Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Equine Medicine > Unit 3 - Dermatology 2 > Flashcards

Unit 3 - Dermatology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of disorder is Heritable Equine Regional Dermal Asthenia (HERDA)?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder affecting collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What breeds is HERDA common in?

A

Quarter horses- specifically cutting horse lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why are some horses bred for the N/Hrd genotype of HERDA?

A

Because they have an athletic advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the age of onset of HERDA?

A

1.5-2 years of age - may not be observed up to 5 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What clinical signs are associated with HERDA?

A

Excessive skin trauma and scarring begin at the time of training - temperature and UV light may worsen the condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are lesions associated with HERDA commonly localized?

A

along the dorsal midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What ocular issues are associated with HERDA?

A

Increased incidence of corneal ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What musculoskeletal issues are associated with HERDA?

A

Increased joint laxity and risk of osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What immune issues are associated with HERDA?

A

Cyclophilin B mutation (related to T lymphocyte function) and possible increase in infectious disease and neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is HERDA diagnosed?

A

Based on clinical suspicion and genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is HERDA managed?

A

Minimize trauma, good wound management, limit heat and UV exposure, optimize diet for Copper and Vitamin C, joint supplementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the recommended ‘therapy’ for severely affected HERDA animals?

A

humane euthanasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What clinical signs are associated with non-inflammatory, non-pruritic alopecia?

A

No visible lesions other than hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is non-inflammatory, non-pruritic alopecia diagnosed?

A

A good history and physical exam will lead to a diagnosis

Biopsy in several samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do hair cycle alterations due to Telogen effluvium occur?

A

After a stressful event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What clinical signs are associated with telogen effluvium hair loss?

A

1-3 months after stressful event there is wide spread, symmetric hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is telogen effluvium hair loss diagnosed?

A

history, trichogram, and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does telogen effluvium hair loss resolve?

A

within 1-2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do hair cycle alterations due to Anagen effluvium occur?

A

When there is a systemic event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When does hair loss occur with anagen effluvium?

A

within days of the systemic event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is anagen effluvium hair loss diagnosed?

A

Clinical signs +/- a trichogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does anagen effluvium hair loss resolve?

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What autoimmune skin diseases do horses get?

A

Pemphigus foliaceus, pemphigus vulgaris, lupus erythematosus, bullous pemphigoid, erythema multiforme, and vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is ‘attacked’ in pemphigus foliaceus?

A

the desmosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Generally, what clinical signs are associated with pemphigus foliaceus?

A

Skin lesions with systemic signs that come in waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the primary lesion of pemphigus foliaceus?

A

The pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What specific clinical signs are associated with pemphigus foliaceus?

A

Alopecia, scaling, crusting, pain, fever, depression, lethargy, and anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What breeds are commonly affected by pemphigus foliaceus?

A

Appaloosas, quarter horses, and thoroughbreds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should your differentials be along side pemphigus foliaceus?

A

Dermatophytosis, dermatophilosis, pyoderma, multisystemic eosinophilic disease, and sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is pemphigus foliaceus diagnosed?

A

Cytology and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is pemphigus foliaceus treated?

A

Immunosuppressive medications - glucocorticoids, injectable gold salts, or azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Can horses get prednisone?

A

No - like cats, they are unable to break it down so they should get prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the prognosis for pemphigus foliaceus?

A

guarded to poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What can cause viral dermatoses?

A

Poxvirus, equine herpes, equine viral arteritis, vesicular stomatitis, and papillomatosis

35
Q

What are the four presentations of equine papillomavirus associated disease?

A

Classic viral papillomatosis, genital papillomas, aural plaques, and sarcoids

36
Q

What are aural plaques?

A

well demarcated hyperkeratotic, non-pigmented plaques that are located on the concave aspect of the pinna

37
Q

What is the signalment for aural plaques?

A

any horse greater than a year of age

38
Q

True or False: Aural plaques are always asymptomatic.

A

False - they are asymptomatic or may cause head hypersensitivity

39
Q

Do aural plaques resolve on their own?

A

nope

40
Q

How are aural plaques treated?

A

Cosmetic in most cases - imiquimod or acyclovir

41
Q

What is the most common allergic skin disease of the horse?

A

Insect-bite hypersensitivity

42
Q

What is known as the flea of the horse world?

A

Culicoides spp.

43
Q

What does Culicoides eat?

A

blood

44
Q

What does the life cycle of Culicoides require?

A

free standing water

45
Q

What is the signalment of Culicoides allergies?

A

Seasonal to non-seasonal

Onset of 3-4 years of age, worsens with age, and is genetic

46
Q

What breeds are predisposed to Culicoides allergies?

