Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 430 > UCD Limited Skills Phlebotomy > Flashcards

UCD Limited Skills Phlebotomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary functions of the cardiovascular system?

A

circulate blood
deliver O2 and nutrients to cells
dispose of waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the functions of the heart?

A

propels blood for transport of respiratory gases, nutrients, waste and immune substances

circulates blood to the lungs for O2/CO2 exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe pulmonary circulation

A

blood leaves the right ventricle and goes to the lungs for O2

right atrium (deoxygenated blood) -> R ventricle -> pulmonary trunk -> pulmonary arteries -> Lungs (becomes oxygenated blood) -> pulmonary veins -> L atrium (oxygenated blood) -> left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe systemic circulation

A

carries oxygenated blood from the L ventricle to the body systems

L atrium (oxygenated blood) -> L ventricle -> aorta -> systemic arteries -> tissues/organs (deoxygenated) -> systemic veins -> superior/inferior vena cava -> R atrium -> R ventricle (deoxygenated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Compare and contrast the inferior and superior vena cava

A

inferior vena cava - collects blood below the heart
superior vena cava - collects blood from above the heart

BOTH send deoxygenated blood to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Compare and contrast the L and R sides of the heart

A

Right - receives deoxygenated blood from tissue and organs

Left - receives oxygenated blood from lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 4 types of heart valves?

A

AV Valves - separates atrium and ventricle on each half of the heart

  • Tricuspid valve - between R atrium and R ventricle
  • Bicuspid valve - between L atrium and L ventricle

Semilunar valves - separates the ventricle and vasculature. Contain 3 leaflets

  • Pulmonary valves - opening of right ventricle into pulmonary trunk
  • Systemic valves - opening L ventricle into aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which side of the heart has more muscle mass? Why

A

L side of heart

exiting blood must travel farther, need more muscle to force it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the function of coronary blood vessels?

A

Nourished heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the layers of the heart from inner to outer?

A

endocardium - inner lining
myocardium - heart muscle
epicardium - top layer of heart
Pericardium - sac holding the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What parts of the heart receive blood? Deliver blood?

A

Atria - receives blood

Ventricle - delivers blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 4 heart chambers, what kind of blood do the do they contain, where does it receive/deliver blood?

A

Right atrium - Deoxygenated blood from the venae cavae
Left atrium - oxygenated blood from the lungs

Right Ventricle - deoxygenated blood to the lungs
- part of the pulmonary circulation

Left Ventricle - oxygenated blood to body systems
- systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the function of valves?

A

Prevents backflow of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of blood?

A
  • transport O2 and nutrients from the lungs to the tissues
  • forms blood clots to prevent excess blood loss
  • carrying cells and antibodies that fight infection
  • bringing waste products to the kidneys and liver, which filter and clean the blood
  • regulates body temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two components of blood?

A

Plasma - liquid

formed elements - cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

Plasma - liquid, cell-free part of blood that has been treated with anticoagulants

Serum - liquid part of blood AFTER coagulation
- devoid of clotting fibers like fibrinogen

Serum = plasma - fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 4 main plasma proteins and their functions?

A
  • albumin - maintains osmotic balance in blood
  • globulins (immunoglobulins) - antibodies (IgG, IgM, etc)
  • fibrinogen - clotting
  • prothrombin - clotting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 cellular elements of blood? Describe both

A

Erythrocytes (RBC’s)

  • anuclear, biconcave disks
  • contain hemoglobin
  • transports O2, CO2
  • 4.5-6.0 million per uL
  • lifespan of 120 days

Leukocytes (WBC’s)

  • provide immunity
  • destroy pathogens
  • produced in the bone marrow
  • 4500-11000 per uL
  • circulate in the bloodstream for several hours then migrate into the tissues

Thrombocytes (platelets)

  • vital role in blood clotting (hemostasis)
  • 140-440k per uL
  • lifespan of 9-12 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the differences between arteries, veins and capillaries in structure and function?

A

Arteries

  • structure: thick, elastic - creates resistance to blood flow - high pressure for blood to travel
  • most arteries contain oxygenated blood EXCEPT pulmonary and umbilical arteries

goes to aterioles, then goes to

Capillaries - sites of gas and solute exchange

  • thin walls
  • easy diffusion of gases, waste and nutrients

goes to venules, then goes to

Veins - thin and inelastic

  • less resistance, less recoil - ability to stretch to accommodate larger quantities of blood
  • blood typically deoxygenated EXCEPT pulmonary and umbilical veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the steps of coagulation? What is a blood clot primarily made of? What are the tests relating to blood clotting?

