FAM

Question 1

Maximum circuit entry speed

Answer 1

200kts

Question 2

Maximum speed on descent, below 5,000ft HAA?

Answer 2

250kts

Question 3

How long are pilots required to give cabin crew to prepare the cabin?

Answer 3

10 minutes.

Question 4

How are critical stages defined?

Answer 4

Any time the flaps are not in the UP position

Question 5

What is the PF call at 1000ft RA during Low Visibility Procedures?

Answer 5

“Flare armed - Autoland”
Or
“Manual landing”

Question 6

What is the minimum acceleration height during a missed approach?

Answer 6

1000ft HAA

Question 7

What is the policy on the number of weather related missed approaches that should be attempted?

Answer 7

2, or 3 if it is highly likely of a successful approach.

Question 8

What is the maximum taxi speed?

Answer 8

30kts.

Question 9

When is the Sterile Flight Deck period from?

Answer 9

1. The last door closed to the seatbelt signs selected to Auto or OFF.
2. The Prepare Cabin PA to arrival at the terminal.

Question 10

What is the default Qantas Noise Abatement procedure? And what ICAO code does it fall under?

Answer 10

NADP 2; ICAO B

Question 11

What ICAO code does the NADP 1 fall under?

Answer 11

ICAO A.

Question 12

What weather conditions at your departure will require nomination of a take-off alternate?

Answer 12

(i) Conditions below the LOWEST published useable landing minima with OEI; or
(ii) Operational conditions exist that would preclude a return.

Question 13

What category of airport is allowed to be nominated as a take-off alternate?

Answer 13

Category A, B or C.

Question 14

What minima must a take-off alternate be above to be able to be nominated?

Answer 14

EDTO Planning Minima.

Question 15

Are PROB30 conditions considered when assessing an EDTO alternate?

Answer 15

No.

Question 16

How is an airport considered as Suitable?

Answer 16

(i) No alternate required for arrival; and
(ii) Appropriate holding fuel is carried

Question 17

What determines an airport as Acceptable?

Answer 17

(i) Forecast to be above LANDING MINIMA for arrival; and
(ii) Appropriate holding fuel is carried

Question 18

When does the inflight phase commence, with respect to the fuel policy?

Answer 18

Once pushback commences.

Question 19

When does the preflight phase cease, with respect to the fuel policy?

Answer 19

When pushback commences or when the first engine is started.

Question 20

What buffer is applied to forecast improvement and deteriorations for weather assessments?

Answer 20

+/- 30 minutes

Question 21

What buffer is applied to weather assessments when using RAWC?

Answer 21

+/- 60 minutes

Question 22

What is the minimum RFFS category for airports outside of Australian territory?

Answer 22

Category 4

Question 23

What type of a point is the CPE?

Answer 23

Equi-time Point

Question 24

What type of a point are the DPD and DP1?

Answer 24

Equi-fuel point

Question 25

When is the extra 700 Kg of fuel for CAV 01/02 not required?

Answer 25

When holding fuel is planned to cover INTER/TEMPO conditions or Diversion Fuel is planned.

Question 26

What category of airports can be considered suitable?

Answer 26

Category A and B

Question 27

What category of airports can be considered as Acceptable?

Answer 27

Category A, B, C and Emergency Airport

Question 28

What Category of airport can be used as a Takeoff Alternate?

Answer 28

Category A, B and C

Question 29

What are the forecast requirements for a takeoff alternate within 60 minutes of the departure airport?

Answer 29

At or above Landing Minima.

Question 30

What are the forecast requirements when a Takeoff Alternate is greater than 60 minutes from the departure?

Answer 30

At or above EDTO Planning Minima.

Question 31

Are PROB 30/40 INTER/TEMPO conditions considered when assessing a Takeoff Alternate?

Answer 31

No.

Question 32

What is the time buffer applied to weather forecasts when assessing a Takeoff Alternate?

Answer 32

+/- 30 minutes.