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Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cavities of the body and what do they contain?

A
  1. Dorsal
    cranial - brain
    ventral - spine
2. Ventral cavity
thoracic - above diaphragm 
- pleural - surrounds lung
- pericardial - around heart
- mediastinum - central portion between lungs

abdominopelvic - below diaphragm

  • abdominal: covered in peritoneum - stomach, spleen, liver, most large intestine
  • pelvic: bladder, internal reproductive organs
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2
Q

What are the following directions: proximal, distal, ipsilateral, contralateral

A

proximal - nearer to attachment of limb to trunk
distal - farther from attachment to limb on the trunk
ipsilateral - same side of body
contralateral - opposite side of body

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3
Q

What is the pollex and the hallux?

A

pollex - thumb

hallux - big toe

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4
Q

What does the diaphragm split?

A

thoracic and abdominopelvic cavity of the ventral cavity

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5
Q

What are the main organs in the different abdominal quadrants?

A

L upper - spleen, liver, pancreas, stomach
R upper - liver, stomach, gall bladder, duodenum
L lower - small intestine, L utterer, descending colon
R lower - ascending colon, cecum, appendix, R utterer

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6
Q

What’s and endergonic reaction

A

chemical reaction that absorbs energy

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7
Q

What are the function of rough ER, smooth ER and the golgi complex?

A

rough ER - synthesizes glycoproteins and phospholipids

smooth ER - synthesizes FA, steroids, detoxifies drugs, stores/releases Ca

Golgi complex - receives proteins from ER - modifies, sorts and packages molecules for transport

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8
Q

What are the functions of the following: lysosome, peroxisome, proteasome, centrosome

A

lysosome: digest contents of phagosomes and vesicles, old organelles or ells

peroxisomes - oxidizes AA and FA, detoxifies H2O2 and free radicals

proteasome - degrades unneeded/damaged proteins

centrosome - contains centrioles and tubulins that create the mitotic spindle

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9
Q

Where can you find the following epithelium: simple squamous, simple cuboidal, nonciliated simple columnar, ciliated simple columnar

A

simple squamous - peritoneum, small intestine

simple cuboidal - renal tubules of kidney

nonciliated simple columnar - small intestine (has microvilli)

ciliated simple columnar - uterine tube

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10
Q

Where can you find the non ciliated pseudo stratified columnar and ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

nonciliated pseudo - parotid ducts

ciliated pseudo - thyroid

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11
Q

Where do you find the following: NKSSET, keratinized stratified squamous, stratified cuboidal, stratified columnar, and transitional epithelium

A 
NKSEET - vagina
keratinized stratified squamous - skin 
stratified cuboidal - esophageal gland 
stratified columnar - pharynx 
transitional epithelium - urinary bladder
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12
Q

Where would you find the following CT: areolar, adipose, reticular, dense regular, dense irregular, elastic

A 
areolar - subQ
adipose - under skin 
reticular - lymph nodes, spleen, liver 
dense regular - tendon 
dense irregular - reticular region of dermis 
elastic - aorta
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13
Q

Where would you find the following CT: hyaline cartilage, fibriocartilage, elastic cartilage

A

hyaline - fetal bones

fibroid - intervertebral discs

elastics - auricle of ear

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14
Q

What are the skin pigments?

A

melanin - produced in stratum basale

  • pheomelanin - yellow to red
  • eumelanin - brown to black

hemoglobin - red pigment in blood

carotene - yellow/orange pigment in stratum cornea and adipose tissue

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15
Q

What are the types of sweat glands? What are their functions? What are the functions of sebaceous glands?

A

sebaceous - secrets oil to prevent hair from drying out, prevent water loss, keep skin soft, inhibit growth of some bacteria

eccrine sweat glands - regulates temp, waste removal, stimulated during emotional stress

apocrine - stimulated during emotional stress/sexual excitement

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16
Q

What are the skin layers with their subdivisions?

A

epidermis
- superficial - stratum Cornea, lucidum (thick only), granulosum, spinousum, basale - deep

Dermis
- superficial - papillary, reticular - deep

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17
Q

What are the functions of the following skin structures: dermal papillae, meissen and pacinian corpuscles, langerhans cells, papilla of the hair, nail matrix

A

dermal papillae - contain blood vessels and Meissner corpuscles

Meissner corpuscles - tactile receptors

Pacinian corpuscles - sensitive to pressure

Langerhans - immune response

Papilla of the hair - areolar CT and blood vessels to nourish hair

Nail matrix - produces new nails

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18
Q

What are the three types of membranes and their locations?

A

cutaneous - skin

mucous - utterer, trachea

serious - fundic stomach

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19
Q

What are the bone regions in a long bone?

A

Diaphysis - bone shaft

  • surrounded by periosteum
  • contains medullary cavity - hollow space lined by endosperm

Epiphysis (2) - ends of the bone at joints
- covered in articular cartilage

Metaphyses (2) - between the diaphysis and epiphysis

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20
Q

What are the functions of the following bone cells? What are their order of specialization?

osteoproenitor, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

A

osteoprogenitor - stem cells that are able to differentiate

osteoblast - bone building cells that secrete matrix

osteocytes - mature bone cells

osteoclasts - remodel bones and cause them to release Ca

osteoclast - osteoprogenitor - osteoblast - osteocyte

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21
Q

Describe compact bone and the following features: osteon, Volkman’s canal, Sharpey’s fibers

A

osteon - functional unit in compact bone

Volkman’s - perforating and connects between central canals

Sharpey’s fibers - connects periosteum to bone

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22
Q

What are the following: osteocyte, lacuna, canaliculi

A

osteocyte - mature bone cell

lacuna - open space around osteocyte

canaliculi - canals between osteocytes

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23
Q

What is trabecula? Where is it found? What does it contain?

A

trabecula - irregular pattern of thin columns of lamellae
- contains blood vessels to nourish osteocytes and concentric lamellae

contains space for red bone marrow

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24
Q

Describe the following fractures: compound, communicated, green stick

A

compound - broken ends of bone protrude through skin

communicated - bone is splintered, crushed due to impact

green stick - partial fracture where one side of the bone is broken, other bends

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25
Describe the following fractures: impacted, pott, colles
impacted - one end of fractures bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other pott - fracture at distal end of fibula collet - fracture at distal end of radius
26
What is the effect of parathyroid hormone?
PTH is secreted when Ca in blood is low - stimulates increase bone resorption, osteoclast break down bone to release Ca - releases calcitrol from kidneys - increases Ca absorption in intestines negative feedback loop
27
What is part of the thoracic cage? What kinds of ribs are there?
sternum - contains manubrium, body, xiphoid ribs - 12 pairs - True - 1st 7 - cartilage directly connected to sternum - false - next 5 - cartilage indirect connected to sternum - floating - last 2 pairs - not connected to the sternum
28
How many vertebrae are there in each section? How can you tell the difference from each other?
7 cervical - 2 transverse forming, bifid process 12 thoracic - long spinous process, points downward, contains articular facet for ribs 5 lumbar - largest, spinous process project posteriorly, articular facets face medially and lateral sacrum - 5 fused coccyx - 4 fused
29
Describe the following facial bones: lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, ethmoid, calmer, sphenoid, mandible
lacrimal - connected to maxilla where lacrimal sac would be maxilla - upper lip to nose zygomatic bone - cheek bones ethmoid - posterior/closer to orbit than lacrimal - contains perpendicular plate (inf to nasal bone) volmer - connects perpendicular plate to maxilla sphenoid - posterior orbit mandible - lower jaw bone - largest and strongest facial bone
30
What are the carpal bones? What's the mnemonic to remember them?
STOP LETTING THOSE PEOPLE TOUCH THE CADAVERS HAND scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
31
What its the pelvic girdle made of? where to they articulate? What is the acetabulum?
two hip bones that articulate with the sacrum posteriorly - hip bones articulate together anteriorly at pubic symphysis acetabulum = where head of femur articulates with hip
32
How do you differentiate a female and male pelvis?
female - wider and more oval, acetabulum is smaller/anterior, pubic arch greater than 90, wider sciatic notch male - narrower and heart shaped, acetabulum is large/lateral, pubic arch is less than 90, narrow sciatic notch
33
What are the following special movements: depression, protraction and retraction (tempomandibular) inversion and eversion (tarsal - foot) supination and pronation (hand) opposition (thumb)
depression - lower jaw protraction - push jaw out retraction - pull jaw in inversion - foot tilted inward eversion - foot tilted outward supination - palm anterior pronation - palm posterior opposition - thumb touches finger on same hand
34
What are the three structural classes of joints?
fibrous - sutures, syndesmosis, interosseous membranes cartilaginous - synchrondrosis, symphysis synovial - articular cartilage on both ends of large bones
35
What are some features of skeletal muscle?
- Long cylindrical fiber with peripherally located nuclei, unbranched, striated, largest diameter - Endo, peri and epimysium - No junctions between fibers = no autorhythmicity - Only voluntary muscle
36
Describe the features of cardiac muscle
Branched cylindrical fiber with one centrally located nucleus, INTERCALATED DISK, striated Endo and perimysium Intercalated disks contain gap junctions and desmosomes - autorhythmicity
37
Describe the features of cardiac muscle
Branched cylindrical fiber with one centrally located nucleus, INTERCALATED DISK, striated Endo and perimysium Intercalated disks contain gap junctions and desmosomes - autorhythmicity
38
Describe the features of smooth muscle
Thickest in middle, tapered on each end, NO STRIATION, central nucleus, smallest diameter Endomysium only NO SARCOMERES OR T TUBULES Gap junctions for autorhythmicity Regulatory proteins - calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase Highest capacity for regeneration
39
What are the 4 properties of the muscles?
Electrical excitability - respond to stimuli by producing APs Contractility - ability to contract when stimulated by action potential Extensibility - ability of muscle to stretch without being damaged Elasticity - ability of muscle to return to original length after contraction
40
What are the layers covering muscles?
Fascia - dense sheet of irregular CT that lines body wall and limbs Epimysium - encircles entire muscle Perimysium - surrounds fascicles (bundle of 10-100 fibers) Endomysium - separates individual muscle fibers from one another
41
Describe what happens when an AP reaches the neuromuscular junction=
AP arrives at NMJ - AP goes down sarcolemma to transverse tubule, depolarizes membrane - Vg Ca channel open the Ca release channel in sarcoplasmic reticulum - Ca released into the cell allowing for troponin and tropomyosin to leave thin filament 1. Myosin head hydrolyzes ATP 2. Myosin binds to actin, forming a cross bridge 3. Myosin head pivots, pulling the thin filament past the thick filament toward the center of the sarcomere (power stroke)
42
Describe the following regions of a sarcomere: z disc, A band, I band, H zone, M line. What contains the Z disc
Z disc - separates one sarcomere from the next A band - extends entire length of thick filaments, includes thin filaments that overlap with thick I band - thin filaments only, contain Z band H zone - part of A band that only has thick filaments M line - center of Z zone that has proteins that hold thick filaments together at center of sarcomere
43
What makes cardiac muscle special?
Intercalated discs - contain desmosomes and gap junctions - allow AP to spread from one muscle fiber to another Have more mitochondria than skeletal muscle Longer contractions
44
What are the types of muscles fibers and where do you find them?
Slow oxidative fibers - first to be recruited - Found: postural muscles (neck) - Function: maintaining posture, aerobic endurance activities Fast-oxidative fibers - Lower limb muscles - walking, sprinting Fast glycolytic Extraocular muscles - rapid, intense movements for short duration - eyelids
45
What are the proteins involved in muscle contraction?
Myosin - makes up thick filament, Binds to actin molecules on thin filaments during muscle contraction Actin - main component of the thin filament Contains myosin binding site Tropomyosin - regulatory protein (long) Thin filament, covers myosin filament on actin to prevent binding Troponin - regulatory protein (small) - Keeps tropomyosin on actin - When binds Ca, it changes shape and moves tropomyosin away from myosin-binding sites on actin
46
What is the protein found in smooth muscles? describe what makes them different than the other muscles
Thick, thin and intermediate filaments Lack transverse tubules, small sarcoplasmic reticulum Caveolae - contain extracellular Ca for muscle contraction (no SR) Dense bodies - similar to z disc - pulled on thin filaments during contraction When muscle contracts, fiber twists into a helix, twists other direction to relax Calmodulin - when bound to Ca, activates myosin light chain kinase and allows contraction
47
What are the three classes of the lever system?
First class - see-saw - Fulcrum in middle Second class - wheelbarrow - Load in the middle Third class - tweezers - Effort in the middle
48
What are the muscles that are part of the quads?
rectus femoris vastus lateralis vastus intermiedius vastus medals
49
What are the muscles of the abdominal wall in order from deep to superficial?
deep transverse abdomis internal oblique external oblique rectus abdominis superficial
50
What are the muscles of respiration?
diaphragm - contaction = increased thoracic cavity - inhalation external intercostal - contraction = elevated ribs = inhalation internal oblique - forced exhalation
51
What are the meninges in order?
Pia - covers the brain Arachnoid Dura
52
What is the order of CSF circulation?
synthesized in the choroid plexus goes through lateral ventricle to third ventricle 3rd via cerebral aqueduct to 4th ventricle 4th ventricle through apertures to subarachnoid space - arachnoid vili to the blood
53
Describe the stretch reflex
stretching muscle causes it to contract, controls muscle length - monosynaptic, ipsilateral - reciprocal innervation - causes muscles antagonistic to stretched muscle to relax
54
Describe the tendon reflex
in response to muscle tension - polysynaptic causes muscle to relax before tendon is tone - inhibition - motor neuron also excites antagonistic muscle
55
Describe the flexor and crossed extensor reflex
Flexor - contract muscle away from painful stimulus - ipsilateral and polysynaptic - intersegmental reflex arc - one sensory neuron that stimulates many segments of the spinal cord closed extensor - extend opposite muscle to maintain balance while flexor muscle is contracted - contralateral
56
Describe the regions that these nerves of the brachial plexus supplies: Axillary, musculocutanous, radial, median and ulnar
axillary - deltoid and teres minor musculocutaneous - anterior muscles of the arm radial - posterior aspect of arm and forearm medial - anterior forearm and some muscles of the hand ulnar - anteromedial muscles of the forearm and most muscles of the hand
57
How many spinal nerves are there and how many do each of the parts of the vertebral column have?
31 pairs ``` 8 -cervical 12 thoracic 5 lumbar 5 sacral 1 coccygeal ```
58
What autonomic plexus supplies the small and large intestine?
superior mesenteric plexus does both inferior mesenteric also supplies large
59
What are the regions of the embryonic brain and what do they develop into?
prosencephalon - telencephalon (cerebrum), diencephalon (thalamuses) mesencephalon - midbrain rhombencephalon - metencephalon (pons/cerebellum), myelencephalon (medulla oblongata)
60
What are the types of cells that are at the BBB?
tight junctions that seal together epithelial cells basement membrane - surround capillaries astrocytes - secretes chemicals that maintain permeability at tight junctions
61
What are the features of the sympathetic division of the ANS?
fight or flight AKA thorocolumnar division divergence - can effect almost entire body simultaneously longer lasting effects ACh and NE
62
what regulates autonomic tone?
hypothalamus
63
What parasympathetic nerves innervate the digestive organs?
vagus pelvic splanchnic innervates part of the large intestine
64
Describe the thoacolumnar division of the ANS. Where are the cell bodies located?
sympathetic nervous system | contain cell bodies in the lateral gray horns of T1-L3
65
Describe the olfactory epithelium
5 cm2 region the occupies superior part of nasal cavity | moistened by olfactory glands - allow for odorants to be dissolved
66
Where do you find taste buds? What cells do they have? What papillae have them?
found on tongue, soft palate, pharynx, epiglottis supporting, gustatory receptor, basal - live for about 10 days found on: vallate, fungiform, and foliate papillae
67
What happens when sebaceous glands near the eye get infected?
Meibomian (tarsal) - chalazion conjunctiva - blood shot eyes sebaceous ciliary glands - sty
68
What structures are responsible for static equilibrium?
saccule and utricle | - contain macula that house the receptors
69
What are otoliths?
layer of calcium carbonate on the surface of the otolithic membrane - located in the macula of the saccule
70
What is a cupula?
gelatinous material that covers the crista | - crista - small elevation in the ampulla that contains a group of hair cells and supporting cells
71
What are the following membranes of the inner ear: tectorial, vestibular, basilar
tectorial - covers hair cells basilar - moved by endolymph and houses hair cells vestibular - separates cochlear and vestibular duct
72
What are the modiolus and helicotrema?
modulus - bony central core of cochlea | helicotrema - part of cochlear apex where tympanic and vestibular ducts meet

BIOL 430 (14 decks)

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