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Pharmacology HRPS 2300 > Unit 1, Chapter 2 > Flashcards

Unit 1, Chapter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

Percentage of the drug dosage that is absorbed.

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2
Q

What is drug absorption?

A

Entrance of a drug into the bloodstream from its site of administration.

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3
Q

What is drug addiction?

A

Condition of drug abuse and drug dependence that is characterized by compulsive drug behavior.

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4
Q

What is drug dependence?

A

Condition of reliance on the use of a particular drug, characterized as physical and/or psychological dependence.

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5
Q

What is drug distribution?

A

Passage of a drug from the blood to the tissues and organs of the body.

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6
Q

What is drug excretion?

A

Elimination of the drug from the body.

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7
Q

What is drug metabolism?

A

The enzymatic biotransformation of a drug into metabolites.

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8
Q

What is the drug microsomal metabolizing system (DMMS)?

A

Group of enzymes located primarily in the liver that function to metabolize (biotransformation) drugs.

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9
Q

What is drug tolerance?

A

Decreased drug effect occurring after repeated drug administration.

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10
Q

What is enzyme induction?

A

Increase in the amount of drug-metabolizing enzymes after repeated administration of certain drugs.

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11
Q

What is enzyme inhibition?

A

Inhibition of drug-metabolizing enzymes by certain drugs.

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12
Q

What is first-pass metabolism?

A

Drug metabolism that occurs in the intestines and liver during oral absorption of drugs into the systemic circulation.

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13
Q

What is half-life?

A

Time required for the body to reduce the amount of drug in the plasma by one-half.

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14
Q

What is individual variation?

A

Difference in the effects of drugs and drug dosages from one person to another.

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15
Q

What is intramuscular (IM) injection?

A

Route of drug administration; drug is injected into gluteal or deltoid muscles.

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16
Q

What is intravenous (IV) injection?

A

Route of drug administration; drug is injected directly into a vein.

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17
Q

What is a loading dose?

A

Initial drug dose administered to rapidly achieve therapeutic drug concentrations.

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18
Q

What is a maintenance dose?

A

Dose administered to maintain drug levels in blood in the therapeutic range.

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19
Q

What is oral administration?

A

Route of drug administration by way of the mouth through swallowing.

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20
Q

What is parenteral administration?

A

Route of drug administration that does not involve the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

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21
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

Describes the processes of drug absorption, drug distribution, drug metabolism, and drug excretion.

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22
Q

Synergism

A

Drugs working together for a better effect.

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23
Q

Antagonism

A

Drugs working against each other or counteracting each other’s effect.

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24
Q

Distribution

A

Movement of drug from bloodstream into a tissue or organ.

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25
Q

Lethal dose

A

Amount of drug that can cause death.

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26
Q

Allergic reaction

A

Signs include rash, itching, carticoria, and dyspnea.

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27
Q

Toxic dose

A

Amount of drug that can cause dangerous side effects.

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28
Q

Maintenance dose

A

Amount of drug required to keep drug level steady.

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29
Q

Metabolism

A

Breakdown of drug to an inactive state.

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30
Q

Idiosyncrasy

A

Unusual response to a drug, other than expected effect.

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31
Q

Tolerance

A

Decreased response after repeated use of a drug, increased dosage required for effect.

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32
Q

Dependence

A

Acquired need for a drug, with symptoms of withdrawal when discontinued.

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33
Q

Teratogenic

A

Effects on a fetus from maternal use of a drug.

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34
Q

Pharmacology

A

Study of drug therapy on the body.

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35
Q

Agonist

A

A drug that binds to a receptor to cause a desired effect.

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36
Q

Parenteral route into the muscle

A

Intramuscular

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37
Q

A tablet placed under the tongue

A

Sublingual

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38
Q

A tablet placed in the cheek pouch

A

Buccal

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39
Q

A tablet dissolved in the mouth for local action

A

Lozenge (troche)

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40
Q

A coated tablet that dissolves in the intestines instead of in the stomach

A

Enteric-coated

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41
Q

A capsule that has delayed action over a longer period of time

A

Sustained-release

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42
Q

A liquid drug form with an alcohol base

A

Elixir

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43
Q

A liquid medication that must be shaken before administration

A

Suspension

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44
Q

Drugs given by the rectal route include

A

Suppositories and enemas

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45
Q

Parenteral route into fatty, connective tissue

A

Subcutaneous

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46
Q

A multiple dosed container for parenteral administration

A

Vial

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47
Q

A single dosed container for parenteral administration

A

Ampule

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48
Q

qd

A

every day

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49
Q

qod

A

every other day

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50
Q

n & v

A

nausea and vomiting

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51
Q

MI.

