CARBOHYDRATES Flashcards

1
Q

Aldoses

A

All except fructose (ketose)

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2
Q

Ketose

A

Fructose

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3
Q

Hexoses

A

D-glucose
D-galactose
D-fructose

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4
Q

Only L enantiomer CHO and a Pentose

A

L-Ribose

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5
Q

Tetrose

A

D-erythrose

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6
Q

Triose

A

D-glyceraldehyde

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7
Q

non reducing sugar (no hemiacetal group)

A

Sucrose

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8
Q

Order of Hormonal regulation of glucose metabolism

A

1) cellar uptake
2) glycolysis
3)glycogenesis
4) lipogenesis

5) glycogenolysis
6) gluconeogenesis
7) lipolysis

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9
Q

Product of aerobic glycolysis

A

Pyruvate

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10
Q

Product of anaerobic glycolysis

A

Lactate

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11
Q

Insulin promotes

A

Cellular uptake
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
Lipogenesis

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12
Q

Insulin inhibits

A

Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Lipolysis

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13
Q

Glucagon promotes

A

Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis

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14
Q

TCA cycle happens in what intracellular organ

A

Mitochondria

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15
Q

Effect of insulin to plasma glucose level

A

Decreased

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16
Q

Effect of glucagon on plasma glucose

A

Increased

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17
Q

Main regulators of glucose metabolism

A

Insulin and glucagon

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18
Q

Source of insulin in the body

A

Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the PANCREAS

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19
Q

Source of glucagon in the body

A

Alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans in the PANCREAS

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20
Q

Source of somatostatin in the body

A

Delta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the PANCREAS

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21
Q

Source of cortisol

A

Adrenal cortex

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22
Q

Source of epinephrine

A

Adrenal medulla

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23
Q

Source of ACTH and Growth hormone

A

Anterior pituitary gland

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24
Q

Thyroxine source

A

Thyroid

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25
Q

Human plancetal lactogen source

A

Placenta

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26
Q

Effects of cortisol, epinephrine, ACTH, GH, Thyroxine, hPL on plasma glucose

A

Increased

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27
Q

Paracrine regulation of insulin and glucagon secretion

A

Somatostatin

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28
Q

Promotes gluconeogenesis and lipolysis

A

Cortisol

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29
Q

Promotes glycogenolysis and lipolysis

A

Epinephrine

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30
Q

Promotes cortisol secretion, gluconeogenesis, and glycogenolysis

A

ACTH

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31
Q

Inhibits cellular uptake and glycolysis ; insulin antagonist

A

Growth hormone

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32
Q

Promotes intestinal absorption of glucose, gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

A

Thyroxine

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33
Q

Homologous to growth hormone (insulin antagonist)

A

Human placental lactogen (hPL)

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34
Q

Hypoglycemic disorder that occurs after 10 hours without food ; secondary to hyperinsulinism (insulinoma), hormonal deficiencies, genetic disorders, autoimmunity or drug induced

A

Post-absorptive/fasting

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35
Q

Hypoglycemic disorder that occurs usually 4 hours after eating a meal

A

Post-prandial/alimentary/reactive

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36
Q

Hypoglycemia symptoms begin to appear at plasma glucose level between

A

50-55 mg/dL

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37
Q

Hypoglycemic symptoms that include tremulous, palpitations, anxiety, diaphoresis, hunger and paarasthesias ; related to autonomic nervous system ; predominates in reactive hypoglycemia

A

Neurogenic

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38
Q

Hypoglycemic symptoms that include dizziness, tingling, blurred vision, behavioral changes, seizure, and coma ; common in fasting ; decrease glucose in the brain

A

Neuroglycopenic

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39
Q

Panic value for hypoglycemia

A

40 and below mg/dL

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40
Q

A true manifestation of hypoglycemia presents with a triad of symptoms called

A

Whipple’s triad :

1) symptoms of hypoglycemia
2) low plasma glucose level (50 mg/dL and below)
3) relief of symptoms following glucose administration