A

Stage 1 - primary hemostasis: response to injury

Stage 2 - Secondary hemostasis

  • formation of fibrin strands
  • reinforces platelet plug

Stage 3 - Stabilize fibrin clot

Stage 4 - Fibronolysis - breaks down the clot after healing

Blood clot consists of fibrin, made from fibrinogen

Blood tests:

  • Coagulation: fibrin clot
  • Anticoagulants: heparin, warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a hematoma? What is hemolysis? Why do we want to avoid it?

A

Hematoma - accumulation of blood in the tissues
- “bad bruise”

Hemolysis - process of blood clot formation after injury
- want to avoid bc of ruptured RBC’s: spills contents and leads to inaccurate results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Explain the concepts of cardiac polarization, depolarization and repolarization

A

Polarization - resting state of the myocardial wall

  • no electrical activity in the heart during this phase
  • flat line on EKG strip

Depolarization - stimulation/excitation of myocardial cell

Repolarization - process of heart muscle cells returning to resting state so they may be stimulated again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens during the P wave?

A

atrial depolarization/contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens during the QRS wave?

A

atrial repolatization and ventricle depolarization overlap

ventricular contraction and the beginning of ventricular recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens during the T wave of an EKG?

A

ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens during the PR segment of an EKG?

A

AV nodal delay

time from beginning of atrial contraction to beginning of ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the ST segment in an EKG?

A

the time between ventricles are contracting and emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the TP interval of an EKG?

A

time during which ventricles are relaxing and filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What can cause marks to appear on ECG paper?

A

heat and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does each vertical box on an EKG represent?

A

amplitude/voltage; 0.1 mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why do electrodes have jelly like substances on them?

A

it serves as an electrode that enables the transfer of electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where are the standard leads located?

A

R arm - L arm
R arm - L leg
L arm - L leg

R leg is for groundign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where are the augmented leads located?

A

All are in accordance to R arm, L arm and L leg

L hip
R hip
Sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where are the precordial leads located?

A 
V1 - R sternum 
V2 - L sternum, 4th ICS
V3- between V2/4
V4 - Midclavicular line, 5th intercostal 
V5 - between V4/6
V6 - midaxillary line
35
Q

What is this artifact and what causes it?

A

wandering baseline

caused by body movement or leads falling off

36
Q

What is this artifact and what causes it?

A

AC interference

electrical interference

37
Q

What is this artifact and what causes it?

A

somatic tremor

shivering, parkinson’s

38
Q

What is this artifact and what causes it?

A

interfering baseline

caused by disruption in electrical connection

39
Q

What are three ways that bacteria can produce disease?

A

secrete toxic substances that damage human tissue

act as parasites inside human cells

grow on body surfaces and disrupt normal function

40
Q

What are 4 common disease caused by bacteria?

A

UTI, pneumonia, TB, and strep throat

41
Q

What are 5 conditions that are required for bacterial growth?

A

nutrients, moisture, temp (37*), oxygen (or lack thereof), neutral pH

42
Q

What is inflammation

A

local response to infection or injury

  • destroys/inactivated foreign invaders
  • sets stage for tissue repair
43
Q

what is the sequence of events for the inflammatory response?

A

bacteria introduced into wound
chemical mediators cause vasodilation and capillary permeability
- increased blood flow increases delivery of proteins and WBC
- increased permeability to proteins ensures that plasma proteins that participate in inflammation can gain entry to IF

chemical mediators recruit neutrophils (chemotaxis)

44
Q

What are the four classic symptoms of inflammation?

A

erythema, edema, pain and heat

45
Q

Why does swelling occur? How does it help resolve infection?

A

blood vessels dilate to increase delivery of WBC

  • results in redness/heat
  • allows WBCs to get in there and phagocytize bacteria
46
Q

What happens when infection is too great for local control? What happens when it gets into the bloodstream?

A

infection can spill into lymph nodes

  • more WBCs assemble to combat infection
  • causes lymphadenopathy

Pyemia - blood poisoning

  • when infection spills into bloodstream
  • systemic infection that can lead to death
47
Q

Describe the following types of infections: acute, chronic, latent, opportunistic

A

acute - rapid onset of symptoms, lasts short time

chronic - infection that persists for a long period, sometimes for life
- HBV

latent - persistent infection in which the symptoms cycle through periods of relapse and remission
- HSV

opportunistic - caused by normally non-pathogenic organisms in host whose resistance has been decreased

48
Q

According to OSHA, what are specifically potentially infectious body fluids?

A 
CSF
liquid or semiliquid blood
vaginal or seminal secretions 
saliva in dental procedures 
unknown body fluid
49
Q

What are the major takeaways included in the OSHA compliance guidelines?

A

barrier protection
- PPE - especially gloves

environmental protection
- isolation/removing physical and mechanical health hazards

housekeeping protocols
- schedule cleaning or decontamination of work area

HBV vaccine

Postexposural follow up

50
Q

Where should broken glassware and spilled material be placed?