A

heart attack

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52
Q

syr.

A

syrup

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53
Q

GI

A

stomach and intestines

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54
Q

The beneficial effect of the drug is termed the:

A

Therapeutic effect

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55
Q

The study of how drugs treat a disease is:

A

Pharmatherapeutics

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56
Q

There are four human phases that are “required” in the process of developing a new drug.

A

False

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57
Q

A chemical name is a precise name given to the drug based on it’s chemical structure.

A

True

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58
Q

The time-response curve determines potency of a drug.

A

False

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59
Q

The Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 determined:

A

Drugs that enter the market must be safe.

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60
Q

This law provided grants to research companies to develop new drugs for diseases or conditions.

A

Orphan Drug Act

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61
Q

Which of the following processes is involved with the break down of drugs?

A

Metabolism

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62
Q

A semi-solid mixture that contains medication in an oily base is called a(n):

A

Ointment

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63
Q

What are the calibrations for an insulin syringe?

A

units

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64
Q

The time it takes to eliminate half of the drug from your body is called:

A

Half-life

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65
Q

All of the following routes avoid the first pass effect EXCEPT:

A

Oral

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66
Q

Lomotil belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 5

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67
Q

Fiorinal belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 3

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68
Q

Codeine belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 2

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69
Q

Amphetamines belong to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 2

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70
Q

Heroin belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 1

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71
Q

LSD belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 1

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72
Q

Meperidine belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 2

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73
Q

Marijuana belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 1

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74
Q

Tylenol c codeine belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 2

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75
Q

Valium belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 4

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76
Q

Percodan belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 2

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77
Q

Vicodin belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 2

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78
Q

Ritalin belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 2

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79
Q

Robitussin AC belongs to which drug schedule?

A

Schedule 5

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80
Q

Erythromycin

A

Enzyme Inhibitor

None

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81
Q

Calcium-channel-blockers

A

Enzyme Inhibitor

None

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82
Q

Phenytoin

A

Enzyme Inducer

None

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83
Q

Carbamazapine

A

Enzyme Inducer

None

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84
Q

Allopurinol

A

Enzyme Inhibitor

None

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85
Q

Chronic-alcohol-ingestion

A

Enzyme Inducer

None

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86
Q

Short term acute alcohol ingestion

A

Enzyme Inhibitor

None

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87
Q

Smoking

A

Enzyme Inducer

None

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88
Q

Fluoxetin (Prozac)

A

Enzyme Inhibitor

None

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89
Q

Cimetidine (Tagament)

A

Enzyme Inducer

None

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90
Q

Phenobarbital

A

Enzyme Inducer

None

91
Q

Grapefruit Juice

A

Enzyme Inhibitor

None

92
Q

What does ‘q’ mean in the directions for drug #2?

A

Every

Options included: After meals, Quickly, Quarterly, Before meals.

93
Q

What does ‘pc’ mean in the directions for drug #3?

A

After meals

Options included: As needed, Before meals, Pre-consumption.

94
Q

What does ‘gtts’ mean in the doctor’s orders for an antibiotic with directions of 2 gtts au qid for pain?

A

Drops

Options included: Every, Grams, Grains.

95
Q

‘qs’ means quantity sufficient. True or False?

