Final Flashcards
What are the cavities of the body and what do they contain?
- Dorsal
cranial - brain
ventral - spine
2. Ventral cavity thoracic - above diaphragm - pleural - surrounds lung - pericardial - around heart - mediastinum - central portion between lungs
abdominopelvic - below diaphragm
- abdominal: covered in peritoneum - stomach, spleen, liver, most large intestine
- pelvic: bladder, internal reproductive organs
What are the following directions: proximal, distal, ipsilateral, contralateral
proximal - nearer to attachment of limb to trunk
distal - farther from attachment to limb on the trunk
ipsilateral - same side of body
contralateral - opposite side of body
What is the pollex and the hallux?
pollex - thumb
hallux - big toe
What does the diaphragm split?
thoracic and abdominopelvic cavity of the ventral cavity
What are the main organs in the different abdominal quadrants?
L upper - spleen, liver, pancreas, stomach
R upper - liver, stomach, gall bladder, duodenum
L lower - small intestine, L utterer, descending colon
R lower - ascending colon, cecum, appendix, R utterer
What’s and endergonic reaction
chemical reaction that absorbs energy
What are the function of rough ER, smooth ER and the golgi complex?
rough ER - synthesizes glycoproteins and phospholipids
smooth ER - synthesizes FA, steroids, detoxifies drugs, stores/releases Ca
Golgi complex - receives proteins from ER - modifies, sorts and packages molecules for transport
What are the functions of the following: lysosome, peroxisome, proteasome, centrosome
lysosome: digest contents of phagosomes and vesicles, old organelles or ells
peroxisomes - oxidizes AA and FA, detoxifies H2O2 and free radicals
proteasome - degrades unneeded/damaged proteins
centrosome - contains centrioles and tubulins that create the mitotic spindle
Where can you find the following epithelium: simple squamous, simple cuboidal, nonciliated simple columnar, ciliated simple columnar
simple squamous - peritoneum, small intestine
simple cuboidal - renal tubules of kidney
nonciliated simple columnar - small intestine (has microvilli)
ciliated simple columnar - uterine tube
Where can you find the non ciliated pseudo stratified columnar and ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium?
nonciliated pseudo - parotid ducts
ciliated pseudo - thyroid
Where do you find the following: NKSSET, keratinized stratified squamous, stratified cuboidal, stratified columnar, and transitional epithelium
NKSEET - vagina keratinized stratified squamous - skin stratified cuboidal - esophageal gland stratified columnar - pharynx transitional epithelium - urinary bladder
Where would you find the following CT: areolar, adipose, reticular, dense regular, dense irregular, elastic
areolar - subQ adipose - under skin reticular - lymph nodes, spleen, liver dense regular - tendon dense irregular - reticular region of dermis elastic - aorta
Where would you find the following CT: hyaline cartilage, fibriocartilage, elastic cartilage
hyaline - fetal bones
fibroid - intervertebral discs
elastics - auricle of ear
What are the skin pigments?
melanin - produced in stratum basale
- pheomelanin - yellow to red
- eumelanin - brown to black
hemoglobin - red pigment in blood
carotene - yellow/orange pigment in stratum cornea and adipose tissue
What are the types of sweat glands? What are their functions? What are the functions of sebaceous glands?
sebaceous - secrets oil to prevent hair from drying out, prevent water loss, keep skin soft, inhibit growth of some bacteria
eccrine sweat glands - regulates temp, waste removal, stimulated during emotional stress
apocrine - stimulated during emotional stress/sexual excitement
What are the skin layers with their subdivisions?
epidermis
- superficial - stratum Cornea, lucidum (thick only), granulosum, spinousum, basale - deep
Dermis
- superficial - papillary, reticular - deep
What are the functions of the following skin structures: dermal papillae, meissen and pacinian corpuscles, langerhans cells, papilla of the hair, nail matrix
dermal papillae - contain blood vessels and Meissner corpuscles
Meissner corpuscles - tactile receptors
Pacinian corpuscles - sensitive to pressure
Langerhans - immune response
Papilla of the hair - areolar CT and blood vessels to nourish hair
Nail matrix - produces new nails
What are the three types of membranes and their locations?
cutaneous - skin
mucous - utterer, trachea
serious - fundic stomach
What are the bone regions in a long bone?