A

impervious biohazard bag or container spill site

51
Q

How should soiled linen be disposed?

A

double bagged and transported in labeled leakproof biohazard bag

52
Q

How should biohazard waste be disposed?

A

impermeable red polyethylene or polypropylene biohazard labeled bag or container

53
Q

What’s the protocol for cleaning spilled material?

A 
sprinkle congealing powder over spill 
scoop up spill 
put contents in biohazard bag 
wipe are with germicide 
place contaminated material in biohazard bag
54
Q

What is an Exposure control plan? What is an example of a bloodborne pathogen standards precaution?

A

Exposure control plan: source of information for answering bloodborne pathogen-related questions and to help ensure exposure control activities are in place

Bloodborne pathogen standards precaution: must keep log of sharps-related injuries

55
Q

What is asepsis? What is the difference between medical and surgical asepsis?

A

asepsis - freedom from infection or infectious material

medical - destruction of infectious organism after entering the body
- primary goal is to prevent reinfection and transmission to others

surgical - destruction of infectious organisms before entering the body \
- used for procedures that invade body’s skin or tissues

56
Q

What are the two types of skin flora?

A

normal - live and survive on our skin constantly, not virulent, but can cause serious infections

transient - infectious organisms that attached to skin during person to person or object

57
Q

Describe sanitation, disinfection and sterilization. What’s the process of sanitizing contaminated instruments?

A

sanitation - cleaning of contaminated articles or surfaces to reduce microorganisms

disinfection - use of physical or chemical means to destroy pathogens on surfaces and objects

sterilization - removal of all living microbes

sanitizing contaminated instruments:

  1. put on impermeable gown and face shied, utility gloves
  2. separate sharps from non-sharps
  3. rinse under cold water
  4. clean hinged instruments with disposable brush
  5. rinse with hot water
  6. towel dry instruments - dispose towels and brushes into biohazard
  7. remove gloves and wash hands
  8. dry hands, put on gloves, place sanitized instruments in identifiable site for disinfection and sterilization
58
Q

What hand washing material is most effective for eliminating microorganisms on hands?

A

alcohol based hand rubs - more effective than antimicrobial soap and water

59
Q

Sharps container should only be half up to how long? How full should it be?

A

30 days

3/4 filled

60
Q

What is the vaccine schedule for HBV? When should post vaccination HBV testing be done?

A

3 doses

  • 2nd is 4 weeks after 1st
  • 3rd 6 months after 2nd

antibody testing should be 1-2 months after vaccination

61
Q

What is post exposure prophylaxis? What is the protocol for contaminated waste exposure?

A

Postexposure prophylaxis - taking medicine to prevent disease after a possible exposure

contaminated waste exposure

  • wash exposed site with antibacterial soap and warm running water
  • report exposure to site supervisor
  • complete exposure incident report
62
Q

What are the average temperatures for a newborn, 1 y/o, 6 y/o-adult, 70+? What factors cause body temp to rise and fall?

A

newborn - 98.2
1 y/o - 99.7
6-adult - 98.6
70+ 96.8

Age

  • body temp in infants rises faster in response to external temp
  • aging adults lose ability to respond to environmental temp

stress - exercise/emotional stress increase metabolic rate

gender - women - hormones fluctuate body temp throughout menstrual cycle

smoking, drinking hot fluids

63
Q

What the equation to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius?

A 
C = (F -32) x 5/9
F = (C x 9/5) + 32
64
Q

What’s more accurate: axillary or oral temp? Why? What temperature measurement is most accurate for infants?

A

oral - closed cavity

infants - temporal artery

65
Q

What are some factors that can affect oral temp?

A

eating, drinking, smoking exercising

66
Q

What is pulse rate, pulse volume, and pulse rhythm?

A

pulse rate - number to rimes the heart contracts in a minute

pulse volume - amount of force placed on arterial walls during heart beat

pulse rhythm - amount of time between pulses

67
Q

Where are all the arteries located?

A

temporal, carotid, apical, brachial, radial, femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis

68
Q

What are the factors that effect blood pressure?

A

blood volume in circulation - greater volume = higher BO

blood vessel condition/peripheral resistance

  • smaller diameter = greater resistance = higher BP
  • atherosclerosis = fatty cholesterol deposits causes narrowing of vessels - higher BP
  • arteriosclerosis - hardening of arteries as we age - higher BP

degree of blood viscosity

strength of myocardium
- weaker contractions = stronger BP to compensate for blood circulation demand

69
Q

Describe essential and secondary hypertension

A

essential: idiopathic - no known cause
stage 1: systolic 140+, diastolic 90+
associated with obesity, high blood sodium, cholesterol, family history, race
can also be dx if 120+/80+ for 2+ visits over several weeks

stage 2: systolic 160+, 100+

Secondary: caused by another underlying pathologic condition

  • ex. renal disease, pregnancy complication, endocrine imbalance
  • white coat HT - increased stress being in medical setting

preHT - systolic 119+, diastolic 79+

70
Q

What are the 4 basic aspects of tx’ing hypertension?

