TUMOR MARKERS, TDM, & TOXICOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Tumor type : liver
Tumor marker : ?

A

AFP

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2
Q

Also increased in germ cell tumors

A

AFP

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3
Q

Tumor type : Colorectal
Tumor marker : ?

A

CEA

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4
Q

Tumor type : Ovarian
Tumor marker : ?

A

CA-125

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5
Q

Tumor type : GASTRIC
Tumor marker : ?

A

CA 72-4

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6
Q

Also increased in colorectal cancer

A

CA 72-4

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7
Q

Tumor type : pancreatic
Tumor marker : ?

A

CA 19-9

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8
Q

Also related to Lewis blood group antigens ; also increased in gastric and colorectal cancers

A

CA 19-9 pancreatic

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9
Q

Tumor type : breast
Tumor marker : ?

A

CA 15-3, 27.29
ER, PR, HER-2 / neu

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10
Q

Used to monitor therapy and detect recurrence

A

CA 15-3, 27.29

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11
Q

Prognostic and hormonal therapy indicator ; detected in biopsy specimens using immunohistochemistry

A

ER, PR, HER-2/neu

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12
Q

Tumor type : prostate
Tumor marker : ?

A

PSA

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13
Q

Used for prostate cancer screening in combination with DRE

A

PSA

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14
Q

Tumor type : NEUROENDOCRINE TUMORS
Tumor marker : ?

A

NEURON-SPECIFIC ENOLASE

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15
Q

Prognostic indicator and monitoring progression

A

NEURON-SPECIFIC ENOLASE

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16
Q

Tumor type : Lung
Tumor marker : ?

A

CYFRA 21-1

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17
Q

Subunit of cytokeratin fragment expressed in simple epithelia

A

CYFRA 21-1

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18
Q

Tumor type : URINARY BLADDER
Tumor marker : ?

A

NUCLEAR MATRIX PROTEIN

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19
Q

Oncogene -encoded protein

A

Nuclear matrix protein

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20
Q

Tumor type : thyroid
Tumor marker : ?

A

Thyroglobulin

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21
Q

Increased in other thyroid diseases

A

Thyroglobulin

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22
Q

Major source of thyroglobulin assay interference

A

Anti-thyroglobulin antibody

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23
Q

Tumor type : medullary thyroid
Tumor marker : ?

A

calcitonin

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24
Q

Screening, response to therapy, and monitoring recurrence

A

Calcitonin

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25
Q

Tumor type : ovarian, testicular
Tumor marker : ?

A

B-hCG

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26
Q

Also increased in gestational trophoblastic diseases e.g. choriocarcinoma, hydatidiform mole, GI neoplasia

A

B-hCG

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27
Q

Tumor type : NEUROBLASTOMA
Tumor marker : ?

A

Homovanillic acid (HVA) , vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

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28
Q

Determined on 24 hr urine using HPLC

A

HVA, VMA

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29
Q

Tumor type : PHAEOCHROMOCYTOMA
Tumor marker : ?

A

Metanephrine, normetanephrine

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30
Q

Determined on 24 hr urine or plasma using HPLC

A

Metanephrine , normetanephrine

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31
Q

Highest point ; amount of drug absorbed and distributed is greater than the amount metabolized and excreted

A

Peak

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32
Q

Lowest concentration achieved just before the next dose

A

Trough

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33
Q

Time required for the concentration of the drug to decrease by half

A

Half-life

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34
Q

Amount of drug absorbed and distributed equals amount metabolized and excreted ; usually reached after 5-7 half-lives

A

Steady state

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35
Q

Lowest concentration of drug in the blood that will produce adverse response

A

MINIMUM TOXIC CONCENTRATION (MTC)

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36
Q

Lowest concentration of drug in the blood that will produce desired effect

A

Minimum effective concentration

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37
Q

Range of values between the MEC and MTC that produce therapeutic effect

A

Therapeutic range

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38
Q

Drug dose that produces beneficial effect in 50% of the population

A

ED50 (EFFECTIVE)

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39
Q

Drug dose tat produces adverse effects in 50% of the population

A

TD50 (TOXIC)

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40
Q

Drug dose that produces death in 50% of the population

A

LD50 (LETHAL)

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41
Q

THERAPEUTIC INDEX

A

RATIO OF ED50 TO TD50

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42
Q

Used as a semi-quantitative screening test ; interpretation of results utilizes Rf values of solutes in complains to aqueous standards

A

Thin-layer chromatography

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43
Q

Distance migrated by a sample component / distance migrated by the solvent

A

Rf

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44
Q

For insufficiently volatile and thermolabile compounds

A

Liquid chromatography

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45
Q

Type of liquid chromatography where the mobile phase is a liquid that is passed over the stationary phase of the column

