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Boeing 737-800 > Type Rating > Flashcards

Type Rating Flashcards

1
Q

What does selecting LVL CHG display on the FMAs?

A

A/T Mode - N1 for climb; RETARD followed by ARM for descent.

Pitch Mode - MCP SPD for climb and descent.

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2
Q

On which navigation display modes can weather radar returns be shown?

A

All modes except PLAN.

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3
Q

What is a Flap Manoeuvre Speed?

A

The speed at the current flap setting that provides full manoeuvre capability or up to 40 degrees AOB.

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4
Q

What is the maximum taxi speed?

A

30kts.

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5
Q

When is anti-icing required to be on?

A

When TAT or OAT is 10 degrees celsius or less, and visible moisture.

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6
Q

What is the sequence of autothrottle modes during takeoff?

A

TO/GA - N1
84kts - THR HOLD
800ft HAA - ARM
Thrust Reduction - N1

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7
Q

After VOR/LOC and G/S are both captured how can you exit APP mode?

A
  • Pushing TO/GA
  • Disengage AP and selecting both F/D switches off
  • Retuning the NAV receiver
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8
Q

What rate of descent does ALT INTV aim for when selected?

A

-1000fpm

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9
Q

When is altitude alerting inhibited?

A

When trailing edge flaps are extended to 25 or greater, or while G/S is captured.

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10
Q

What are the minimum RVSM equipment requirements?

A
  • 2 x Primary Altitmeters
  • 1 x Automatic Altitude Control
  • 1 x Altitude Alerting Device
  • 1 x Transponder
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11
Q

How and where is a CDS Fault displayed? Go or No-Go?

A

An amber “CDS FAULT” in reverse video, on the bottom left of the PFD. It is a no go item.

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12
Q

1) What could the ON and ALTN lights illuminated on the EEC indicate?
2) What does just the ON light illuminated indicate?

A

1) Soft Alternate mode; or
Hard Alternate that has been set automatically by reducing the thrusts levers to idle.
2) Hard Alternate that has been selected manually.

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13
Q

What engine should be started first when using a ground air source? And what is the minimum bleed duct pressure psi required for a cross bleed start?

A
  • Engine #1
  • 30psi
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14
Q

Maximum lateral offset distance?

A

99nm.

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15
Q

What are the fuel tank capacities?

A

No.1 = 3,915kg
No.2 = 3,915kg
Centre = 13,066kg

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16
Q

What is the minimum acceleration height during a missed approach?

A

1000ft HAA.

17
Q

What are the RVSM altimetry accuracy requirements?

A
  • 50ft between Captain and FO
  • 75ft between Captain or FO and Field Elevation
  • 200ft inflight difference between Captain and FO
18
Q

What speed does the MCP display at the end of a go-around procedure?

A

Vref40+70kts at MLW

19
Q

What are the MEL repair intervals?

A

Category A = 0 days
Category B = 3 days
Category C = 10 days
Category D = 120 days

20
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engagement height?

A

400ft AGL.

21
Q

What should the bank angle be limited to when carrying out a turn on the CDP?

A

15 degrees.

22
Q

If you have a loss of hydraulic system A or B; When does automatic operation of the standby hydraulic system activate?

A
  • Airborne or faster than 60kts on the ground.
  • Flaps extended.
23
Q

When should an RA not be followed?

A

When a descent is commanded below 1,000ft AGL.

24
Q

How long do you have to initiate the required RA pitch change? And for any subsequent RAs?

A

5 seconds and 2.5 seconds.

25
Q

What warning systems override TCAS alerts?

A

Windshear and GPWS.

26
Q

Below what speed will RTO auto brakes not engage?

A

90kts.

27
Q

What are the 3 requirements for VNAV to be armed on the ground?

A
  1. A valid flight plan is entered.
  2. Performance data entered and executed.
  3. Both FD switches on.
28
Q

What does pulling the fire switch do?

A
  • Arms the squibs.
  • Closes fuel, hydraulic and bleed air valves.
  • Disables thrust reverser.
  • Deactivates engine driven hydraulics low pressure light.
  • Trips generator control relay and breaker.
29
Q

What speed does the FD command you to fly during a normal takeoff?

A

V2 + 20kt.

30
Q

What are the recommended temporary holding speeds if no speed is available from the FMC?

A
  1. Flaps UP manoeuvre speed.
  2. Vref40 + 100 when above FL250.
31
Q

What does a Navigation System Display (NSD) consist of?

A
  1. MCDU
  2. FMC
  3. PFD & ND
  4. F/D
32
Q

When does On Approach logic commence?

A

Within 2NM of first approach waypoint
OR
Within 2000ft of aerodrome elevation

33
Q

What does ‘On Approach’ logic mean?

A
  1. Alerting levels change (0.3nm and 125ft)
  2. Fly away logic is enabled
  3. Level flight is commanded when 200ft below path
34
Q

When can LNAV be engaged following a go-around?

A

400ft Radio Altitude.

35
Q

At what speed does the autothrottle go into THR HOLD?

A

84kts

Boeing 737-800 (17 decks)

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