, photosensitivity.

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16
Q

Which two antibiotic classifications demonstrate ‘cross sensitivity’?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins.

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17
Q

What is the rule regarding administration of penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

If a patient is allergic to penicillin, they should not be given cephalosporins unless absolutely necessary.

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18
Q

What is an important consideration when giving beta lactamase inhibitors?

A

They are contraindicated if a patient is allergic to penicillin.

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19
Q

Which classification of antibiotic is known for potential irreversible ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides.

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20
Q

Which antibiotic became well known in the perceived anthrax attack of 2001?

A

The fluoroquinolone, Cipro, which is bactericidal and has a black box warning.

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21
Q

Which antibiotic classification can cause discoloration of teeth in children with adult forming teeth?

A

Tetracyclines.

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22
Q

Which antibiotic classification should not be taken with dairy products?

A

Tetracyclines.

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23
Q

Which antibiotic classification is not safe to use during pregnancy?

A

Tetracyclines.

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24
Q

Which antibiotic classification is both bactericidal and antiprotozoal?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl); patients should avoid alcohol while taking it.

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25
Q

What is a side effect/adverse effect of sulfonamides?

A

Crystalluria; patients should drink plenty of water and avoid caffeine.

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26
Q

What are some uses for sulfonamides?

A

Urinary tract infections, skin infections, and burns.

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27
Q

Which drug category treats deep tissue infections preferred by dentists?

A

Lincosamides: clindamycin (Cleocin).

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28
Q

What are symptoms of a parasitic worm infestation, such as pin worms?

A

Loss of appetite, abdominal cramping, intense anal itching.

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29
Q

What is the MOA of antihelmintics?

A

They paralyze the worms.

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30
Q

What is the causative organism of fungal infections?

A

Fungi, plant-like organisms.

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31
Q

Are fungi opportunistic or nonopportunistic?

A

Both.

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32
Q

What is the most common opportunistic fungus in the body?

A

Candida Albicans, which causes infections when normal flora is destroyed.

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33
Q

What drug can treat thrush?

A

Nystatin (Mycostatin®).

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34
Q

What is a dermatophytic fungal infection?

A

Fungal infection of the skin, hair, or nails.

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35
Q

What is the drug of choice for systemic fungal infections?

A

Amphotericin B.

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36
Q

What is a vector? What causes malaria?

A

Intermediaries like mosquitoes. The vector for malaria is the mosquito.

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37
Q

What is the causative organism of tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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38
Q

How is tuberculosis transmitted?

A

Through respiratory droplets.

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39
Q

What teaching points would you include for a patient taking Rifampin?

A

It is hepatotoxic, and all water-based excretions will be reddish orange.

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40
Q

What is the causative organism of viral infections?

A

Viruses.

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41
Q

When do viral infections have to be treated?

A

As the viruses replicate.

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42
Q

What is the causative organism of HIV/AIDS?

A

HIV.

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43
Q

What does HIV attack?

A

T helper cells and macrophages.

44
Q

Can you treat HIV in the resting state?

A

No, it must be attacked as it replicates.

45
Q

What are the diagnostic tests to confirm HIV/AIDS status?

A

Elisa and Western Blot detect antibodies to the retrovirus.

46
Q

How is HIV/AIDS transmitted?

A

Through blood, sexual contact, and maternal-placental circulation.

47
Q

What does seroconversion mean?

A

When antibodies to the retrovirus are detected in the bloodstream.

48
Q

When is the official diagnosis of AIDS+ made?

A

When the T cell drops below 200 per mL.

49
Q

When is aggressive drug therapy started on an HIV+ person?

A

When the T cell count drops to 350 per mL and below.

50
Q

Name drug classifications that treat HIV/AIDS.

A

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, protease inhibitors.

51
Q

What is a nosocomial infection? What is a community acquired infection?

A

Nosocomial infections are hospital acquired; community acquired infections are acquired in the community.

52
Q

What can disinfectants be used on? What can antiseptics be used on?

A

Disinfectants can only be used on nonliving objects; antiseptics can be used on living tissue.

53
Q

What is a urinary tract analgesic and an antiseptic?

A

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium®) is an analgesic that deadens the urinary tract mucosa; nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) is a urinary tract antiseptic.

54
Q

What is the cause of cancer?

A

Our own cells gone wild, with no control mechanism.

55
Q

What can be used to treat cancer?

A

Surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy using cell cycle specific and nonspecific antineoplastics.

56
Q

What is the leading type of cancer causing death in men and women in the United States?

A

Lung cancer.

57
Q

What is true about cytotoxic antibiotics?

A

They cause hepatotoxicity and cardiotoxicity and inhibit nucleic acid and protein synthesis in cancerous cells.

58
Q

What drug toxicities may occur in patients due to chemotherapeutic drugs?

A

Bone marrow depression, stomatitis, alopecia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and nausea.

59
Q

What are cell cycle nonspecific agents?

A

Alkylating agents.

60
Q

What are cell cycle specific agents?

A

Antimetabolites, plant extracts/mitotic inhibitors, cytotoxic antibiotics.

61
Q

What are the principles of chemotherapy?

A

Each drug should work at a different stage of the cell cycle, and a combination of agents is more effective than a single agent.

62
Q

Why are antiemetics necessary during chemotherapy?

A

Antineoplastics stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain, causing nausea.

63
Q

What do immunomodulators do in cancer therapy?

A

They stimulate the production of WBCs and RBCs in bone marrow depressed by chemotherapy.