A

HPLC

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46
Q

Polar stationary phase and nonpolar mobile phase

A

Normal-phase LC

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47
Q

Nonpolar stationary phase and polar mobile phase

A

Reverse-phase LC

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48
Q

Useful for compounds that are naturally volatile or can easily be converted into a volatile form (various organic molecules including many drugs)

A

Gas chromatography

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49
Q

Time it takes for a compound to elude l used as basis for identification of a solute

A

Retention time (tr)

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50
Q

Proportional to the amount of solute present ; see for quantification

A

Peak area/height

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51
Q

Common detector system in GC or HPLC ; produces a signal for identification and quantification of the solutes

A

Mass spectrometry

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52
Q

Uses microparticles as solid phase, an enzyme label, and fluorogenic substrate

A

Micro particle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

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53
Q

A homogenous assay in which the activity of an enzyme as a label is inhibited by the binding of antibody to antigen conjugated with enzyme

A

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT)

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54
Q

Uses polarized light to excite a fluorescent label ; rat of rotation is inversely proportional to the degree of polarization and analyte concentration

A

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

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55
Q

Drug activity or fate of drugs in the body

A

PHARMACOKINETICS

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56
Q

PHARMACOKINETICS is influence by the

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism

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57
Q

Through the GI tract for orally administered drugs ; dependent on many factors and is related to the drug’s bioavailability

A

Absorption

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58
Q

Amount of drug absorbed relative to the quantity given ; affected by firs-pass metabolism, which reflects the activity of metabolic enzymes, in the intestine and liver

A

Bioavailability

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59
Q

Diffusion out of the vasculature into interstitial ad intracellular spaces ; dependent on the lipid solubility of the drug

A

Distribution

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60
Q

Hepatic uptake and enzymatic bio transformation in the hepatic microsomes via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system

A

METABOLISM

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61
Q

Elimination through hepatic or renal clearance or a combination of the two

A

Excretion

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62
Q

Biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and the mechanisms of their actions ; involves receptor binding, post receptor effects and chemical interactions

A

Pharmacodynamics

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63
Q

TDM SPECIMEN CONSIDERATIONS

_____ must be established before sampling

A

Steady sate

64
Q

TDM SPECIMEN CONSIDERATIONS

______ when toxicity is suspected

A

STAT Sampling

65
Q

TDM SPECIMEN CONSIDERATIONS

_______ before the next dose is administered

A

Trough specimen

66
Q

TDM SPECIMEN CONSIDERATIONS

1 hour after oral administration ; 0.5 hour after completion of IV administration

A

Peak specimen

67
Q

Specimen preferred for most drug assays

68
Q

Suitable for most drugs lithium and free drug assays

A

Heparinized plasma

69
Q

May falsely decreased TCAs and anti-arrythmics

70
Q

Appropriate for immunosuppressants

71
Q

Recommended for the impedance method of aspirin determination

72
Q

A cardiac glycoside used to treat congestive heart failure ; inhibits sodium, potassium ATPase, causing decrease in intracellular potassium and increase in intracellular calcium resulting in improved contraction of cardiac muscle

73
Q

Used to treat tachyarrhthymias

A

Antiarrhythmics

74
Q

Cardioadictive drugs classes I-IV

A

Sodium channel blockers
Beta blockers
Potassium channel blockers
Calcium channel blockers

“So Be It Pota Ca”

75
Q

Cardioadictive drug class I

A

Lidocaine, quinidine, disopyramide, procainamide

76
Q

Cardioadictive drug class II

A

Propanolol

77
Q

Cardioadictive drug class III

A

Amiodarone

78
Q

Cardioadictive drug class IV

79
Q

Metabolized to monoethylglycinexylidide (MEGX), which enhances toxicity

80
Q

Metabolized to N-acetylprocainamide (NAPA) which exhibits the same physiologic effect as the parent drug

A

Procainamide

81
Q

First generation (classical) anticonvulsants

A

Phenobarbital
Benzodiazepines
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Carbamazepine (tegretol)
Ethosuximide
Valproic acid (Depakote)

82
Q

First generation anticonvulsants used to treat granola or tonic-clonic seizure

A

Phenobarbital
Benzodiazepines
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine

83
Q

Inactive form of phenobarbital

84
Q

New generation anticonvulsants

A

Tiagabine, vigbatrin, gabapentin, topiramate, felbamate

85
Q

BRONCHODILATOR (B-andrenergic agonists) : used to treat asthma and COPDs

A

Theophylline

86
Q

BRONCHODILATOR (B-andrenergic agonists) :
Minor metabolite of theophylline ; treatment of neonatal apnea