Diaphysis - bone shaft
- surrounded by periosteum
- contains medullary cavity - hollow space lined by endosperm
Epiphysis (2) - ends of the bone at joints
- covered in articular cartilage
Metaphyses (2) - between the diaphysis and epiphysis
What are the functions of the following bone cells? What are their order of specialization?
osteoproenitor, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts
osteoprogenitor - stem cells that are able to differentiate
osteoblast - bone building cells that secrete matrix
osteocytes - mature bone cells
osteoclasts - remodel bones and cause them to release Ca
osteoclast - osteoprogenitor - osteoblast - osteocyte
Describe compact bone and the following features: osteon, Volkman’s canal, Sharpey’s fibers
osteon - functional unit in compact bone
Volkman’s - perforating and connects between central canals
Sharpey’s fibers - connects periosteum to bone
What are the following: osteocyte, lacuna, canaliculi
osteocyte - mature bone cell
lacuna - open space around osteocyte
canaliculi - canals between osteocytes
What is trabecula? Where is it found? What does it contain?
trabecula - irregular pattern of thin columns of lamellae
- contains blood vessels to nourish osteocytes and concentric lamellae
contains space for red bone marrow
Describe the following fractures: compound, communicated, green stick
compound - broken ends of bone protrude through skin
communicated - bone is splintered, crushed due to impact
green stick - partial fracture where one side of the bone is broken, other bends
Describe the following fractures: impacted, pott, colles
impacted - one end of fractures bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other
pott - fracture at distal end of fibula
collet - fracture at distal end of radius
What is the effect of parathyroid hormone?
PTH is secreted when Ca in blood is low
- stimulates increase bone resorption, osteoclast break down bone to release Ca
- releases calcitrol from kidneys - increases Ca absorption in intestines
negative feedback loop
What is part of the thoracic cage? What kinds of ribs are there?
sternum - contains manubrium, body, xiphoid
ribs - 12 pairs
- True - 1st 7 - cartilage directly connected to sternum
- false - next 5 - cartilage indirect connected to sternum
- floating - last 2 pairs - not connected to the sternum
How many vertebrae are there in each section? How can you tell the difference from each other?
7 cervical - 2 transverse forming, bifid process
12 thoracic - long spinous process, points downward, contains articular facet for ribs
5 lumbar - largest, spinous process project posteriorly, articular facets face medially and lateral
sacrum - 5 fused
coccyx - 4 fused
Describe the following facial bones: lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, ethmoid, calmer, sphenoid, mandible
lacrimal - connected to maxilla where lacrimal sac would be
maxilla - upper lip to nose
zygomatic bone - cheek bones
ethmoid - posterior/closer to orbit than lacrimal - contains perpendicular plate (inf to nasal bone)
volmer - connects perpendicular plate to maxilla
sphenoid - posterior orbit
mandible - lower jaw bone - largest and strongest facial bone
What are the carpal bones? What’s the mnemonic to remember them?
STOP LETTING THOSE PEOPLE TOUCH THE CADAVERS HAND
scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
What its the pelvic girdle made of? where to they articulate? What is the acetabulum?
two hip bones that articulate with the sacrum posteriorly
- hip bones articulate together anteriorly at pubic symphysis
acetabulum = where head of femur articulates with hip
How do you differentiate a female and male pelvis?
female - wider and more oval, acetabulum is smaller/anterior, pubic arch greater than 90, wider sciatic notch
male - narrower and heart shaped, acetabulum is large/lateral, pubic arch is less than 90, narrow sciatic notch
What are the following special movements: depression, protraction and retraction (tempomandibular)
inversion and eversion (tarsal - foot)
supination and pronation (hand)
opposition (thumb)
depression - lower jaw
protraction - push jaw out
retraction - pull jaw in
inversion - foot tilted inward
eversion - foot tilted outward
supination - palm anterior
pronation - palm posterior
opposition - thumb touches finger on same hand
What are the three structural classes of joints?
fibrous - sutures, syndesmosis, interosseous membranes
cartilaginous - synchrondrosis, symphysis
synovial - articular cartilage on both ends of large bones
What are some features of skeletal muscle?