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41
Q

Diagnostic criteria for insulinoma

A

Change in glucose level 25 mg/dL or below (degree of decrease from baseline) in coincident with INCREASED insulin, pro insulin, C-peptide, and DECREASED BHA (beta-hydroxy butyric acid)

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42
Q

Endogenous Hyperinsulinism - pancreatic tumor cells produce insulin

A

Insulinoma

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43
Q

Administration of excess dose of insulin

A

Exogenous hyperinsulinism

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44
Q

Insulin is increased together with proinsulin and C-peptide

A

Endogenous hyperinsulinism (insulinoma)

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45
Q

Increased insulin ; normal proinsulin and C-peptide

A

Exogenous hyperinsulinism (excess dose of insulin)

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46
Q

A marker of type I DM

A

C-peptide (decreased or negative)

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47
Q

Fragments released from the cleavage of proinsulin

A

C-peptide and Insulin

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48
Q

Fragments released from the cleavage of proinsulin (resembles letter C)

A

C-peptide

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49
Q

Most abundant ketone bodies (78%)

A

Beta-hydroxybutyrate / beta-hydroxybutyric acid

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50
Q

Decreased /negative insulin, proinsulin, c-peptide, and increased beta-hydroxybutyrate

A

Type I DM

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51
Q

Beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency

A

Type I DM

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52
Q

Type I DM positive for autoantibodies

A

Immune-mediated Type I DM

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53
Q

Type I DM of unknown cause/etiology (negative for autoantibodies)

A

Idiopathic Type I DM

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54
Q

Approximately 99% of cases of type I DM are?

A

Positive for auto-antibodies (immune-mediated)

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55
Q

Insulin RESISTANCE with progressive insulin deficiency ; Initially, insulin production is normal, but the cells do not respond to it properly, which eventually leads the pancreas to stop secreting insulin ; chronic hyperglycemia is pancreatotoxic causing insulin deficiency

A

Type II DM

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56
Q

Other types of DM : Genetic defects of B cell function

A

Type IIIa

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57
Q

Other types of DM : Genetic defects in insulin action

A

Type IIIb

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58
Q

Other types of DM : diseases of the EXOCRINE PANCREAS (pancreatitis, pancreatomy, pancreatic cancer/neoplasia, CYSTIC FIBROSIS, hemochromatosis, fibrocalculous pancreatic atty

A

Type IIIc

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59
Q

Other types of DM : endocrinopathies / hormonal distortions

A

Type IIId

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60
Q

Other types of DM : drug- or chemical-induced

A

Type IIIe

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61
Q

Other types of DM : infections

A

Type IIIf

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62
Q

Other types of DM : uncommon forms of immune-mediated diabetes

A

Type IIIg

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63
Q

Other types of DM : other diabetes-related genetic syndromes

A

Type IIIh

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64
Q

Type of DM characterized by glucose intolerance during pregnancy ; major risk factor for type 2 DM

A

Gestational diabetes

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65
Q

Gestational diabetes may convert to type __ DM in 30-40% of cases within 10 years

A

Type 2 DM

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66
Q

DM type : Comprises less than 10% of cases

A

Type 1 DM

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67
Q

DM type : comprises more than 90% of cases; more common in women than in men

A

Type 2

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68
Q

DM type : childhood or juvenile onset

A

Type 1 DM

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69
Q

DM type : onset is during adulthood

70
Q

DM type : autoimmunity (+ autoantibodies) and genetic predisposition/likelihood to inherit HLA-DR3/DR4

71
Q

BMI of 25 kg/m^2 and above

A

Overweight / obese

72
Q

BMI of 30 kg/m^2 and above

73
Q

Hypertension blood pressure

74
Q

Dyslipidemia (HDL____ ; TG____)

A

Less than or equal to 35 mg/dL ; greater than or equal to 250 mg/dL

75
Q

Type 2 DM risk factors (3)