87
Q

PSYCHOACTIVE DRUG : Major tranquilizers used to treat schizophrenia

A

Neuroleptics

88
Q

Neuroleptics:

A

Phenothiazines — chlorpromazine
Butyrophenones — haloperidol (Haldol)

89
Q

PSYCHOACTIVE DRUG : antimanic drug ; used to treat bipolar disorder/ manic depressive disorder

90
Q

PSYCHOACTIVE DRUG : used to treat clinical depression (major depressive disorder)

A

ANTIDEPRESSANT

91
Q

ANTIBIOTICS : used to treat gram negative infection by inhibiting protein synthesis ; toxic effects include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity (Deafness)

A

Aminoglycosides

92
Q

Antibiotic used to treat gram positive infection ; may cause erythemic flushing of extremities called REDMAN SYNDROME

A

VANCOMYCIN

93
Q

Used to prevent graft-versus-host disease

A

Immunosuppressant

94
Q

Immunosuppressant : block T lymphocyte function

A

Calcineurin inhibitors

95
Q

Immunosuppressant (Calcineurin inhibitors) : fat-soluble cyclical peptide isolated from Trichoderma

A

Cyclosporine

96
Q

Immunosuppressant (Calcineurin inhibitors) : macrolide lactone isolated from Streptomyces ; 100x more potent than cyclosporine (administered in much lower doses) ; associated with thrombus formation in patients with toxic levels

A

Tacrolimus

97
Q

Immunosuppressant : sirolimus (rapamycin), everolimus, mycophenolate, leflunomide

A

Proliferation signal inhibitors

98
Q

ANTINEOPLASTIC : Inhibits DNA synthesis ; requires administration of LEUCOVORIN

A

Methotrexate

99
Q

To rescue host cells from methotrexate inhibition

A

Leucovorin

100
Q

ANTINEOPLASTIC : alkylating agent used to treat leukemias and lymphomas before bone marrow transplantation

101
Q

Associated with a single, short-term exposure to a substance, the dose oof which is sufficient to cause immediate toxic effects

A

Acute toxicity

102
Q

Results from repeated frequent exposure for extended periods at doses insufficient to cause an immediate response l may affect different systems

A

Chronic toxicity

103
Q

Used as an analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory ; exhibits antiplatelet activity through inhibition of clyclooxgenase ; toxic effects include mixed acid base disorders, Reye syndrome

A

Acetylsalicylate (Aspirin)

104
Q

Preferred over aspirin inhibitors patients with a bleeding disorder ; toxic effect hepatotoxicity

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

105
Q

Domapinergic pathway stimulants : local anesthetic ; primary metabolite ______ ; short half life of _______

A

Cocaine ; benzoylecgonine ; 1-2 hours (05.-1 hr)

106
Q

Domapinergic pathway stimulants : used to treat narcolepsy

A

Amphetamines (methamphetamine)

107
Q

Domapinergic pathway stimulants : euphoria-producing synthetic phenylethylamines

A

Designer drugs

108
Q

Domapinergic pathway stimulants : MDMA

109
Q

DEPRESSANTS :

A

SEDATIVE/HYPNOTICS
OPIATES/NARCOTICS

110
Q

SEDATIVE / HYPNOTICS

A

BARBITURATES
BENZODIAZEPINES
METHAQUALONE (QUAALUDE)

111
Q

Not structurally similar to but has many of the properties of barbiturates

A

METHAQUALONE

112
Q

Depressant used for sedation, analgesia, and anesthesia

A

Opiates/narcotics

113
Q

Opium, morphine, and codeine

A

Naturally occurring narcotics

114
Q

Heroin, hydyromorphone (Dilaudid), and oxycodone (percodan)

A

Chemically modified narcotics

115
Q

Hallucinogens/psychedelics : primary cannabinoid component

A

tetrahydrocannabinol

116
Q

Hallucinogens/psychedelics :
Major urinary metabolite of cannabis saliva

A

tetrahydrocannabinol carboxylic acid

117
Q

Hallucinogens/psychedelics : structurally similar to serotonin l acts as serotonin agonist l produces panic reactions and undulating vision

A

Lysergic acid diethylamide

118
Q

Hallucinogens/psychedelics : structurally similar to serotonin l acts as serotonin agonist l produces panic reactions and undulating vision