A

True

96
Q
  • Pharmacology
A

the study of drugs

97
Q
  • Site of Action
A

location where the drug exerts its therapeutic effect
i.e. aspirin and the hypothalamus to reduce fever
not all sites of actions are known

98
Q
  • Receptor Site
A

specific location on the site of action where the drug binds to a cell in order to cause an effect
i.e. beta-1 receptors on the heart, opioid receptors in the brain

99
Q
  • Mechanism of Action
A

how a drug produces its effects
i.e. anesthetics interrupt nerve conduction

100
Q
  • Agonist Drug
A

drug binds and produces an effect
mimics

101
Q
  • Antagonist Drug
A

drugs binds and prevents others substances from
producing an effect
blocking drug, blocker, or inhibitor

102
Q
  • Lock and Key
A

drug must “fit”

103
Q
  • Physical Dependence
A

physical symptoms occur without use of the drug
tremors, abdominal cramps, sweating, convulsions

104
Q
  • Psychological Dependence
A

psychological symptoms occur without use of the drug
anxiety, tension, stress

105
Q
  • Tolerance
A

need to take more of the drug to achieve the same effect
increased metabolism of drug

106
Q
  • Therapeutic Effect
A

desired/intended effect of the drug (drug indication).
(When a drug should not be used, it is called a contraindication.)

107
Q
  • Side Effect
A

undesirable effect in addition to the desired effect (not an allergy), i.e. drowsiness, dry mouth

108
Q
  • Toxic Effect
A

side effect that can be harmful or life threatening to the body (drug poisoning)

109
Q
  • Additive Effect
A

When the combined effect of two drugs, each producing the same biologic response by the same mechanism of action, is equal to the sum of their individual effects

110
Q
  • Synergistic Effect / Synergism
A

When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects

111
Q

enzyme inducers

A

increase in the amount of liver enzymes, faster metabolism of drugs, duration of action is decreased

112
Q

enzyme inhibitors

A

inhibit liver enzymes, slow metabolism of drugs, increases duration and intensity of action
enzyme inhibitors → cimetidine (Tagamet®), erythromycin, allopurinol, Calcium Channel Blockers as a class, fluoxetine (Prozac®), short term alcohol ingestion

113
Q

Define concepts related to Pharmacokinetics (ADME) and factors that influence each of these processes.

A

Study of the processes of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

114
Q
  • Absorption
A

entrance of the drug into the bloodstream/circulation

Filtration-solids and fluids separate
Passive transport (diffusion) – drugs move from an area of high concentration to low concentration
Osmosis-diffusion across a semipermeable membrane enabled by water movement
Active transport-uses energy

115
Q

What are Schedule I drugs?

A

Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical use.

Examples include heroin, hallucinogens, and marijuana; these drugs are not to be prescribed.

116
Q

What are Schedule II drugs?

A

Drugs with high abuse potential and accepted medical use.

Examples include narcotics (morphine and pure codeine), cocaine, amphetamines, and short-acting barbiturates (Amobarbital, Secobarbital); no refills without a new written prescription from the physician.

117
Q

What are Schedule III drugs?

A

Drugs with moderate abuse potential and accepted medical use.

Examples include moderate- and intermediate-acting barbiturates, dronabinol, anabolic steroids, and preparations containing codeine plus another drug; prescription required, may be refilled five times in 6 months when authorized by the physician.

118
Q

What are Schedule IV drugs?

A

Drugs with low abuse potential and accepted medical use.

Examples include phenobarbital, chloral hydrate, zolpidem (Ambien), and antianxiety drugs (Librium, Valium); prescription required, may be refilled five times in 6 months when authorized by the physician.

119
Q

What are Schedule V drugs?

A

Drugs with limited abuse potential and accepted medical use.

Examples include narcotic drugs used in limited quantities for antitussive (codeine) and antidiarrheal purposes (diphenoxylate, Lomotil); drugs can be sold only by a registered pharmacist; buyer must be 18 years old and show identification. Some states require a prescription for this class of drugs.

120
Q

What does incompatibility refer to?

A

Usually refers to physical alterations of drugs that occur before administration when different drugs are mixed in the same syringe or other container

121
Q

What are additive effects?

A

When the combined effect of two drugs, each producing the same biologic response by the same mechanism of action, is equal to the sum of their individual effects

122
Q

What is summation in pharmacology?

A

When the combined effect of two drugs, each producing the same biologic response but by a different mechanism of action, is equal to the sum of their individual effects

123
Q

What does synergism mean?

A

When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects

124
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

Percentage of the drug dosage that is absorbed.

125
Q

What is drug absorption?

A

Entrance of a drug into the bloodstream from its site of administration.