A

Genetic factors
Conditions characterized byInsulin resistance
Conditions related to metabolic syndrome or obesity

76
Q

DM type : requires insulin injection

77
Q

DM type : therapy involves lifestyle changes, oral hypoglycemic agents ; may require insulin

78
Q

Acute complications among type 1 DM patients

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (High BHA)

79
Q

Acute complications in type 2 DM ; associated plasma glucose level exceeding 1000 mg/dL

A

Hyperglycemic hyperosomolar non-ketotic coma

80
Q

Panic value for hyperglycemia

A

Greater than or equal to 500 mg/dL

81
Q

Lab findings in both type 1 and 2 DM

A

Increased plasma glucose, plasma osmolarity, urine glucose, urine SG, anion gap, and osmolal gap

Low pH and sodium

82
Q

DM symptoms (3Ps)

A

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia ; pruritis, poor wound healing

83
Q

Long term complications (Microvascular complications) :

A

Nephropathy, retinopathy, neuropathy,

84
Q

Earliest indicator of nephropathy

A

Microalbuminuria

85
Q

Long term complications (Macrovascular complications) :

A

Coronary artery diseases (MI)
Cerebral vascular accident (stroke)

86
Q

Screening for DM: all adults 45 years old and above must be screened every _____

87
Q

Screening for DM: individuals with 1 or more risk factors must be screened every ____ at a younger age

A

Year (annual screening)

88
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for DM:

Random plasma glucose must be in conjunction with _______

A

Symptoms of DM (3Ps) - polydipsia, polyphagia, polyuria

89
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for DM:

Requires fasting for at least 8 hours ; most preferred diagnostic test

A

Fasting plasma glucose

90
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for DM:

In 2h PG (OGTT), the patient must be on a normal to high carbohydrate intake of at least ____ grams per day for __ days prior to the test ; patient must fast ____ hours before the test

A

150 grams or more ; 3 days ; 8-14 hours

91
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for DM:

2h PG (OGTT) : the first component of routine OGTT for non pregnant adults ; second component of OGTT

A

Fasting plasma glucose ; administration of standard glucose load of 75 grams or 1.75 grams/kg Body weight

92
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for DM:

Not affected by fasting ; sample must be ___

A

HbA1C ; EDTA whole blood

93
Q

NORMAL cut off value : RPG

A

<200 mg/dL

94
Q

NORMAL cut off value : FPG

A

<100 mg/dL

95
Q

NORMAL cut off value : 2h PG (OGTT)

A

<140 mg/dL

96
Q

PRE-DM cut off value : FPG

A

100-125 mg/dL

97
Q

PRE-DM cut off value : 2h PG (OGTT)

A

140-199 mg/dL

98
Q

PRE-DM cut off value : HbA1c

A

5.7 - 6.4%

99
Q

DM cut off value : RPG

A

200 mg/dL and above

100
Q

DM cut off value : FPG

A

126 mg/dL and above

101
Q

DM cut off value : 2h PG (OGTT)

A

200 mg/dL or greater

102
Q

DM cut off value : HbA1c

A

6.5% or greater

103
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for GDM :

Test for high risk women ; glucose load of __

A

One step method or 2h OGTT ; 75 grams

104
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for GDM :

ONE STEP METHOD Cut off value :

FPG ___
1h PG ___
2h PG ___

A

92 mg/dL or greater
180 mg/dL or greater
153 mg/dL or greater

105
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for GDM :

Screening test ; fasting is not required ; glucose load of ___

A

Two-step method : 1h OGTT ; 50 grams

106
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for GDM :

TWO STEP METHOD (1h OGTT) Cut off value :

A

140 mg/dL and above

107
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for GDM :

TWO STEP METHOD : Requires fasting ; glucose load ____

A

3h OGTT ; 100 grams

108
Q

Test and diagnostic criteria for GDM :

TWO STEP METHOD (3h OGTT) Cut off value :

