INSTRUMENTATION Flashcards

1
Q

Uunit for volume

A

liter / L

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2
Q

unit used for catalytic activity

A

Katal / Kat

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3
Q

unit used for mass

A

Kilogram / kg

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4
Q

unit for amount of substance

A

mole / mol

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5
Q

unit used for length

A

meter / m

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6
Q

unit used for luminous intensity

A

Candela/cd

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7
Q

unit for electric current

A

Ampere / A

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8
Q

unit for thermodynamic temperature

A

Kelvin / K

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9
Q

temperature conversion : farenheit to celsius

A

C = ( F - 32 ) / 1.8

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10
Q

temperature conversion : celsius to farenheit

A

F = 1.8 x C + 32

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11
Q

factor for pico

A

10^(-12)

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12
Q

factor for nano

A

10^(-9)

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13
Q

factor for micro

A

10^(-6)

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14
Q

factor for milli

A

10^(-3)

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15
Q

factor for centi

A

10^(-2)

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16
Q

factor for deci

A

10^(-1)

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17
Q

number of moles of solute per LITER OF SOLUTION

A

MOLARITY

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18
Q

molarity formula

A

M = g/L / MW or g/dl x 10 / MW

M = N / V

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19
Q

normality formula

A

N = g/L / EW or g/dl x 10 / EW

N = M x V

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20
Q

equivalent weight formula

A

MW / valence

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21
Q

number of moles of solute per KILOGRAM OF SOLVENT

A

molality

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22
Q

amount of solute per 100 total unit if solution. ; expressed as % w/v, w/w, or v/v

A

percent solution

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23
Q

expression of relative concentration

A

dilution

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24
Q

volume of sample or stock divided by total volume of solution

A

simple dilution

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25
Q

done when a weaker reagent concentration is needed than the stock substance available

A

dilution of stock solution

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26
Q

done when the analyte concentration is too high and exceeds the detection limit of the method

A

dilution of sample

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27
Q

smount of something relative to another; expressed as part per part or part per whole

A

ratio

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28
Q

measures of center (3)

A

mean, median, mode

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29
Q

average or arithmetic mean

A

mean

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30
Q

midpoint of a data set after the values have been rank-ordered

A

median

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31
Q

most frequently occuring value in a data set

A

mode

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32
Q

also known as variability or distribution

A

measures of spread

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33
Q

measures of spread (3)

A

standard deviation
coefficient of variation
range

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34
Q

data points are distributed symmetrically around the mean (bell shaped curve) with most values close to the center

A

gaussian/normal distribution

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35
Q

the empirical rule that Gaussian distribution follows

A

68-95-99.7% rule - confidence interval

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36
Q

a pair of medical decsion points that span the limits of results expected for a defined HEALTHY POPULATION

A

reference interval

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37
Q

in verifying a reference interval, it requires at least ___ study individuals ; Reference interval is adopted if ____ of the subjects fall outside the range

A

20 ; 10% or less

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38
Q

in establishing a reference interval, it requires at least ____ study individuals ; RI is set based on the ___

A

120 ; 95% CI = mean +/- 25

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39
Q

first step in method evaluation; usually done by running two control materials twice a day over a 10-day period

A

precision study

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40
Q

precision study is the first step in method evaluation; usually done by running two control materials ___ a day over a ____ period

A

twice ; 10-day

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41
Q

involves spiking a sample with a known amount of an analyte and determining HOW MUCH IT CAN BE DETECTED by the method in the presence of other compunds in the matrix

A

recovery study

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42
Q

compares the MEANS of the two groups of data or the ACCURACY of two method

A

T test

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43
Q

compares the STANDARD DEVIATIONS of two groups of data or the PRECISION of two procedures

A

F test

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44
Q

used to compare two methods using the best fit LINE through the DATA POINTS

A

linear regression

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45
Q

VOYD

A

vertical
ordinate
y axis
dependent

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46
Q

HAXI

A

Horizontal
Abscissa
X axis
Independent

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47
Q

if there is no cv cut off value for a given analyte, the rule of thumb applies in which the cv must be ____ to be precise

A

less than 10%.