A

Lysergic acid diethylamide

119
Q

Hallucinogens/psychedelics : angel dust or angel hair

A

Phencyclidine

120
Q

Hallucinogens/psychedelics : a tricyclic compound with varied actions and paradoxical symptoms in pediatric medicine

A

Phencyclidine

121
Q

Hallucinogens/psychedelics : commonly used as an anesthetic for short surgical procedures

122
Q

Miscellaneous classes : derivatives of serotonin with hallucinogenic properties e.g. dimethyltryptamine and psilocin/psilocybin

A

Tryptamines

123
Q

Miscellaneous classes : produce effects similar to to hose of the amphetamines

A

Piperazines

124
Q

Miscellaneous classes : psychoactive designer drugs that produce amphetamine-or cocaine-like effects ; causes false positive methamphetamine screening result

A

Synthetic cathinones (bath salts)

125
Q

Miscellaneous classes : non-benzodiazepine agents

A

Sleep aids

126
Q

Miscellaneous classes : CNS depressant used in pain management

A

Muscle relaxants

127
Q

Most commonly abused substance in the world l chronic exposure is associated with toxic hepatitis and cirrhosis

128
Q

Blood alcohol legal intoxication (% w/v)

129
Q

BAC (w/v%) : 0.01-0.05
Level of impairment : no obvious impairment
Influence : ?

A

Subclinical

130
Q

BAC (w/v%) : 0.03-0.12
Level of impairment : mild euphoria ; some impairment of motor skills
Influence : ?

131
Q

BAC (w/v%) : 0.09-0.25
Level of impairment : loss of critical judgment ; memory impairment
Influence : ?

A

Excitement

132
Q

BAC (w/v%) : 0.18-0.30
Level of impairment : mental confusion ; strongly impaired motor skills
Influence : ?

133
Q

BAC (w/v%) : 0.27-0.40
Level of impairment : impaired consciousness
Influence : ?

134
Q

BAC (w/v%) : 0.35-0.50
Level of impairment : complete unconsciousness ; deep, possibly fatal, coma
Influence : ?

135
Q

BAC (w/v%) : >0.45
Level of impairment : respiratory arrest
Influence : ?

136
Q

Reference method for ethanol

A

Gas-liquid chromatography

137
Q

Most commonly used / effective screening test for ethanol

A

Osmometry / osmolal gap

138
Q

Causes acidosis, blindness, and death due to formation of formaldehyde and formic acid

139
Q

Produces severe acute ethanol-like symptoms that persist for a long period of time

A

Isopropanol

140
Q

Ingestion produces severe metabolic acidosis and renal tubular damage

A

Ethylene glycol

141
Q

245x greater affinity for Hb compared to oxygen ; shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left (hypoxia)

A

Carbon monoxide

142
Q

Commonly used as rodenticide/insecticided ; characteristic odor of BITTER ALMONDS ; binds to heme iron and mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation and causing cellular hypoxia

143
Q

Aspiration is associated with pulmonary edema and shock, which can rapidly progress to death ; ingestion causes metabolic acidosis or alkalosis and may produce lesions or perforations in the esophagus and GI tract resulting in hematemesis abdominal pain and possibly shock

A

Caustic agent

144
Q

Component of insecticides, pesticides, herbicides ; high affinity for KERATIN, binds to sulfhydril groups of proteins ; characterized by GARLIC BREATH odor and metallic taste ; associated with transverse WHIITE STRIATIONS in the nail beds called MEES LINE S

145
Q

Metal food container or industrial exposure ; may cause RENAL TUBULAR DAMAGE

146
Q

Inhibits many enzymes and affects vitamin D metabolism and heme synthesis pathway

147
Q

Enzymes inhibited in the heme synthesis pathway

A

ALA dehydrates / PBG synthase
Ferrochelatase / heme synthase

148
Q

Inhibition of ALA dehydrates / PBG synthase causes high ____

A

Delta-aminolevulinic acid in urine

149
Q

Inhibition of Ferrochelatase / heme synthase causes high ____

A

Free erythrocyte protoprophyrin

150
Q

Acquired through inhalation, ingestion ; may also cause renal tubular damage

151
Q

Metallic form of mercury ; liquid at room temperature ; nontoxic

152
Q

Mercurous and mercuric forms ; moderately toxic

A

Cationic / inorganic

153
Q

Alkyl, Aryl, and alkoxyalkyl forms ; environmental pollutants ; extremely toxic

154
Q

Most toxic organic mercury because of their lipophilic nature that can easily cross membranes

A

Alkyl (methyl mercury)

155
Q

Condition associated with methyl mercury

A

Minamata disease

156
Q

Condition associated with methyl mercury

A

Minamata disease