- Long cylindrical fiber with peripherally located nuclei, unbranched, striated, largest diameter
- Endo, peri and epimysium
- No junctions between fibers = no autorhythmicity
- Only voluntary muscle
Describe the features of cardiac muscle
Branched cylindrical fiber with one centrally located nucleus, INTERCALATED DISK, striated
Endo and perimysium
Intercalated disks contain gap junctions and desmosomes - autorhythmicity
Describe the features of cardiac muscle
Branched cylindrical fiber with one centrally located nucleus, INTERCALATED DISK, striated
Endo and perimysium
Intercalated disks contain gap junctions and desmosomes - autorhythmicity
Describe the features of smooth muscle
Thickest in middle, tapered on each end, NO STRIATION, central nucleus, smallest diameter
Endomysium only
NO SARCOMERES OR T TUBULES
Gap junctions for autorhythmicity
Regulatory proteins - calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase
Highest capacity for regeneration
What are the 4 properties of the muscles?
Electrical excitability - respond to stimuli by producing APs
Contractility - ability to contract when stimulated by action potential
Extensibility - ability of muscle to stretch without being damaged
Elasticity - ability of muscle to return to original length after contraction
What are the layers covering muscles?
Fascia - dense sheet of irregular CT that lines body wall and limbs
Epimysium - encircles entire muscle
Perimysium - surrounds fascicles (bundle of 10-100 fibers)
Endomysium - separates individual muscle fibers from one another
Describe what happens when an AP reaches the neuromuscular junction=
AP arrives at NMJ
- AP goes down sarcolemma to transverse tubule, depolarizes membrane
- Vg Ca channel open the Ca release channel in sarcoplasmic reticulum
- Ca released into the cell allowing for troponin and tropomyosin to leave thin filament
- Myosin head hydrolyzes ATP
- Myosin binds to actin, forming a cross bridge
- Myosin head pivots, pulling the thin filament past the thick filament toward the center of the sarcomere (power stroke)
Describe the following regions of a sarcomere: z disc, A band, I band, H zone, M line. What contains the Z disc
Z disc - separates one sarcomere from the next
A band - extends entire length of thick filaments, includes thin filaments that overlap with thick
I band - thin filaments only, contain Z band
H zone - part of A band that only has thick filaments
M line - center of Z zone that has proteins that hold thick filaments together at center of sarcomere
What makes cardiac muscle special?
Intercalated discs - contain desmosomes and gap junctions - allow AP to spread from one muscle fiber to another
Have more mitochondria than skeletal muscle
Longer contractions
What are the types of muscles fibers and where do you find them?
Slow oxidative fibers - first to be recruited
- Found: postural muscles (neck)
- Function: maintaining posture, aerobic endurance activities
Fast-oxidative fibers
- Lower limb muscles - walking, sprinting
Fast glycolytic
Extraocular muscles - rapid, intense movements for short duration
- eyelids
What are the proteins involved in muscle contraction?
Myosin - makes up thick filament, Binds to actin molecules on thin filaments during muscle contraction
Actin - main component of the thin filament
Contains myosin binding site
Tropomyosin - regulatory protein (long)
Thin filament, covers myosin filament on actin to prevent binding
Troponin - regulatory protein (small)
- Keeps tropomyosin on actin
- When binds Ca, it changes shape and moves tropomyosin away from myosin-binding sites on actin
What is the protein found in smooth muscles? describe what makes them different than the other muscles
Thick, thin and intermediate filaments
Lack transverse tubules, small sarcoplasmic reticulum
Caveolae - contain extracellular Ca for muscle contraction (no SR)
Dense bodies - similar to z disc - pulled on thin filaments during contraction
When muscle contracts, fiber twists into a helix, twists other direction to relax
Calmodulin - when bound to Ca, activates myosin light chain kinase and allows contraction
What are the three classes of the lever system?