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48
Q

best indicator of precision

A

coefficient of variation

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49
Q

the relationship between cv and precision

A

inversely proportional

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50
Q

a measure of spread that is greatly affected by outliers making it unreliable

A

range

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51
Q

commonly used as the confidence interval in research and laboratory statistics

A

95%

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52
Q

ability of a method to detect the smallest concentration of an analyte

A

analytical sensitivity

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53
Q

ability of method to detect ONLY the analyte of interest

A

analytical specificity

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54
Q

ability of test to detect A GIVEN DISEASE or condition ; proportion of individuals WITH THE DISEASE who have a positive result

A

diagnostic sensitivity

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55
Q

ability pf a trst to detect the ABSENCE of a given disease or condition ; proportion of individuals with NO DISEASE who have a NEGATIVE test result

A

diagnostic specificity

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56
Q

probability that a POSITIVE test result indicates disease ; proportion of individuals with a POSITIVE RESULT who TRULY HAVE THE DISEASE

A

postive predictive value

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57
Q

probability that a NEGATIVE test result indicates absence of disease ; proportion of individuals with a NEGATIVE RESULT who TRULY DO NOT HAVE THE DISEASE

A

negative predictive value

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58
Q

most widely used approach to quality improvement in the healthcare

A

PDCA CYCLE / DEMING CYCLE

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59
Q

provides both a management philosophy organizational development process for improvement of quality on ALL ASPECTS of work

A

Total Quality Management (TQM)

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60
Q

TQMs Five-Q Framework

A

quality planning
quality laboratory process
quality control
quality assessment
quality improvement

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61
Q

based on the statistics and quantitative measurements applied in the clinical laboratory to REDUCE the frequency of test ERRORS or the number of DPMOs

A

Six sigma

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62
Q

5 steps of SIX SIGMA (DMAIC)

A

define
measure
analyze
improve
control

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63
Q

designed to REDUCE WASTE ; increase efficiency and improve customer satisfaction; often used in clinical laboratories to improve TURN AROUND TIME

A

lean

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64
Q

categories of waste ( DOWN TIME )

A

defects
overproduction
waiting
non utilized talents
transport
inventory
motion
excess processing

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65
Q

lean-six sigma colored belt: understands the BASICS of lean-six sigma

A

yellow belt

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66
Q

lean-six sigma colored belt: team members who contribute APPROXIMATELY 20% of their time to quality imorovement projects

A

green belt

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67
Q

lean-six sigma colored belt: TEAM LEADERS who dedicate as much as 100% of their time to quality improvement projects

A

black belt

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68
Q

lean-six sigma colored belt: BLACK BELT with at least 2 YEARS of experience ; lean-six sigma advisers/coaches

A

master

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69
Q

process by which the laboratory ensures quality results by closely monitoring preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical phases of testing

A

quality assessment / quality assurance

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70
Q

ability to maintain accuracy and precision over an extended period of time during which equipment, reagents and personnel may change

A

reliability

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71
Q

closeness of the result to the true or actual value

A

accuracy

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72
Q

ability to produce a series of RESULTS that AGREE CLOSELY with each other ; commonly expressed in terms of coefficient of variation

A

precision

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73
Q

aka repeatability or reproducibility

A

precision

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74
Q

involves the analysis of at least 2 levels ofcontrol every 24 hours

A

internal quality control

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75
Q

involves the analysis of at least ___ levels of control every ____

A

2 levels ; 24 hours

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76
Q

in internal quality control, initial control limits are establisshed by analyzing controls for at least ___ consecutive days or runs

A

20

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77
Q

important for daily monitoring of accuracy and precision of analytical method

A

internal quality control

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78
Q

involves testing BLIND samples ( unknown concentration of analytes) sent periodically by regulatory agencies to participating laboratories

A

external quality assessment

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79
Q

aka the unknown concentration of analytes tested in external quality control

A

blind samples

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80
Q

important for maintaining the long term accuracy of analytical methods

A

external quality assessment

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81
Q

it is the distance from the mean in terms of standard deviation

A

z score

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82
Q

type of error taht is due to chance or an unpredictable cause; does not recur in regular pattern

A

random error

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83
Q

a type of error that is usually a one-time error

A

random error

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84
Q

random error: violations of westgard rules

A

12s, 13s, R4s

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85
Q

a type of error in which the causes are as follow : instrument instability e.g. temperature and voltage fluctuations, dirty glassware, sampling error, improper mixing of sample and reagent, operator variability e.g. pipetting error, anticoagulant or drug interference

