Numbers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the EGT start limit?

A

725°C

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2
Q

Greater than what N2 % does the EEC become powered during start?

A

15%

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3
Q

What difference between the main tanks will the fuel IMBAL alert be activated?

A

More than 453 kg

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4
Q

Maximum cabin differential pressure?

A

9.1 psi

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5
Q

Within how many feet of airport elevation should an IFR altimeter read?

A

60 ft

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6
Q

Beyond how many feet from airport elevation is an IFR altimeter considered unserviceable?

A

75 ft

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7
Q

What is the speed tolerance to be maintained in CTA?

A

+/- 10 kt or +/- 0.02 Mach

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8
Q

When a position estimate changes by more than ….. the pilot must advise ATS.

A

2 minutes

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9
Q

The pilot-in-command must commence a change of level as soon as possible, but not later than ….. after receiving that instruction from ATC.

A

1 minute

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10
Q

What are the RVSM levels?

A

FL290 - FL410

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11
Q

How many minutes of separation does a MEDIUM aircraft require for takeoff after a HEAVY aircraft?

A

2 minutes

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12
Q

How many minutes of separation does a MEDIUM aircraft require for takeoff after a SUPER aircraft?

A

3 minutes

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13
Q

What is the distance separation for a MEDIUM aircraft from a HEAVY?

A

5 nm

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14
Q

What is the distance separation for a MEDIUM aircraft from a SUPER?

A

7 nm

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15
Q

If unable to attain an ATC clearance, and a deviation is required due to weather of greater than 5NM, how much should an aircraft climb or descend?

A

300 ft

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16
Q

If unable to attain a clearance, deviation in Oceanic airspace should be accomplished by turning how much, and offsetting by how much?

A

30° left or right, 5 nm offset.

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17
Q

Up to how many miles are aircraft allowed to deviate under SLOP?

A

2 nm

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18
Q

What is the maximum allowable altitude overshoot in RVSM airspace?

A

150 ft

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19
Q

What is the rainfall amount in the last 10 minutes, to be considered as HEAVY?

A

> 1.6 mm

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20
Q

What buffer is applied to a forecast when operating under RAWC, regardless of weather?

A

+/- 60 minutes

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21
Q

What buffer is applied to a forecast when assessing an Aerodrome as a takeoff alternate airport?

A

+/- 30 minutes

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22
Q

What is the latest height an aircraft should have intercepted the Vertical profile on a non-instrument approach?

A

1,000 ft RA

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23
Q

What is the time frame requirement for arriving at a Feeder Fix?

A

0 minutes late, 30 seconds early.

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24
Q

What is the time frame for exiting a holding pattern at a specific time?

A

0 minutes late, 1 minute early.

25
What is the maximum speed for a Cat C aircraft during the MISSED APPROACH?
240 kts
26
What is the speed range for a Cat C aircraft at the INITIAL approach point?
160 - 240 kts
27
What is the speed range for a Cat C aircraft at the FINAL approach point?
115 - 160 kts
28
What is the speed range for a Cat C aircraft at the THRESHOLD?
121 - 140 kts
29
What is the maximum speed for a Cat C aircraft whilst CIRCLING?
180 kts
30
What is the minimum obstacle clearance height for a Cat C aircraft whilst in the CIRCLING AREA?
400 ft
31
What is the preselected minimum manoeuvre margin prior to buffet? (Including AoB)
0.3 g (40° AoB)
32
What is the minimum cruise segment time considered by Trip Altitude?
1 minute
33
What is the altimeter tolerance when inflight in RVSM airspace?
+/- 200ft
34
What is the descent rate limit between 3,000 - 5,000ft AGL?
The current altitude in fpm.
35
What is the descent rate limit between 1,000 - 2,000ft AGL?
2,000 fpm
36
What is the descent rate limit below 1,000ft AGL?
1,000 fpm
37
What is the maximum speed in a hold up to and including FL140?
230 kts
38
What is the maximum speed in a hold above FL140 and including FL200?
240 kts
39
What is the maximum speed in a hold above FL200?
265 kts
40
What is the standard maximum time limit on the outbound leg of a holding pattern above FL140?
1.5 minutes
41
What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided on a missed approach?
100 ft
42
What is the minimum missed approach gradient?
2.5%
43
What is the maximum allowable offset for a Cat C aircraft for a straight-in NPA?
15°
44
What speed must a jet aircraft exit a holding pattern at in CTA?
250 kt
45
What is the severe turbulence penetration speed in the climb?
280 kt or 0.76M whichever is lower
46
What is the severe turbulence penetration speed during descent?
0.76M/280/250 kt whichever is lower
47
During an ATM takeoff, what deteriorations in weather will require a recalculation in OPT?
(i) Temperature - Increases by more than 1°C (ii) Tailwind - Any increase (iii) Headwind - Decreases by more than 4 kt (iv) QNH - Decreases by more than 1 hPa
48
When will the centre tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?
When the No. 1 tank is about half full
49
What is the fuel capacity in kilograms of the main tanks?
3915 Kg
50
What is the centre tank capacity in kilograms?
13,066 Kg
51
What is the minimum amount of fuel required in the centre tanks for the pumps to be allowed to be switched on?
453 Kg
52
What is the minimum oxygen tank pressure required for flight?
1,400 psi
53
What is the minimum engine oil quantity required for flight?
12 litres
54
When will the refill indication display for hydraulic quantity?
76%
55
What is the maximum pressure allowed for the hydraulic system?
3,500 psi
56
What are the Category B, C and D repair intervals for MELs?
B - 3 days C - 10 days D - 120 days
57
How long will the Speed Trim System (STS) be inhibited for if the pilot uses the electric trim switches?
5 seconds.
58
What is the margin applied to the Minimum Manoeuvre Speed bars?
1.3