First class - see-saw
- Fulcrum in middle
Second class - wheelbarrow
- Load in the middle
Third class - tweezers
- Effort in the middle
What are the muscles that are part of the quads?
rectus femoris
vastus lateralis
vastus intermiedius
vastus medals
What are the muscles of the abdominal wall in order from deep to superficial?
deep
transverse abdomis
internal oblique
external oblique
rectus abdominis
superficial
What are the muscles of respiration?
diaphragm - contaction = increased thoracic cavity - inhalation
external intercostal - contraction = elevated ribs = inhalation
internal oblique - forced exhalation
What are the meninges in order?
Pia - covers the brain
Arachnoid
Dura
What is the order of CSF circulation?
synthesized in the choroid plexus
goes through lateral ventricle to third ventricle
3rd via cerebral aqueduct to 4th ventricle
4th ventricle through apertures to subarachnoid space
- arachnoid vili to the blood
Describe the stretch reflex
stretching muscle causes it to contract, controls muscle length
- monosynaptic, ipsilateral
- reciprocal innervation - causes muscles antagonistic to stretched muscle to relax
Describe the tendon reflex
in response to muscle tension - polysynaptic
causes muscle to relax before tendon is tone - inhibition
- motor neuron also excites antagonistic muscle
Describe the flexor and crossed extensor reflex
Flexor - contract muscle away from painful stimulus
- ipsilateral and polysynaptic
- intersegmental reflex arc - one sensory neuron that stimulates many segments of the spinal cord
closed extensor - extend opposite muscle to maintain balance while flexor muscle is contracted
- contralateral
Describe the regions that these nerves of the brachial plexus supplies: Axillary, musculocutanous, radial, median and ulnar
axillary - deltoid and teres minor
musculocutaneous - anterior muscles of the arm
radial - posterior aspect of arm and forearm
medial - anterior forearm and some muscles of the hand
ulnar - anteromedial muscles of the forearm and most muscles of the hand
How many spinal nerves are there and how many do each of the parts of the vertebral column have?
31 pairs
8 -cervical 12 thoracic 5 lumbar 5 sacral 1 coccygeal
What autonomic plexus supplies the small and large intestine?
superior mesenteric plexus does both
inferior mesenteric also supplies large
What are the regions of the embryonic brain and what do they develop into?
prosencephalon - telencephalon (cerebrum), diencephalon (thalamuses)
mesencephalon - midbrain
rhombencephalon - metencephalon (pons/cerebellum), myelencephalon (medulla oblongata)
What are the types of cells that are at the BBB?
tight junctions that seal together epithelial cells
basement membrane - surround capillaries
astrocytes - secretes chemicals that maintain permeability at tight junctions
What are the features of the sympathetic division of the ANS?
fight or flight AKA thorocolumnar division
divergence - can effect almost entire body simultaneously
longer lasting effects
ACh and NE
what regulates autonomic tone?
hypothalamus
What parasympathetic nerves innervate the digestive organs?
vagus
pelvic splanchnic innervates part of the large intestine
Describe the thoacolumnar division of the ANS. Where are the cell bodies located?
sympathetic nervous system
contain cell bodies in the lateral gray horns of T1-L3
Describe the olfactory epithelium
5 cm2 region the occupies superior part of nasal cavity
moistened by olfactory glands - allow for odorants to be dissolved
Where do you find taste buds? What cells do they have? What papillae have them?
found on tongue, soft palate, pharynx, epiglottis
supporting, gustatory receptor, basal
- live for about 10 days
found on: vallate, fungiform, and foliate papillae
What happens when sebaceous glands near the eye get infected?
Meibomian (tarsal) - chalazion
conjunctiva - blood shot eyes
sebaceous ciliary glands - sty
What structures are responsible for static equilibrium?
saccule and utricle
- contain macula that house the receptors
What are otoliths?
layer of calcium carbonate on the surface of the otolithic membrane
- located in the macula of the saccule
What is a cupula?
gelatinous material that covers the crista
- crista - small elevation in the ampulla that contains a group of hair cells and supporting cells
What are the following membranes of the inner ear: tectorial, vestibular, basilar
tectorial - covers hair cells
basilar - moved by endolymph and houses hair cells
vestibular - separates cochlear and vestibular duct
What are the modiolus and helicotrema?
modulus - bony central core of cochlea
helicotrema - part of cochlear apex where tympanic and vestibular ducts meet
