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Boeing 737-800 > Numbers > Flashcards

Numbers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the EGT start limit?

A

725°C

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2
Q

Greater than what N2 % does the EEC become powered during start?

A

15%

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3
Q

What difference between the main tanks will the fuel IMBAL alert be activated?

A

More than 453 kg

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4
Q

Maximum cabin differential pressure?

A

9.1 psi

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5
Q

Within how many feet of airport elevation should an IFR altimeter read?

A

60 ft

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6
Q

Beyond how many feet from airport elevation is an IFR altimeter considered unserviceable?

A

75 ft

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7
Q

What is the speed tolerance to be maintained in CTA?

A

+/- 10 kt or +/- 0.02 Mach

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8
Q

When a position estimate changes by more than ….. the pilot must advise ATS.

A

2 minutes

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9
Q

The pilot-in-command must commence a change of level as soon as possible, but not later than ….. after receiving that instruction from ATC.

A

1 minute

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10
Q

What are the RVSM levels?

A

FL290 - FL410

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11
Q

How many minutes of separation does a MEDIUM aircraft require for takeoff after a HEAVY aircraft?

A

2 minutes

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12
Q

How many minutes of separation does a MEDIUM aircraft require for takeoff after a SUPER aircraft?

A

3 minutes

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13
Q

What is the distance separation for a MEDIUM aircraft from a HEAVY?

A

5 nm

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14
Q

What is the distance separation for a MEDIUM aircraft from a SUPER?

A

7 nm

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15
Q

If unable to attain an ATC clearance, and a deviation is required due to weather of greater than 5NM, how much should an aircraft climb or descend?

A

300 ft

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16
Q

If unable to attain a clearance, deviation in Oceanic airspace should be accomplished by turning how much, and offsetting by how much?

A

30° left or right, 5 nm offset.

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17
Q

Up to how many miles are aircraft allowed to deviate under SLOP?

A

2 nm

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18
Q

What is the maximum allowable altitude overshoot in RVSM airspace?

A

150 ft

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19
Q

What is the rainfall amount in the last 10 minutes, to be considered as HEAVY?

A

> 1.6 mm

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20
Q

What buffer is applied to a forecast when operating under RAWC, regardless of weather?

A

+/- 60 minutes

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21
Q

What buffer is applied to a forecast when assessing an Aerodrome as a takeoff alternate airport?

A

+/- 30 minutes

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22
Q

What is the latest height an aircraft should have intercepted the Vertical profile on a non-instrument approach?

A

1,000 ft RA

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23
Q

What is the time frame requirement for arriving at a Feeder Fix?

A

0 minutes late, 30 seconds early.

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24
Q

What is the time frame for exiting a holding pattern at a specific time?

A

0 minutes late, 1 minute early.

25
Q

What is the maximum speed for a Cat C aircraft during the MISSED APPROACH?

A

240 kts

26
Q

What is the speed range for a Cat C aircraft at the INITIAL approach point?

A

160 - 240 kts

27
Q

What is the speed range for a Cat C aircraft at the FINAL approach point?

A

115 - 160 kts

28
Q

What is the speed range for a Cat C aircraft at the THRESHOLD?

A

121 - 140 kts

29
Q

What is the maximum speed for a Cat C aircraft whilst CIRCLING?

A

180 kts

30
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance height for a Cat C aircraft whilst in the CIRCLING AREA?

A

400 ft

31
Q

What is the preselected minimum manoeuvre margin prior to buffet? (Including AoB)

A

0.3 g (40° AoB)

32
Q

What is the minimum cruise segment time considered by Trip Altitude?

A

1 minute

33
Q

What is the altimeter tolerance when inflight in RVSM airspace?

A

+/- 200ft

34
Q

What is the descent rate limit between 3,000 - 5,000ft AGL?

A

The current altitude in fpm.

35
Q

What is the descent rate limit between 1,000 - 2,000ft AGL?

A

2,000 fpm

36
Q

What is the descent rate limit below 1,000ft AGL?

A

1,000 fpm

37
Q

What is the maximum speed in a hold up to and including FL140?

A

230 kts

38
Q

What is the maximum speed in a hold above FL140 and including FL200?

A

240 kts

39
Q

What is the maximum speed in a hold above FL200?

A

265 kts

40
Q

What is the standard maximum time limit on the outbound leg of a holding pattern above FL140?

A

1.5 minutes

41
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided on a missed approach?

A

100 ft

42
Q

What is the minimum missed approach gradient?

A

2.5%

43
Q

What is the maximum allowable offset for a Cat C aircraft for a straight-in NPA?

A

15°

44
Q

What speed must a jet aircraft exit a holding pattern at in CTA?

A

250 kt

45
Q

What is the severe turbulence penetration speed in the climb?

A

280 kt or 0.76M whichever is lower

46
Q

What is the severe turbulence penetration speed during descent?

A

0.76M/280/250 kt whichever is lower

47
Q

During an ATM takeoff, what deteriorations in weather will require a recalculation in OPT?

A

(i) Temperature - Increases by more than 1°C
(ii) Tailwind - Any increase
(iii) Headwind - Decreases by more than 4 kt
(iv) QNH - Decreases by more than 1 hPa

48
Q

When will the centre tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?

A

When the No. 1 tank is about half full

49
Q

What is the fuel capacity in kilograms of the main tanks?

A

3915 Kg

50
Q

What is the centre tank capacity in kilograms?

A

13,066 Kg

51
Q

What is the minimum amount of fuel required in the centre tanks for the pumps to be allowed to be switched on?

A

453 Kg

52
Q

What is the minimum oxygen tank pressure required for flight?

A

1,400 psi

53
Q

What is the minimum engine oil quantity required for flight?

A

12 litres

54
Q

When will the refill indication display for hydraulic quantity?

A

76%

55
Q

What is the maximum pressure allowed for the hydraulic system?

A

3,500 psi

56
Q

What are the Category B, C and D repair intervals for MELs?

A

B - 3 days
C - 10 days
D - 120 days

57
Q

How long will the Speed Trim System (STS) be inhibited for if the pilot uses the electric trim switches?

A

5 seconds.

58
Q

What is the margin applied to the Minimum Manoeuvre Speed bars?

A

1.3

Boeing 737-800 (17 decks)

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