126
Q

What is drug addiction?

A

Condition of drug abuse and drug dependence that is characterized by compulsive drug behavior.

127
Q

What is drug dependence?

A

Condition of reliance on the use of a particular drug, characterized as physical and/or psychological dependence.

128
Q

What is drug distribution?

A

Passage of a drug from the blood to the tissues and organs of the body.

129
Q

What is drug excretion?

A

Elimination of the drug from the body.

130
Q

What is drug metabolism?

A

The enzymatic biotransformation of a drug into metabolites.

131
Q

What is the drug microsomal metabolizing system (DMMS)?

A

Group of enzymes located primarily in the liver that function to metabolize (biotransformation) drugs.

132
Q

What is drug tolerance?

A

Decreased drug effect occurring after repeated drug administration.

133
Q

What is enzyme induction?

A

Increase in the amount of drug-metabolizing enzymes after repeated administration of certain drugs.

134
Q

What is enzyme inhibition?

A

Inhibition of drug-metabolizing enzymes by certain drugs.

135
Q

What is first-pass metabolism?

A

Drug metabolism that occurs in the intestines and liver during oral absorption of drugs into the systemic circulation.

136
Q

What is half-life?

A

Time required for the body to reduce the amount of drug in the plasma by one-half.

137
Q

What is individual variation?

A

Difference in the effects of drugs and drug dosages from one person to another.

138
Q

What is intramuscular (IM) injection?

A

Route of drug administration; drug is injected into gluteal or deltoid muscles.

139
Q

What is intravenous (IV) injection?

A

Route of drug administration; drug is injected directly into a vein.

140
Q

What is a loading dose?

A

Initial drug dose administered to rapidly achieve therapeutic drug concentrations.

141
Q

What is a maintenance dose?

A

Dose administered to maintain drug levels in blood in the therapeutic range.

142
Q

What is oral administration?

A

Route of drug administration by way of the mouth through swallowing.

143
Q

What is parenteral administration?

A

Route of drug administration that does not involve the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

144
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

Describes the processes of drug absorption, drug distribution, drug metabolism, and drug excretion.

145
Q
  1. In what unit is insulin ordered?
A

units

146
Q
  1. Identify calibrations for Insulin (units)
A

2 units calibration

147
Q

tuberculin syringe – 1 ml

A

0.01 calibration

148
Q

Syringes
3ml (0.1)

A

0.1ml

149
Q

Syringes
5ml (0.2)

A

0.2ml

150
Q

Syringes
10ml (0.5)

A

0.5ml

151
Q

Difference between a ampule and a vial

A

Ampule
Usually glass container
Single dose use
Use a filtered needle to draw out solution
Broken open

Vial
Multi-use container
Glass or plastic
Sealed
Sterilize the top

152
Q

Define gauge

A

Gauge
The larger the number, the thinner the needle.
The smaller the number, the thicker the needle.
i.e. 18 gauge is thinner than 16 gauge.

153
Q
  • Diffusion
A

diffusion is the process by which a drug moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

154
Q
  • Osmosis
A

a process of movement of solvents through a semi-permeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration

155
Q
  • Filtration
A

a physical or mechanical process that separates solids from liquids or gases

156
Q
  • Passive Transport
A

a process that moves drugs across cell membranes without using energy

157
Q
  • Active Transport
A

the process of moving substances across a cell membrane against a concentration gradient

158
Q

Enteral - define: 1) oral

A

PO (by mouth)

The oral administration route is the safest and the most convenient method. Oral administration usually requires 30 to 60 minutes before significant absorption from the GI tract occurs; therefore, the onset of drug action is delayed.