A

Ponies, icelandic breeds, quarter horses, and arabians

47
Q

What about Culicoides causes hypersensitivity?

A

Their salivary antigens

48
Q

Where do lesions due to Culicoides localize?

A

dorsal or ventral midline

49
Q

What clinical signs are associated with Culicoides allergies?

A

Intense pruritus, traumatic alopecia, papules, crusting, lichenification and scaling, eosinophilic collagenolytic granulomas (nodules)

50
Q

What complications are associated with Culicoides allergies?

A

Secondary infections, severe self-trauma, behavior issues, body condition issues, and euthanasia

51
Q

What should be ruled out before deciding that Culicoides is the cause of insect-bite hypersensitivity?

A

Parasites - Oxyuris equi, lice, and psoroptic or chorioptic mange
Non-culicoides insect hypersensitivities
Environmental allergies

52
Q

How is Culicoides allergy treated?

A

Prevent additional bites, control itch (steroids), and treat secondary infections

53
Q

What insect control can you use for horses?

A

Destroy their environment or move the horse
Repellent
Stabling
Fans or breezy patures

54
Q

What itch relief/control can be used for insect-bite hypersensitivities?

A

Antihistamines, local anesthetics, glucocorticoids (topical or systemic), and long-term prevention

55
Q

What are the antihistamines of choice for insect-bite hypersensitivities?

A

Cetirizine and hydroxine

56
Q

When are horse and deer flies problematic?

A

Summer months

57
Q

What do horse and deer flies require for their lifecycle?

A

vegetation around water

58
Q

What are horse and deer flies vectors for?

A

EIA and papillomavirus

59
Q

When do horse and deer flies feed?

A

during the day

60
Q

What type of water do Simulium spp. (black flies, buffalo gnats, and sandflies) live by?

A

Running water

61
Q

If a horse is allergic to Simulium, what else is it allergic to?

A

Culicoides - the salivary proteins are cross-reactive with this

62
Q

Where do Simulium spp like to feed? When?

A

They feed on thin haired areas at the morning and evening

63
Q

What are Simulium spp vectors for?

A

Onchocerca and papillomavirus

64
Q

When is Simulium spp bites associated with death?

A

When they attack in swarms

65
Q

What is equine ectopic disease?

A

A pruritic, inflammatory condition that is triggered by an environmental allergen

66
Q

What other syndromes get lumped in with equine ectopic disease?

A

Recurrent airway disease, recurrent urticaria, and idiopathic head-shaking syndrome

67
Q

What is the signalment for equine ectopic disease?

A

Young-middle age horses - possibly thoroughbreds

68
Q

What is the primary clinical sign associated with equine ectopic disease? Where?

A

Pruritus of the face, legs, and trunk

69
Q

How is equine ectopic disease diagnosed?

A

Clinical history and exclusion of other pruritic skin conditions - there is no definitive test

70
Q

How is equine ectopic disease treated?

A

Topical therapy - rinse coat, hydrate skin, and treat secondary infections
Antihistamines
Glucocorticoids
Allergen-specific immunotherapy (ASIT)

71
Q

What is recurrent urticaria?

A

Raised papules to plaques to patches that pit on gentle pressure

72
Q

What breeds is recurrent urticaria commonly found in?

A

Thoroughbreds and Arabians

73
Q

What length duration is acute recurrent urticaria associated with?

A

8 weeks or less

74
Q

What length duration is chronic recurrent urticaria associated with?

A

8 weeks or longer

75
Q

What are the 6 clinical forms of recurrent urticaria?

A

Conventional, papular, giant, exudative, gyrate, and linear

76
Q

Describe conventional recurrent urticaria.

A

Classic wheals varying in size from 0.5-5cm - vasculitis

77
Q

Describe papular recurrent urticaria.

A

Uniform small papules (3-8mm size) - associated with insects

78
Q

Describe giant recurrent urticaria.

A

Excessively large wheals - vasculitis

79
Q

Describe exudative recurrent urticaria.

A

Serum oozing, matting of hairs, and alopecia

80
Q

Describe gyrate recurrent urticaria.

A

Bizarre shapes, erythema multiforme

81
Q

Describe linear recurrent urticaria.

A

Zebra stripes

82
Q

True or False: There are many causes of recurrent urticaria

A

True - I doubt he will make us list any because there are 15 categories

83
Q

How is recurrent urticaria diagnosed?

A

History, clinical findings, and biopsy

84
Q

How is recurrent urticaria treated?

A

Symptomatic - glucocorticoids and antihistamines

Specific based on underlying cause

Equine Medicine (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions