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BIOL 430 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cavities of the body and what do they contain?

A
  1. Dorsal
    cranial - brain
    ventral - spine
2. Ventral cavity
thoracic - above diaphragm 
- pleural - surrounds lung
- pericardial - around heart
- mediastinum - central portion between lungs

abdominopelvic - below diaphragm

  • abdominal: covered in peritoneum - stomach, spleen, liver, most large intestine
  • pelvic: bladder, internal reproductive organs
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2
Q

What are the following directions: proximal, distal, ipsilateral, contralateral

A

proximal - nearer to attachment of limb to trunk
distal - farther from attachment to limb on the trunk
ipsilateral - same side of body
contralateral - opposite side of body

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3
Q

What is the pollex and the hallux?

A

pollex - thumb

hallux - big toe

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4
Q

What does the diaphragm split?

A

thoracic and abdominopelvic cavity of the ventral cavity

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5
Q

What are the main organs in the different abdominal quadrants?

A

L upper - spleen, liver, pancreas, stomach
R upper - liver, stomach, gall bladder, duodenum
L lower - small intestine, L utterer, descending colon
R lower - ascending colon, cecum, appendix, R utterer

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6
Q

What’s and endergonic reaction

A

chemical reaction that absorbs energy

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7
Q

What are the function of rough ER, smooth ER and the golgi complex?

A

rough ER - synthesizes glycoproteins and phospholipids

smooth ER - synthesizes FA, steroids, detoxifies drugs, stores/releases Ca

Golgi complex - receives proteins from ER - modifies, sorts and packages molecules for transport

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8
Q

What are the functions of the following: lysosome, peroxisome, proteasome, centrosome

A

lysosome: digest contents of phagosomes and vesicles, old organelles or ells

peroxisomes - oxidizes AA and FA, detoxifies H2O2 and free radicals

proteasome - degrades unneeded/damaged proteins

centrosome - contains centrioles and tubulins that create the mitotic spindle

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9
Q

Where can you find the following epithelium: simple squamous, simple cuboidal, nonciliated simple columnar, ciliated simple columnar

A

simple squamous - peritoneum, small intestine

simple cuboidal - renal tubules of kidney

nonciliated simple columnar - small intestine (has microvilli)

ciliated simple columnar - uterine tube

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10
Q

Where can you find the non ciliated pseudo stratified columnar and ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

nonciliated pseudo - parotid ducts

ciliated pseudo - thyroid

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11
Q

Where do you find the following: NKSSET, keratinized stratified squamous, stratified cuboidal, stratified columnar, and transitional epithelium

A 
NKSEET - vagina
keratinized stratified squamous - skin 
stratified cuboidal - esophageal gland 
stratified columnar - pharynx 
transitional epithelium - urinary bladder
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12
Q

Where would you find the following CT: areolar, adipose, reticular, dense regular, dense irregular, elastic

A 
areolar - subQ
adipose - under skin 
reticular - lymph nodes, spleen, liver 
dense regular - tendon 
dense irregular - reticular region of dermis 
elastic - aorta
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13
Q

Where would you find the following CT: hyaline cartilage, fibriocartilage, elastic cartilage

A

hyaline - fetal bones

fibroid - intervertebral discs

elastics - auricle of ear

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14
Q

What are the skin pigments?

A

melanin - produced in stratum basale

  • pheomelanin - yellow to red
  • eumelanin - brown to black

hemoglobin - red pigment in blood

carotene - yellow/orange pigment in stratum cornea and adipose tissue

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15
Q

What are the types of sweat glands? What are their functions? What are the functions of sebaceous glands?

A

sebaceous - secrets oil to prevent hair from drying out, prevent water loss, keep skin soft, inhibit growth of some bacteria

eccrine sweat glands - regulates temp, waste removal, stimulated during emotional stress

apocrine - stimulated during emotional stress/sexual excitement

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16
Q

What are the skin layers with their subdivisions?

A

epidermis
- superficial - stratum Cornea, lucidum (thick only), granulosum, spinousum, basale - deep

Dermis
- superficial - papillary, reticular - deep

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17
Q

What are the functions of the following skin structures: dermal papillae, meissen and pacinian corpuscles, langerhans cells, papilla of the hair, nail matrix

A

dermal papillae - contain blood vessels and Meissner corpuscles

Meissner corpuscles - tactile receptors

Pacinian corpuscles - sensitive to pressure

Langerhans - immune response

Papilla of the hair - areolar CT and blood vessels to nourish hair

Nail matrix - produces new nails

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18
Q

What are the three types of membranes and their locations?

A

cutaneous - skin

mucous - utterer, trachea

serious - fundic stomach

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19
Q

What are the bone regions in a long bone?

A

Diaphysis - bone shaft

  • surrounded by periosteum
  • contains medullary cavity - hollow space lined by endosperm

Epiphysis (2) - ends of the bone at joints
- covered in articular cartilage

Metaphyses (2) - between the diaphysis and epiphysis

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20
Q

What are the functions of the following bone cells? What are their order of specialization?

osteoproenitor, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

A

osteoprogenitor - stem cells that are able to differentiate

osteoblast - bone building cells that secrete matrix

osteocytes - mature bone cells

osteoclasts - remodel bones and cause them to release Ca

osteoclast - osteoprogenitor - osteoblast - osteocyte

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21
Q

Describe compact bone and the following features: osteon, Volkman’s canal, Sharpey’s fibers

A

osteon - functional unit in compact bone

Volkman’s - perforating and connects between central canals

Sharpey’s fibers - connects periosteum to bone

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22
Q

What are the following: osteocyte, lacuna, canaliculi

A

osteocyte - mature bone cell

lacuna - open space around osteocyte

canaliculi - canals between osteocytes

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23
Q

What is trabecula? Where is it found? What does it contain?

A

trabecula - irregular pattern of thin columns of lamellae
- contains blood vessels to nourish osteocytes and concentric lamellae

contains space for red bone marrow

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24
Q

Describe the following fractures: compound, communicated, green stick

A

compound - broken ends of bone protrude through skin

communicated - bone is splintered, crushed due to impact

green stick - partial fracture where one side of the bone is broken, other bends

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25
Q

Describe the following fractures: impacted, pott, colles

A

impacted - one end of fractures bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other

pott - fracture at distal end of fibula

collet - fracture at distal end of radius

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26
Q

What is the effect of parathyroid hormone?

A

PTH is secreted when Ca in blood is low

  • stimulates increase bone resorption, osteoclast break down bone to release Ca
  • releases calcitrol from kidneys - increases Ca absorption in intestines

negative feedback loop

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27
Q

What is part of the thoracic cage? What kinds of ribs are there?

A

sternum - contains manubrium, body, xiphoid

ribs - 12 pairs

  • True - 1st 7 - cartilage directly connected to sternum
  • false - next 5 - cartilage indirect connected to sternum
  • floating - last 2 pairs - not connected to the sternum
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28
Q

How many vertebrae are there in each section? How can you tell the difference from each other?

A

7 cervical - 2 transverse forming, bifid process

12 thoracic - long spinous process, points downward, contains articular facet for ribs

5 lumbar - largest, spinous process project posteriorly, articular facets face medially and lateral

sacrum - 5 fused

coccyx - 4 fused

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29
Q

Describe the following facial bones: lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, ethmoid, calmer, sphenoid, mandible

A

lacrimal - connected to maxilla where lacrimal sac would be

maxilla - upper lip to nose

zygomatic bone - cheek bones

ethmoid - posterior/closer to orbit than lacrimal - contains perpendicular plate (inf to nasal bone)

volmer - connects perpendicular plate to maxilla

sphenoid - posterior orbit

mandible - lower jaw bone - largest and strongest facial bone

30
Q

What are the carpal bones? What’s the mnemonic to remember them?

A

STOP LETTING THOSE PEOPLE TOUCH THE CADAVERS HAND

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

31
Q

What its the pelvic girdle made of? where to they articulate? What is the acetabulum?

A

two hip bones that articulate with the sacrum posteriorly
- hip bones articulate together anteriorly at pubic symphysis

acetabulum = where head of femur articulates with hip

32
Q

How do you differentiate a female and male pelvis?

A

female - wider and more oval, acetabulum is smaller/anterior, pubic arch greater than 90, wider sciatic notch

male - narrower and heart shaped, acetabulum is large/lateral, pubic arch is less than 90, narrow sciatic notch

33
Q

What are the following special movements: depression, protraction and retraction (tempomandibular)
inversion and eversion (tarsal - foot)
supination and pronation (hand)
opposition (thumb)

A

depression - lower jaw
protraction - push jaw out
retraction - pull jaw in

inversion - foot tilted inward
eversion - foot tilted outward

supination - palm anterior
pronation - palm posterior

opposition - thumb touches finger on same hand

34
Q

What are the three structural classes of joints?

A

fibrous - sutures, syndesmosis, interosseous membranes

cartilaginous - synchrondrosis, symphysis

synovial - articular cartilage on both ends of large bones

35
Q

What are some features of skeletal muscle?

A
  • Long cylindrical fiber with peripherally located nuclei, unbranched, striated, largest diameter
  • Endo, peri and epimysium
  • No junctions between fibers = no autorhythmicity
  • Only voluntary muscle
36
Q

Describe the features of cardiac muscle

A

Branched cylindrical fiber with one centrally located nucleus, INTERCALATED DISK, striated

Endo and perimysium

Intercalated disks contain gap junctions and desmosomes - autorhythmicity

37
Q

Describe the features of cardiac muscle

A

Branched cylindrical fiber with one centrally located nucleus, INTERCALATED DISK, striated

Endo and perimysium

Intercalated disks contain gap junctions and desmosomes - autorhythmicity

38
Q

Describe the features of smooth muscle

A

Thickest in middle, tapered on each end, NO STRIATION, central nucleus, smallest diameter

Endomysium only

NO SARCOMERES OR T TUBULES

Gap junctions for autorhythmicity

Regulatory proteins - calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase

Highest capacity for regeneration

39
Q

What are the 4 properties of the muscles?

A

Electrical excitability - respond to stimuli by producing APs

Contractility - ability to contract when stimulated by action potential

Extensibility - ability of muscle to stretch without being damaged

Elasticity - ability of muscle to return to original length after contraction

40
Q

What are the layers covering muscles?

A

Fascia - dense sheet of irregular CT that lines body wall and limbs

Epimysium - encircles entire muscle

Perimysium - surrounds fascicles (bundle of 10-100 fibers)

Endomysium - separates individual muscle fibers from one another

41
Q

Describe what happens when an AP reaches the neuromuscular junction=

A

AP arrives at NMJ

  • AP goes down sarcolemma to transverse tubule, depolarizes membrane
  • Vg Ca channel open the Ca release channel in sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • Ca released into the cell allowing for troponin and tropomyosin to leave thin filament
  1. Myosin head hydrolyzes ATP
  2. Myosin binds to actin, forming a cross bridge
  3. Myosin head pivots, pulling the thin filament past the thick filament toward the center of the sarcomere (power stroke)
42
Q

Describe the following regions of a sarcomere: z disc, A band, I band, H zone, M line. What contains the Z disc

A

Z disc - separates one sarcomere from the next

A band - extends entire length of thick filaments, includes thin filaments that overlap with thick

I band - thin filaments only, contain Z band

H zone - part of A band that only has thick filaments

M line - center of Z zone that has proteins that hold thick filaments together at center of sarcomere

43
Q

What makes cardiac muscle special?

A

Intercalated discs - contain desmosomes and gap junctions - allow AP to spread from one muscle fiber to another

Have more mitochondria than skeletal muscle

Longer contractions

44
Q

What are the types of muscles fibers and where do you find them?

A

Slow oxidative fibers - first to be recruited

  • Found: postural muscles (neck)
  • Function: maintaining posture, aerobic endurance activities

Fast-oxidative fibers
- Lower limb muscles - walking, sprinting

Fast glycolytic
Extraocular muscles - rapid, intense movements for short duration
- eyelids

45
Q

What are the proteins involved in muscle contraction?

A

Myosin - makes up thick filament, Binds to actin molecules on thin filaments during muscle contraction

Actin - main component of the thin filament
Contains myosin binding site

Tropomyosin - regulatory protein (long)
Thin filament, covers myosin filament on actin to prevent binding

Troponin - regulatory protein (small)

  • Keeps tropomyosin on actin
  • When binds Ca, it changes shape and moves tropomyosin away from myosin-binding sites on actin
46
Q

What is the protein found in smooth muscles? describe what makes them different than the other muscles

A

Thick, thin and intermediate filaments

Lack transverse tubules, small sarcoplasmic reticulum

Caveolae - contain extracellular Ca for muscle contraction (no SR)

Dense bodies - similar to z disc - pulled on thin filaments during contraction

When muscle contracts, fiber twists into a helix, twists other direction to relax

Calmodulin - when bound to Ca, activates myosin light chain kinase and allows contraction

47
Q

What are the three classes of the lever system?

A

First class - see-saw
- Fulcrum in middle

Second class - wheelbarrow
- Load in the middle

Third class - tweezers
- Effort in the middle

48
Q

What are the muscles that are part of the quads?

A

rectus femoris
vastus lateralis
vastus intermiedius
vastus medals

49
Q

What are the muscles of the abdominal wall in order from deep to superficial?

A

deep

transverse abdomis
internal oblique
external oblique
rectus abdominis

superficial

50
Q

What are the muscles of respiration?

A

diaphragm - contaction = increased thoracic cavity - inhalation

external intercostal - contraction = elevated ribs = inhalation

internal oblique - forced exhalation

51
Q

What are the meninges in order?

A

Pia - covers the brain
Arachnoid
Dura

52
Q

What is the order of CSF circulation?

A

synthesized in the choroid plexus

goes through lateral ventricle to third ventricle

3rd via cerebral aqueduct to 4th ventricle

4th ventricle through apertures to subarachnoid space

  • arachnoid vili to the blood
53
Q

Describe the stretch reflex

A

stretching muscle causes it to contract, controls muscle length

  • monosynaptic, ipsilateral
  • reciprocal innervation - causes muscles antagonistic to stretched muscle to relax
54
Q

Describe the tendon reflex

A

in response to muscle tension - polysynaptic

causes muscle to relax before tendon is tone - inhibition
- motor neuron also excites antagonistic muscle

55
Q

Describe the flexor and crossed extensor reflex

A

Flexor - contract muscle away from painful stimulus

  • ipsilateral and polysynaptic
  • intersegmental reflex arc - one sensory neuron that stimulates many segments of the spinal cord

closed extensor - extend opposite muscle to maintain balance while flexor muscle is contracted
- contralateral

56
Q

Describe the regions that these nerves of the brachial plexus supplies: Axillary, musculocutanous, radial, median and ulnar

A

axillary - deltoid and teres minor
musculocutaneous - anterior muscles of the arm
radial - posterior aspect of arm and forearm
medial - anterior forearm and some muscles of the hand
ulnar - anteromedial muscles of the forearm and most muscles of the hand

57
Q

How many spinal nerves are there and how many do each of the parts of the vertebral column have?

A

31 pairs

8 -cervical 
12 thoracic 
5 lumbar 
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
58
Q

What autonomic plexus supplies the small and large intestine?

A

superior mesenteric plexus does both

inferior mesenteric also supplies large

59
Q

What are the regions of the embryonic brain and what do they develop into?

A

prosencephalon - telencephalon (cerebrum), diencephalon (thalamuses)

mesencephalon - midbrain

rhombencephalon - metencephalon (pons/cerebellum), myelencephalon (medulla oblongata)

60
Q

What are the types of cells that are at the BBB?

A

tight junctions that seal together epithelial cells

basement membrane - surround capillaries

astrocytes - secretes chemicals that maintain permeability at tight junctions

61
Q

What are the features of the sympathetic division of the ANS?

A

fight or flight AKA thorocolumnar division

divergence - can effect almost entire body simultaneously

longer lasting effects

ACh and NE

62
Q

what regulates autonomic tone?

A

hypothalamus

63
Q

What parasympathetic nerves innervate the digestive organs?

A

vagus

pelvic splanchnic innervates part of the large intestine

64
Q

Describe the thoacolumnar division of the ANS. Where are the cell bodies located?

A

sympathetic nervous system

contain cell bodies in the lateral gray horns of T1-L3

65
Q

Describe the olfactory epithelium

A

5 cm2 region the occupies superior part of nasal cavity

moistened by olfactory glands - allow for odorants to be dissolved

66
Q

Where do you find taste buds? What cells do they have? What papillae have them?

A

found on tongue, soft palate, pharynx, epiglottis

supporting, gustatory receptor, basal
- live for about 10 days

found on: vallate, fungiform, and foliate papillae

67
Q

What happens when sebaceous glands near the eye get infected?

A

Meibomian (tarsal) - chalazion

conjunctiva - blood shot eyes

sebaceous ciliary glands - sty

68
Q

What structures are responsible for static equilibrium?

A

saccule and utricle

- contain macula that house the receptors

69
Q

What are otoliths?

A

layer of calcium carbonate on the surface of the otolithic membrane
- located in the macula of the saccule

70
Q

What is a cupula?

A

gelatinous material that covers the crista

- crista - small elevation in the ampulla that contains a group of hair cells and supporting cells

71
Q

What are the following membranes of the inner ear: tectorial, vestibular, basilar

A

tectorial - covers hair cells
basilar - moved by endolymph and houses hair cells
vestibular - separates cochlear and vestibular duct

72
Q

What are the modiolus and helicotrema?

A

modulus - bony central core of cochlea

helicotrema - part of cochlear apex where tympanic and vestibular ducts meet

BIOL 430 (14 decks)

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