159
Q

Enteral - define: 2) nasogastric

A

(NG) tube
(tube’s integrity is assessed, solutions are preferred, pills must be crushed/mixed with liquid, tube must be flushed after administration, do not mix medications)

160
Q

Enteral-define: 3) Rectal

A

(enemas, suppositories)

When patient cannot take oral medications and parenteral is not indicated, also for local effects

Analgesics, laxatives

161
Q

Parenteral: intradermal

A

within or between the layers of the skin

162
Q

Parenteral: subcutaneous

A

situated or applied under the skin.
Or sub Q goes into the fat (used for insulin)

163
Q

Parenteral: intramuscular

A

Goes into the muscle, like a gluteal injection, which is in the hip or in the gluteal muscle

164
Q

Parenteral: intravenous

A

IV - goes in the vein

165
Q

Parenteral: intrathecal

A

into the spine

166
Q

Transdermal

A

goes into the dermis

167
Q

Intraocular

A

goes into the eye

168
Q

Intra-respiratory

A

goes into the lungs

169
Q

Intravaginal

A

goes into the vagina

170
Q

Intrauterine

A

goes into the uterus

171
Q

Intranasal

A

relating to the nose or administered through the nose

goes into nasal

172
Q

Otic

A

goes into eye

173
Q

Buccal

A

goes into the cheek

174
Q

Sublingual

A

goes on or under the tongue

175
Q

Topical

A

on the surface of the skin

176
Q

(creams-semi-solid with water base

A

ointments-semi-solid with oily base

177
Q

Endotracheal

A

goes into the trachea

178
Q

Oral medicine

A

Most medications—aspirin, sedatives, hypnotics, antibiotics

179
Q

Sublingual

A

Nitroglycerin in angina pectoris

180
Q

Buccal

A

Androgenic drugs

181
Q

Rectal

A

Analgesics, laxatives

182
Q

Transdermal

A

Nitroglycerin, estrogen

183
Q

Subcutaneous (SC)

A

Insulin

184
Q

Intramuscular (IM)

A

Narcotic analgesics, antibiotics

185
Q

Intravenous (IV)

A

IV fluids (dextrose), nutrient supplementation, antibiotics

186
Q

Intraarterial

A

Cancer drugs

187
Q

Intrathecal

A

Spinal anesthesia with lidocaine

188
Q

Inhalation

A

Antiasthmatic medications such as epinephrine

189
Q

Topical

A

Creams and ointments

190
Q

Vaginal

A

Creams, foams, and suppositories

191
Q

What is another term for the mechanism of action of a drug?

A

pharmacodynamics

192
Q

Identify the different parts to a prescription.

A

-DEA Number
-Prescriber Information
-Patient Information
-Date prescription was written
-Subscription
-Inscription
-Signa
-Special Instructions

193
Q

Time-Plasma Drug Concentration Curve or Time-Response Curve

A

onset of action-first observable effect
duration of action-length
continued metabolism and excretion → decreased drug levels, decreased response
Frequency

194
Q

Identify who can write prescriptions

A

physicians, dentists, podiatrists, NP, PA, or veterinarians may issue prescriptions

195
Q

Discuss who has a DEA number.

A

Presciber:
DEA number
series of numbers assigned to a health care provider allowing them to write prescriptions for controlled substances
assigned by the DEA
to be used for tracking controlled substances
must be listed on all narcotic prescriptions

196
Q
  • Harrison Narcotics Tax Act
A

curbed drug addiction or dependence
established the word “narcotic”
proved that narcotic drugs produced physical and/or psychological dependence
charged a tax on all who produce, import, manufacture, compound, deal in, dispense, sell, distribute, or give away opium or coca leaves, their salts, derivatives, or preparations, and for other purposes
“Warning: may be habit forming”-direct result

197
Q
  • Durham-Humphrey Amendment
A

designed the “Birth of the Legend” (classification of prescription vs OTC drugs)

198
Q
  • Kefauver Harris Act
A

drug products must be effective and safe
testing must be done in several animal species before it can be tested on humans
enforced by the FDA

199
Q
  • Federal Food and Drug Act
A

agency of the U.S. Health and Human Services
regulates and supervises safety and effectiveness of all drugs
protects the public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, and medical devices
ensures the safety of our nation’s food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation

200
Q
  • Pure Drug and Food Act
A

protection from adulterated or mislabeled drugs
drugs must meet standards of strength and purity

201
Q
  • Orphan Drug Act
A

provided grants to research companies to develop new drugs for rare diseases or conditions

202
Q
  • Controlled Substance Act
A

created controlled substances categories based on potential for abuse and medical effectiveness
regulated dispensing of controlled substances
assigned five categories
limited the number of prescription refills for controlled substances
amended in 1990, enforced by the Drug Enforcement Agency

203
Q
  • Sherley Amendment
A

prohibited fraudulent therapeutic claims by drug companies

204
Q

What does Pregnancy Category A indicate?