A

lifestyle changes - losing weight, changing diet, limit salt and fat

older people - more important to pay attention of systolic - should be treated if over 140

meds - diuretic to eliminate fluids/salts, antiHT

patient centered treatment: education, community resources, pt relationship

71
Q

What are the different Korotkoff sounds?

A

Korotkoff: sounds heard during auscultation of BP

Phase 1 - faint, clear tapping sounds is heart - systolic BP

Phase 2 - swooshing sound as blood flows through artery - sound can completely disappear
- auscultatory gap - disappearance of BP sound, common in HTN

Phase 3 - reemergence of sharp tapping sound

phase 4 - sharp tapping sound becomes fainter and muffled - diastolic BP

72
Q

What are some pt complications with venipuncture?

A

apprehensive pts - assistance may be needed

fainting (syncope) - removed tourniquet and needle immediately

seizures - remove tourniquet and needle immediately

allergies - check with pt

nausea - provide emit basin, tell pt to breath, apply cold compress to forehead

vomiting - remove tourniquet and needle, attend to pt

obesity - hard to palpate veins, syringe for more control

IV Therapy - choose other arm

73
Q

What are some thing the pt can do before the blood draw that can affect lab results?

A

food - ingestion of food can alter certain levels of blood components (glucose, triglycerides)

posture - recumbent to upright can change blood constituents

exercise - moderate to strenuous exercise can affect lab results

stress - can increase levels of cortisol, WBC

alcohol - transient elevation of glucose

smoking - affects catecholamine, cortisol, glucose, GH

time of day
medications
sex and age

attitude - RBC and hemoglobin increased at high altitude

dehydration
fever
pregnancy

74
Q

What to do if venipuncture pt faints

A 
remove needle and tourniquet 
position pts head btw knees, lay pt flat on ground 
cold compress on pt head
check vitals and observe pt
never leave unattended
75
Q

What if a pt refuses to give their blood

A

pt’s right

documentation according to policy

76
Q

Why can a tourniquet only be applied for 1 minute?

A

hemoconcentration can lead to hemolysis

affected lab values - large molecules, K, lactic acid and enzymes

77
Q

How can you locate veins that are not prominent?

A 
veins not easily located
alternate site selection
vein enhancement 
- massage upward from wrist to elbow 
- gravity 
- heat
78
Q

Why should you not draw blood from a hematoma, burned/scar, arm adjacent to mastectomy?

A

damaged veins
- occluded: blockage of blood vessels usually with a clot
- sclerosed: hardened
hematoma - solid swelling of clotted blood within tissue
- draw below

edema - excess find

burns, scars, tattoos - prone to infection, reduced circulation

mastectomy - removal of lymph nodes interferes with lymph fluid flow
- use other side

79
Q

What are some technical complications when obtaining blood?

A

needle position
bevel against upper or lower wall

make sure bevel is up and angle is correct

needle too deep or shallow

  • adjust needle position
  • firmly brace tube holder against pt skin
  • when too shallow, blood is flowing very slowly: slowly advance needle

collapsed vein - stops blood flow
- do not put tourniquet too close to site

needle beside vein

  • gently touch area with cleansed finger to redirect needle slightly
  • withdraw the needle and reanchor vein
  • never move needle in lateral direction to access basilic vein - too close to brachial artery and nerve

faulty tube

80
Q

What do you do if a vein has collapsed?

A

release vacuum pressure by removing tube
wait a few seconds for vein to fill and try another tube
use smaller tube

81
Q

What can cause hemolysis?

A

during venipuncture - vigorous mixing, small needle or large tube, alcohol not dry, probing or pulling plunger back too fast

during processing - swimming clots, too high centrifuge speed, unpadded pneumatic tube systems

physiological factors - anemias, mechanical valves, blood microorganisms and meds

82
Q

What can cause a hematoma?

A

improper technique

failure to remove tourniquet
inadequate pressure and bending arm 
probing 
faulty needle insertion 
too large of a needle
accidental arterial pressure e

injury to surrounding tissue

83
Q

What are the preferred veins?

A

1st choice - median cubital
2nd - cephalic vein
3rd - basilic vein

84
Q

What does an accidental arterial puncture look like?

A

bright red blood, pulsing
apply direct pressure by phlebotomist for 5-10 minutes
requires documentation

BIOL 430 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions