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Biology 3&4 > U4 AOS2 SAC Revision > Flashcards

U4 AOS2 SAC Revision Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the name of the reaction which amplifies DNA?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

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2
Q

What are polymerases?

A

Group of Enzymes which catalyse nucleic acids in PCR

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3
Q

What are the 2 main groups of polymerases?

A

DNA Polymerase and RNA Polymerase

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4
Q

What does DNA Polymerase do?

A

Assembles DNA molecules

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5
Q

What is Taq polymerase?

A

Type of DNA polymerase which is most commonly used in PCR due to it’s heat resistance qualities

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6
Q

What does RNA Polymerase do?

A

Assembles RNA molecules

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7
Q

What is Reverse Polymerase?

A

Type of transcriptase which synthesise a single-stranded DNA molecule from a single strand of RNA molecule that is used as a template

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8
Q

What is DNA called when it is made by Reverse Polymerase?

A

Complementary DNA (cDNA)

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9
Q

What is the main difference between mRNA and cRNA?

A

mRNA has gone through processing to remove the introns, known as RNA Processing, so when cDNA is created, it only has exons due to it being created from RNA

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10
Q

What is PCR?

A

PCR is an artificial method amplifying or replicating DNA segments under lab conditions

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11
Q

What are the 4 things are required for PCR to occur?

A

The DNA template
Nucleotides
Primers
Taq Polymerase

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12
Q

What are the steps of PCR?

A

1) Denaturation
2) Annealing
3) Extension/Elongation

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13
Q

What occurs in the DENATURATION stage of PCR?

A

The sample is heated to 95, breaking the hydrogen bonds that join the double-stranded DNA molecule, causing it to become single stranded

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14
Q

What occurs in the ANNEALING stage of PCR?

A

The temperature is then lowered to 55, allowing the primers to bind to complementary sequences on opposite strands of DNA

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15
Q

What occurs in the EXTENSION/ELONGATION stage of PCR?

A

The temperature is increase to 72, allowing Taq Polymerase to bind. Taq polymerase then moves along the DNA strand, adding free nucleotides synthesising a new strand of DNA from the original template strand and the primers

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16
Q

What is Gel Electrophoresis?

A

A technique that uses an electric current to separate DNA fragments through a gel, based on size/mass

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17
Q

Which fragments move the fastest in Gel Electrophoresis?

A

The shortest/smallest

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18
Q

What terminal does DNA move to? Why?

A

DNA moves to the positive terminal, as it is slightly negatively charged due to the presence of phosphate groups within the DNA

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19
Q

What are Endonucleases?

A

A group of restriction enzymes that cut DNA strands into smaller fragments

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20
Q

How do Endonucleases cut DNA strands?

A

The cut DNA strands by breaking the phosphodiester linkages in between the nucleotides at the recognition site

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21
Q

What are the 2 types of Endonucleases?

A

1) Sticky-end Restriction Enzymes

2) Blunt-end Restriction Enzymes

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22
Q

What is a feature of using Stick-end Restriction Enzymes?

A

Sticky-end Restriction Enzymes cut DNA fragments in a way which leaves them with over hanging ends, that are known as ‘sticky-ends’. These are then able to form complementary base pairs with other DNA molecules.

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23
Q

What is a feature of using Blunt-end Restriction Enzymes?

A

Blunt-end Restriction Enzymes cut DNA fragments in the same location which leaves clean/blunt ends. This means that there are no sticky-ends, and makes it more difficult for them to connect to other strands of DNA

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24
Q

What are Ligases?

A

A group of enzymes that join fragments of DNA or RNA via a process known as ligation

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25
Q

How does Ligase attach fragments of DNA or RNA together?

A

Does this through a process known as ligation, which involves the enzymes catalysing the formation of phosphodiester linkages between DNA strands

26
Q

What is Recombinant DNA?

A

Type of DNA molecule which has DNA from at least 2 different sources

27
Q

What type of DNA is used in creating Recombinant DNA? Why?

A

Plasmids in bacteria are usually used, as they contain fewer genes then chromosomes and are smaller in size. They are also used in bacteria as they self-replicate via binary fission, meaning that many copies of the gene can be created

28
Q

What is a Recombinant Plasmid?

A

A bacterial plasmid that has had a ‘target gene’ inserted into it’s sequence

29
Q

What are the steps involved in creating Recombinant DNA?

A

The target gene is isolated and cut using a sticky-end restriction enzyme. The bacterial plasmid is then cut using the same endonuclease, so that they have stick ends with complementary bases. The genes are the plasmids are then inserted into a solution containing ligase, which joins the target genes to the plasmids, causing them to become Recombinant Plasmids.

30
Q

What is a vector in terms of use in DNA?

A

An organism other medium that is used to deliver genetic material into a target cell via a process known as gene transfer, where the deliverer organism is not affected.

31
Q

What is the main thing that is considered to be a ‘vector’ in this are of study?

A

Plasmids

32
Q

What does it mean if a Bacterial cell is considered to be ‘transformed’?

A

The Bacteria cell has had foreign DNA incorporated into it’s plasmid

33
Q

What are the 2 ways in which a recombinant plasmid can be forced into a Bacterial cell?

A

1) Heat-shock Therapy

2) Electroporation Therapy

34
Q

What is involved in ‘Heat-shock Therapy’?

A

The bacterial cells and recombinant plasmids are placed in an ice cold solution together, with calcium ions. The temperature is then rapidly increased, disrupting the plasma membrane of the bacterial cell and allowing the recombinant plasmid to enter the cell.

35
Q

What is involved in ‘Electroporation Therapy’?

A

The bacterial cells and recombinant plasmids are placed into a solution together. An electric current is then applied, disrupting the plasma membrane of the bacterial cell and allowing the recombinant plasmid to enter the cell.

36
Q

What is Gene Cloning?

A

A process which involves making several copies of the same gene

37
Q

How are genes replicated using Gene Cloning?

A

Uses either PCR or using bacteria and their plasmids as vectors.

38
Q

What are 3 applications of Gene Cloning?

A

1) Production of transgenic organisms
2) Gene Therapy
3) Research into the expression of genes

39
Q

What are 2 SOCIAL implications of GENE CLONING?

A

1) Allows wider access to treatments due to price being lowered
2) Mis-use for non-therapeutic uses like performance enhancing drugs

40
Q

What are 2 BIOLOGICAL implications of GENE CLONING?

A

1) New, safer vaccines made possible

2) Human recombinant proteins more effective then ones from animals

41
Q

What are 2 ETHICAL implications of GENE CLONING?

A

1) Use of bacteria for therapeutic uses addresses issue of animal use
2) Manipulation of genes is seen as unethical regardless of the purpose

42
Q

What is Genetic Screening?

A

Technique that allows researchers to determine the genetic information about a specific individual

43
Q

What is the main purpose of Genetic Screening?

A

To identify whether that individual does or does not contain the allele for a specific genetic condition, which poses them as either developing disease, or passing it onto future offspring.

44
Q

What are some ways in which Genetic Screening occurs?

A
  • PCR
  • IVF
  • Amniocentesis
  • Chronic Villus Sampling
  • Gel Electrophoresis
45
Q

What are 2 SOCIAL implications of GENETIC SCREENING?

A

1) Invasion of privacy

2) Reproductive decisions

46
Q

What are 2 BIOLOGICAL implications of GENETIC SCREENING?

A

1) Isn’t 100% accurate yet

2) Intervention in evolution via altered inheritance

47
Q

What are 2 ETHICAL implications of GENETIC SCREENING?

A

1) Security of stored DNA

2) Reliability of DNA being used as proof of guilt/innocence

48
Q

What is DNA Profiling?

A

Technique used to produce an individuals unique pattern of DNA bonds, which acts as a method of identification

49
Q

What is researched in DNA Profiling?

A

The length of the STRs

50
Q

What is a STR?

A

STRs (Short Tandem Repeats) are non-coding regions of DNA, which contain sequences of nucleotides that are repeated

51
Q

Why are STRs studied? What makes them able to be studied?

A

STR’s are non-coding sections of DNA, meaning that they do not contribute to the production of proteins. This means their mutations have no affect and can be readily passed on, and can be recorded and compared

52
Q

What techniques are used in DNA Profiling?

A
  • PCR

- Gel Electrophoresis

53
Q

What are some issues involved with DNA Profiling?

A

1) May not be 100% accurate, due to possibility of contamination of DNA
2) Invasion of Privacy

54
Q

What is a GMO?

A

A GMO (Genetically Modified Organism) is an organism which has had it’s genome artificially altered

55
Q

What is a Transgenic organism?

A

A Transgenic organism is an organism who has had genes from another species inserted into its genome (transgenes)

56
Q

What is the difference between a GMO and a Transgenic Organism?

A

A GMO is an organism who’s genome has been altered using genes or alleles from the same species to produce a desired effect, while a Transgenic Organism has had it’s genome altered, but in a way where genes from a completely different species have been introduced.

57
Q

Why has Transgenic techniques been used in Animals?

A

To produce animals that have improved fertility, better meat quality, higher milk yields, even to produce antibodies through a process known as pharming.

58
Q

Why has Transgenic techniques been used in Plants?

A

To produce plants with increased crop productivity, insect predation, and resistance or prevent diseases.

59
Q

How are Transgenic Plants created?

A

Using recombinant plasmids in a type of bacteria (Argobacterium), that inserts it’s genetic material into the plant’s.

60
Q

What are 2 SOCIAL implications of the use of TRANSGENIC technology?

A

1) Increased food supply

2) Costs of production for farmers

61
Q

What are 2 BIOLOGICAL implications of TRANSGENIC?

A

1) Reduced Genetic variation in agriculture

2) Concerns regarding the consumption of GMO’s

62
Q

What are 2 ETHICAL implications of TRANSGENIC?

A

1) Violation of Animal Rights

2) Intervention in the Evolutionary Process

Biology 3&4 (14 decks)

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