A

Drug studies in pregnant women have not yet demonstrated risk to the fetus.

205
Q

What does Pregnancy Category B indicate?

A

Drug studies have not been performed in pregnant women; animal studies have not demonstrated fetal risk.

206
Q

What does Pregnancy Category C indicate?

A

Drug studies have not been performed in pregnant women or in animals, or animal studies have revealed some teratogenic potential but the risk to the fetus is unknown.

207
Q

What does Pregnancy Category D indicate?

A

Drug studies have revealed adverse risk to the fetus. The benefit-to-risk ratio of the drug must be established before use during pregnancy.

208
Q

What does Pregnancy Category X indicate?

A

Drug studies have revealed teratogenic effects in women and/or animals. Fetal risk clearly outweighs benefit. Drug is contraindicated in pregnancy.

209
Q

What does NR stand for in pregnancy categories?

A

Drug has not yet been rated by FDA.

210
Q

What is Phase 1 of drug testing?

A

Involves 20-100 healthy volunteers or people with disease to determine safety and dosage.

211
Q

What is Phase 2 of drug testing?

A

Involves several hundred volunteers with disease/condition to determine drug effectiveness and side effects.

212
Q

What is Phase 3 of drug testing?

A

Involves 300-3,000 patients at medical research centers to determine adverse side effects and efficacy.

213
Q

What is Phase 4 of drug testing?

A

Involves several thousand volunteers with the disease/condition after FDA approval for continued post-marketing safety monitoring.

214
Q

First-Pass Effect

A

After oral administration, all drugs are absorbed into the portal circulation, which transports the drugs to the liver before they are distributed throughout the body.

Some drugs are metabolized significantly as they pass through the liver this first time.

This effect is referred to as first-pass metabolism.

It can significantly reduce bioavailability and the amount of active drug that reaches the general circulation.

215
Q

Half-life

A

The half-life of a drug is the time required for the blood or plasma concentration of the drug to fall to half of its original level.

For example, after two half-lives only 25 percent of the drug that was absorbed remains in the blood.

Half-life is important in determining the frequency of drug administration.

216
Q

Incompatibility

A

Usually refers to physical alterations of drugs that occur before administration when different drugs are mixed in the same syringe or other container

217
Q

Bioavailability

A

Bioavailability is the percentage of the dose of a drug that is actually absorbed into the bloodstream.

Differences in drug formulation, route of administration, and factors that affect GI absorption can influence bioavailability.

A particular drug may be manufactured by many different drug companies and sold under different trade names.

In these situations, the amount of drug may be the same in each product, but the product may be different because of particle size, binders, fillers, and tablet coating.

These differences may alter bioavailability. There have been examples of this in the past. Now, however, the Food and page 25Drug Administration (FDA) regulates and requires bioavailability testing.

218
Q

Reconstitution

A

the process of adding a liquid diluent to a dry ingredient to make a specific concentration of liquid

219
Q

What does ‘A’ indicate regarding drug studies in pregnant women?

A

Drug studies in pregnant women have not yet demonstrated risk to the fetus.

220
Q

What does ‘B’ indicate about drug studies in pregnant women?

A

Drug studies have not been performed in pregnant women; animal studies have not demonstrated fetal risk.

221
Q

What does ‘C’ indicate about drug studies and fetal risk?

A

Drug studies have not been performed in pregnant women or in animals, or animal studies have revealed some teratogenic potential but the risk to the fetus is unknown.

222
Q

What does ‘D’ indicate regarding the risk of drugs to the fetus?

A

Drug studies have revealed adverse risk to the fetus. The benefit-to-risk ratio of the drug must be established before use during pregnancy.

223
Q

What does ‘X’ indicate about drug contraindications in pregnancy?

A

Drug studies have revealed teratogenic effects in women and/or animals. Fetal risk clearly outweighs benefit. Drug is contraindicated in pregnancy.

224
Q

What does ‘NR’ mean regarding drug ratings?

A

Drug has not yet been rated by FDA.

Pharmacology HRPS 2300 (5 decks)

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