FPG ___
1h PG ___
2h PG ___
3h PG ___

A

95 mg/dL or greater
180 mg/dL or greater
155 mg/dL or greater
140 mg/dL or greater

109
Q

GDM is established in Two-step method, if any __ of the cut off values are met or exceeded

110
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

______ is most commonly analyzed using POCT devices at home or at the patient’s bedside ; collected _ to __ times daily for type 1 DM patients according to ADA guidelines

About __ to __ % lower than plasma glucose

A

Whole blood ; 3-4 times daily ; 10-15%

111
Q

WHOLE BLOOD ADA glycemic goal (Pre-prandial)

A

70-30 mg/dL

112
Q

WHOLE BLOOD ADA glycemic goal (Post-prandial)

A

180 mg/dL or greater

113
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

Hb A with glucose IRREVERSIBLY attached to one or both N-terminal valines of the B-chains

A

Glycated hemoglobin / HbA1c

114
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

HbA1c provides an index of average blood glucose levels over the past __ to __ months

A

2 to 3 months

115
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

HbA1c is unreliable in patients with ______

A

Hemolytic disorders

116
Q

HbA1c ADA glycemic goal

117
Q

HbA1c poor control

118
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

Glycosylated albumin ; used to assess glycemic control over the past __ to __ weeks in cases when HbA1c is unreliable

A

Fructosamine ; 2-3 weeks

119
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

Fructosamine has the advantage of using SERUM samples but is unreliable when serum albumin is _____ mg/dL

A

3 mg/dL or less

120
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

Fructosamine reference range

A

205-285 mg/dL

121
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

Early indicator of diabetic nephropathy

A

Microalbuminuria

122
Q

TEST FOR MONITORING GLYCEMIC CONTROL :

Microalbuminuria is a persistent albuminuria in two out of three urine collections of _____ ug/min, _____ mg/24h, or an albumin-creatinine ratio of ______ ug/mg or 3.5-30 mg/mmol within a 3- to 6- month period

A

Albumin excretion rate:

20-200 ug/min
30-300 mg/24

Albumin-creatinine ratio:

30-300 ug/mg

123
Q

For glucose measurement, use sodium fluoride or SST to prevent glycolysis. Otherwise, glycolysis will take place at a rate of

A

2 mg/dL / hour @ 4C
7 mg/dL / hour @ RT

124
Q

Effect of 10% contamination with 5 dextrose in glucose measurement

A

Plasma glucose will increase by 500 mg/dL

125
Q

Common initial reaction in copper reduction

A

BENEDICT’S RXN:

Cupric ions from copper sulfate are reduced to cuprous ions by glucose in the presence of heat and alkaline environment

126
Q

A nonspecific test for glucose ; subject to falsely increased result due to the presence of other reducing agents

A

Copper reduction

127
Q

Copper reduction methods : redox is observed

A

Folin-Wu and Nelson-Somogyi

128
Q

Copper reduction method:

Cu+ + Phosphomolybdic acid —> phosphomolybdenum

A

Folin-Wu

Pho(s) = Fo

129
Q

Copper reduction method:

Cu+ = arsenomolybdic acid —> arsenomolybdenum

A

Nelson-Somogyi

(Arse)N(o) = Nelson

130
Q

Copper reduction method:

Color of phosphomolybdenum and arsenomoybdenum

131
Q

Copper reduction method:

Color of free neocuproine and Cu-neocuproine

A

Colorless ; yellow-orange

132
Q

Involves inverse colorimetry (colored reactant becomes colorless when reduced by glucose) ; AKA Hagedorn-Jensen method

A

Ferric reduction

133
Q

Ferric reduction :

Color ferricyanide and ferrocynide

A

Yellow-orange ; colorless

134
Q

More specific than copper and ferric reduction ; AKA Dubowski method

A

Condensation

135
Q

Glucose + o-Toluidine —> Schiff’s base

A

Condensation

136
Q

Condensation :

Color of Schiff’s base

137
Q

Component of the reagent mixture that converts Alpha-D-glucose (35% in the plasma) to Beta-D-glucose (65%)