A

random error

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86
Q

a type of error in which Causes are as follow: deterioration of reagents, change in reagent lot, unstable reagent blanks, calibration error, changes in standard concentration, contaminated control solutions, diminishing lamp power, dirty photometer, faulty ISE, and pipettor maintenance error

A

systematic error

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87
Q

a type of error thst affects precision

A

random error

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88
Q

a type of error that affects accuracy

A

systematic error

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89
Q

it is indicated by shift, trend or violation of the 22s, 44s, 81s, 10x

A

systematic error

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90
Q

westgard rule violations of systematic error

A

22s, 44s, 81s, 10x

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91
Q

type of error that affects ALL RESULTS, may be CONSTANT or PROPORTIONAL

A

systematic error

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92
Q

RECURRING ERROR inherent in test procedure; influences observations in ONE DIRECTION

A

sysematic error

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93
Q

abrupt change in the distribution of control values such that they accumulate on one side of the mean for 6 consecutive days

A

shift

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94
Q

major cause of shift

A

calibration or error in standard preparation

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95
Q

GRADUAL change in the distribution of control values such that they continue to INCREASE or DECREASE over a period 6 consecutive days passing through the mean

A

trend

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96
Q

major cause of trend

A

deterioration of reagent

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97
Q

HIGHLY DEVIATING control values caused by both random or systematic errors

A

outliers

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98
Q

prepared by plotting the CUSUM points or the algebraic sum of the difference between each QC result and the mean on the y axis and the run number the x axis.

A

CUSUM chart

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99
Q

used for interlaboratory comparison of monthly means by plotting the mean value FOR ONE SAMPLE on the y axis and the mean value FOR ANOTHER on the x axis;

A

tonks-youden / twin plot

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100
Q

effective method for comparing both within-laboratory and between-laboratory variability y

A

tonks-youden / twin plot

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101
Q

most commonly used QC chart

A

Shewart Levey - Jennings chart

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102
Q

hierarchy of controls from most to least effective

A

ELIMINATION
SUBSTITUTION
ENGINEERING CONTROLS
ADMINISTRATIVE CONTROLS
PPE

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103
Q

isolate the people from the hazard

A

engineering controls

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104
Q

change the way people work

A

administrative controls

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105
Q

fume hoods, bsc, splash guards, guards on moving parts are example of what type of control

A

engineering controls

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106
Q

warning signs, SOPs, emergency response procedures are what type of control

A

administrative controls

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107
Q

sequence of donning

A

gown, mask, goggles, gloves

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108
Q

sequence of doffing

A

gloves, goggles, gown, mask

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109
Q

bsc type that sterilizes only the air to be exhausted and does not protect the work surface

A

bsc class I

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110
Q

bsc type that is commonly used un microbiology

A

bsc class II

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111
Q

bsc class II is also called as

A

vertical laminar flow bsc

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112
Q

bsc type that sterilizes the air that flow over the infectious material as well as the air ti be exhausted

A

bsc class II

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113
Q

bsc class II subtype in which 70% of air is recirculated and 30% is exhausted

A

bsc class II AI

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114
Q

bsc class II subtype that is similar with bsc class II AI but with higher intake air velocity

A

bsc class II A2

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115
Q

bsc class II subtype in which 30% of air is recirculated and 70% is exhausted

A

bsc class II B1

116
Q

bsc class II subtype in which 100% of air is exhausted

A

BSC Class II B2

117
Q

bsc class that is completely exposed with glove ports

A

bsc class III

118
Q

provides the highest level of personnel protection ; for extremeley hazardous organism

A

bsc class III

119
Q

decontaminating solution for body fluid spills

A

5.25 NaOCl or 10% chlorine bleach (1:10)

120
Q

type of radiation used in germicidal lamps for biologic safety cabinets

A

ultraviolet (<400 nm)

121
Q

type of radiation used in vein selectors, heat lamps, and lasers

A

infrared (>700 nm)

122
Q

used for materials that give off harmful vapors ; provides personnel protection only

123
Q

formely MSDS, a major source of information about chemicals written by manufacturers