64
Q

What do hormone blockers (antagonists) do to treat cancer?

A

They block receptor sites in tumors stimulated by estrogen and androgens, slowing growth of cancerous tumors.

65
Q

Give an example of an antiseptic

66
Q

Give an example of a disinfectant

A

formaldehyde

67
Q

What is nitrofurantoin?

A

Nitrofurantoin is a urinary tract antiseptic that fights bacteria in the urine.

68
Q

What is the brand name for nitrofurantoin?

A

The brand name for nitrofurantoin is Macrodantin.

69
Q

Is there a drug that is tumoricidal?

A

There is NO drug or drugs that are tumoricidal.

70
Q

What is the first principle of chemotherapy?

A

Each drug should work at a different stage of the cell cycle.

71
Q

What is the second principle of chemotherapy?

A

In general, a combination of chemotherapeutic agents is more effective than a single agent.

72
Q

What is the third principle of chemotherapy?

A

Each drug should have a different site of action.

73
Q

What is the fourth principle of chemotherapy?

A

Each drug should have a different organ toxicity.

74
Q

What ability have bacteria developed regarding antibiotics?

A

Bacteria have developed the ability to convert antibiotics to an inactive form by producing certain enzymes that inactivate antibiotics.

75
Q

What contributes to bacterial resistance?

A

The production of certain enzymes by bacteria that inactivate antibiotics contributes to bacterial resistance.

76
Q

What are examples of bactericidal agents?

A

Penicillins, beta lactamase inhibitors, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, vancomycin, Flagyl

77
Q

What are examples of bacteriostatic agents?

A

Tetracyclines, macrolides, ketolides, lincosamides, sulfonamides

78
Q

What is the primary difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?

A

The thickness of their cell wall.

79
Q

What type of peptidoglycan layer do gram-positive bacteria have?

A

A thick peptidoglycan layer.

80
Q

What type of peptidoglycan layer do gram-negative bacteria have?

A

A thin peptidoglycan layer covered by an additional outer membrane.

81
Q

Why are gram-negative bacteria more resistant to antibiotics?

A

Due to their additional outer membrane.

82
Q

What is a vector?

A

A vector is an intermediary that transmits a disease-causing organism.

83
Q

What causes malaria?

A

The causative organism for malaria is a protozoa, Plasmodium vivax.

84
Q

What is the vector for malaria?

A

The vector for malaria is the mosquito.

85
Q

What is a key teaching point for patients taking Rifampin?

A

Rifampin is hepatotoxic; all alcohol should be avoided.

86
Q

What color will water-based excretions turn while taking Rifampin?

A

All water-based excretions will be reddish orange.

87
Q

What items will turn reddish orange due to Rifampin?

A

Soft contact lenses, urine, feces, perspiration, clothing, and bed sheets will all turn reddish orange.

The color will not wash out.

88
Q

What is the first principle of chemotherapy?

A

Each drug should work at a different stage of the cell cycle.

89
Q

What is the second principle of chemotherapy?

A

In general, a combination of chemotherapeutic agents is more effective than a single agent.

90
Q

What is the third principle of chemotherapy?

A

Each drug should have a different site of action.

91
Q

What is the fourth principle of chemotherapy?

A

Each drug should have a different organ toxicity.

92
Q

What are the drug classifications that treat HIV/AIDS?

A

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, protease inhibitors.

93
Q

What do entry inhibitors do in the context of HIV?

A

Entry inhibitors block HIV attachment at the fusion domain of host cells, therefore preventing access to the interior of the host cell.

94
Q

Which antibiotic classification is not safe to use during pregnancy?

A

Tetracyclines

Tetracyclines can cause deformities in the fetal skeleton because of chelation.

95
Q

Which antibiotic classification is both bactericidal and antiprotozoal?

A

metronidazole (Flagyl)

96
Q

What should patients avoid while they are taking Flagyl?

97
Q

What is a side effect/adverse effect of sulfonamides?

A

Crystalluria

98
Q

What patient teaching should you provide to patients taking sulfonamides?

A

Drink plenty of water with each dose and avoid caffeine

99
Q

What is empiric therapy?

A

Empiric therapy is based on a probable offending organism, where the patient is given a broad spectrum antibiotic.

100
Q

What happens after the offending organism is identified in empiric therapy?

A

Once the offending organism is identified, the antibiotic may be continued or a more narrow spectrum antibiotic may be given.

101
Q

What is a superinfection?

A

Overgrowth of another organism or bacteria not treated by the medication initially administered.

It could be caused by elimination of normal flora.

102
Q

What can cause a superinfection in the GI tract?

A

C. difficile can take over when E. coli is destroyed.

This occurs due to the elimination of normal flora.

103
Q

What organisms can take over in the mouth and vagina during a superinfection?

A

Candida albicans, a fungus, usually takes over when the normal flora is destroyed.

104
Q

What is a culture and sensitivity?

A

It is a process of sampling a bacterial site, growing it in the laboratory, and testing different antibiotics on the sample.

105
Q

What happens if the bacteria is resistant to an antibiotic?

A

If the bacteria is resistant, that antibiotic will not be used.

106
Q

What happens if the bacterial sample is sensitive to an antibiotic?

A

If the sample is sensitive, the antibiotic might be used to treat the bacteria in question.

107
Q

How do bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics?

A

Bacteria can convert antibiotics to an inactive form by producing certain enzymes that inactivate antibiotics.