A

Mutarotase

138
Q

Oxidizing agent used in Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction

A

H2O2 - hydrogen peroxide

139
Q

Oxidizing agent used in Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction

A

H2O2 - hydrogen peroxide

140
Q

Chromogen used in Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction

A

4-aminophenazone / 4-aminoantipyrene

141
Q

Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction : oxidized chromogen

A

Quinoneimine

142
Q

Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction : color of quinoneimine

A

Red / red-purple

143
Q

Glucose oxidase method : subject to many interferences

A

POD-coupled/Trinder reaction

144
Q

Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction :

effect of strong oxidizing agents

A

Falsely increased

145
Q

Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction :

Effect of reducing agents (ascorbic acid, keto acids, drug metabolites)

A

Falsely decreased

146
Q

Peroxidase-coupled/Trinder reaction : major interferent

A

Ascorbic acid

147
Q

Glucose oxidase method :

Measurement of the degree of oxygen consumption using a pO2 (Clark) electrode ; requires addition of molybdate and iodide or catalase and ethanol to prevent reformation of O2

A

Polarographic

148
Q

Possible source of error in polarographic method

A

Reformation of oxygen

149
Q

Reformation of oxygen in polagrophic method is prevented by the addition of?

A

Molybdate and iodide / catalase and ethanol

“MICE”

150
Q

Enzymatic method :

A uv method (absorbance @____ nm ) ; reference method ; coupling reaction is highly specific

A

Hexokinase ; increased absorbance @340 nm

151
Q

Hexokinase: effect of hemolyzed//icteric sample

A

Falsely decreased

152
Q

Enzymatic method :

Uv or colorimetric/spectrophotometric ; highly specific for glucose, not subject to interference from substance normally found in the serum ; not commonly used except in glucose POCT

A

Glucose dehydrogenase

153
Q

Glucose dehydrogenase : dye used to enable colorimetric-spectrophotometric measurement

A

Tetrazolium dye

154
Q

Glucose dehydrogenase :

Formed by the reaction of NADH and Tetrazolium in the presence of diaphorase ; color

A

Formazan (blue)

155
Q

Inborn of errors of carbohydrate metabolism :

Due to deficiency of one or three enzymes involved in galactose metabolism ; affected children present with mental retardation, failure to thrive, and galactosuria

A

Galactosemia

156
Q

3 enzymes invovolved in galactose metabolism

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (GALT)
Galactokinase (GALK)
Uridine diphosphate galactose-4-epimerase (GALE)

157
Q

type of glycogen storage diseases the usually manifest with hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, and growth retardation

A

Hepatic glycgenoses

158
Q

Most common hepatic glycogenoses ; presents with hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis,and hyperuricemia

A

Von Gierke disease

159
Q

type of glycogen storage disease that manifest with EXERCISE intolerance, MUSCLE cramps, fatigue, and weakness

A

Muscle glycogenoses

160
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : glycogen synthase

161
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : Glucose-6-phosphate

A

Type I (Von Gierke)

162
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : lysosomal acid alpha granules

A

Type II (Pompe)

163
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : glycogen debranching enzyme

A

Type 3 (Cori-Forbes)

164
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : glycogen branching

A

Type 4 (Andersen)

165
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : phosphorylase

A

Type V (Mc Ardle)

166
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : glycogen phosphorylase

A

Type VI (Hers)

167
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : phosphofructokinase

A

Type VII (Tarui)

168
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : adenyl kinase, phosphorylase B kinase

A

Type VIII (Hug/Ohtani)

169
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : phosphorylase kinase

A

Type 9 (Bresolin)

170
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : cyclic AMP-dependent kinase, phosphoglycerate mutase

A

Type 10 (Tonin)

171
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : glucose transporter-2

A

Type 11 (Fanconi-Bickel)

172
Q

GSD TYPE

Enzyme deficient : aldolase

A

Type 12 (kreuder)