124
Q

revised formst of SDS consists of how many sections

A

16 sections

125
Q

maximum allowable exposure limit within regular shift

A

threshold limit value

126
Q

enforcable limit set by OSHA

A

Permissible exposure limit

127
Q

absorbs water when exposed to air

A

hygroscopic

128
Q

it causes birth defects

129
Q

STANDARD HAZARDS ID SYSTEM BY NFPA ; mnemonic for reactivity

A

SUVSM

0 stable
1 unstable if heated
2 violent chemical change
3 shock and heat may detonate
4 may detonate

130
Q

STANDARD HAZARDS ID SYSTEM BY NFPA ; mnemonic for health

A

NSHED

0 normal material
1 slightly hazardous
2 hazardous
3 extreme danger
4 deadly

131
Q

STANDARD HAZARDS ID SYSTEM BY NFPA ; color for reactivity

132
Q

STANDARD HAZARDS ID SYSTEM BY NFPA ; color for fire/flammability

133
Q

STANDARD HAZARDS ID SYSTEM BY NFPA ; color for special

134
Q

STANDARD HAZARDS ID SYSTEM BY NFPA ; color for health

135
Q

STANDARD HAZARDS ID SYSTEM BY NFPA ; flash point : FIRE

A

0 will not burn
1 above 200 F
2 below 200 F
3 below 100 F
4 below 73 F

136
Q

in fire hazard, these are the actions to take in the event of fire (RACE)

A

rescue
alarm
contain
extuinguish

137
Q

mnemonic used when operating fire extinguisher

A

PASS
pull the pin
aim the nozzle
squeeze trigger
sweeo nozzle

138
Q

extinguishers used fire class A fire

A

pressurized water, dry chemical

139
Q

class b fire extinguishers

A

dry chemical, carbon dioxide, halon

140
Q

class c fire extinguishers

A

dry chemical, carbon dioxide, halon (BEST)

141
Q

class d fire extinguishers

A

metal X ( special dry chemical) or sand

142
Q

in separation of serum and plasma, they are centrifuged at _______ for _____

A

1000-2000 g for 10 mins

143
Q

tourniquet application is ____ above the puncture site

A

3-4 inches

144
Q

if blood pressure cuff is used, inflate to _____ mmhg

A

40-60 mmhg

145
Q

routine antiseptic

A

70% isopropyl alcohol

146
Q

antiseptic used for culture

A

70% alcohol > iodophore, povidone iodone > 70% alcohol

147
Q

ethanol used for ethanol assay

A

benzalkonium ( zephiran)

148
Q

angle between needle and vein for ETS and needle syringe

A

15-30 degrees

149
Q

angle between needle and vein for butterfly syringe

A

less than 15 degrees

150
Q

not recommended by CLSI due to safety and specimen quality issues

A

needle syringe

151
Q

for large volume tubes or large volume syringes used on patients with normal size veins : color code and gauge

A

20 - yellow

152
Q

standard needle gauge for routine venipuncture : gauge and color code

153
Q

for older children and adult patient with small vein : color gauge

154
Q

used on infants and children, difficult veins, or hand veins of adult : color gauge

155
Q

used to collect blood from scalp or tiny veins of premature infants ; prone to hemolysis : color gauge

156
Q

needle length for better control

A

1- 1.5 inches

157
Q

needle length for butterly needle

A

0.5 - 0.75 inches

158
Q

effect of high temperature on draw volume

A

decreased draw volume

159
Q

effect of low temperature on draw volume

A

increased draw volume

160
Q

effect of high altitude (>500 ft) on draw volume

A

decreased draw volume

161
Q

order of draw in multiple collection using ETS

A

stop - sterile
light - light blue
red - red plastic
stay - sst
put - pst
green - green
light - lavender
go - gray

162
Q

uncontrollable factors in preanalytical variables

A

age, gender, race, and underlying conditions

163
Q

analytes affected in diurnal variation : increased in the morning

A

cortisol, ACTH, aldosterone, iron

164
Q

time collection for cortisol

A

8 am - peak
4 pm - lower

165
Q

iron is _____ lower in the affernoon

166
Q

analytes affected in diurnal variation : increased in the afternoon and night

A

growth hormone
parrathyroid hormone
thyroid stimulating hormone

167
Q

analytes affected by posture (standing)

A

increased albumin, cholesterol, calcium

168
Q

analytes affected by supine to upright position

A

increased albumin, enzymes, protein bound substance

169
Q

analytes increased in ambulatory individuals

A

total protein and ck

170
Q

analytes affected by exercise

A

increased creatinine, lactate, potassium, phosphate, ck, ast, lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase

decreased glucose, TAG, cholesterol

171
Q

analytes requiring fasting

A

glucose (Fasting plasma glucose and OGTT), triglyceride alone (or as part of lipid profile)

172
Q

fasting hours for triglyceride

A

12 - 14 hrs

173
Q

analytes increased in stress

A

cathecolamines (epinephrine , norepinephrine), cortisol, ACTH, prolactin

174
Q

increased analytes in smoking

A

carbon monoxide, ammonia, BUN (if enzymatic or urease method is used )

175
Q

effect of IV contamination such as dextrose to glucose measurement

A

falsely increase

176
Q

increased analyte due to IV contamination

A

electrolytes ( Na, K, Cl ), drugs

177
Q

increased analytes due to hemoconcentration

A

postassium, lactate, protein, and protein bound substances

178
Q

increased analyte due to hemolysis

A

intracellular ions - potassium, magnesium, phosphate, and iron

rbc enzymes - lactate dehydrogenase, ast, acp, choline esterase, and ck (due to adenylate kinase)

179
Q

intracellular ion greatly affected by hemolysis

180
Q

rbc enzyme greatly affected by hemolysis

A

lactate dehydrogenase

181
Q

rbc enzyme greatly affected by hemolysis

A

lactate dehydrogenase

182
Q

reason why glucose, bilirubin, and lipase are falsely decreased if there is hemolysis

A

due to hemoglobin interference

183
Q

resson why sodium is falsely decreased in hemolysis

A

due to the dilution of extracellular fluid by intracellular fluid

184
Q

reason why sodium and potassium are falsely elevated if EDTA, citrate, and oxalate are used incorrectly

A

edta and citrate are present as sodium salts while oxalate is present as potassium salt

185
Q

enzymes affected by falsely decreased calcium and magnesium

A

creatine kinase, lactate dehydrogenase, alkaline phosphatase, amylase

186
Q

magnesium and calcium are importnant _____ to certain enzymes

187
Q

analytes falsely increased if heparin tube is used

A

Sodium, lithium, ammonia, (depending on additive component used)

188
Q

analytes falsely decreased if sodium fluoride is used

A

BUN and Uric acid (enzymatic method)

189
Q

analyte affected by SST and PST

A

falsely decreased trace metals, drugs (tricylic antidepressants and antiarrhythmics)

190
Q

anayltes requiring chilling or ice

A

ABG, ammonia, lactate, ACTH

191
Q

analytes requiring anaerobic collection

A

ABG, ammonia, ACP, ionized calcium

192
Q

analytes that must be protected from light

A

bilirubin, porphyrin, carotene, vit A and vit B12

193
Q

boron-free and can be used with strong acids and alkali

A

soft glass

194
Q

aka soda lime glass ; most inexpensive ; releases alkali causing error in certain determinations

A

flint glass

195
Q

amber colored glass ; reduces light transmission ; used to contain photosensitive substances

A

low actinic glass

196
Q

glass pipette according to design

A

to contain and to deliver

197
Q

glass pipette : holds but does not deliver the exact volume

A

to contain

198
Q

glass pipette : delivers the exact volume it holds

A

to deliver

199
Q

characterized by etched ring / band near the mouth

A

blow out pipette

200
Q

allowed to drain by gravity

A

self draining pipette

201
Q

examples of transfer pipettes

A

Volumetric and Ostwald-Folin

202
Q

Examples of measuring or graduated pipettes

A

serologic and mohr

203
Q

To deliver ; self-draining

A

Volumetric pipette ; Mohr pipette

204
Q

To deliver ; blow out

A

Ostwald-Folin pipette ; Serologic pipette

205
Q

Glass pipette (calibration/graduation mark) : With single capacity mark

A

Volumetric and Ostwald-Folin

206
Q

Glass pipette for non viscous samples ; standards

A

Volumetric

207
Q

Glass pipette for viscous samples

A

Ostwald-Folin

208
Q

Glass pipette for serial dilution ; measuring reagents

A

Mohr and Serologic pipette

209
Q

Glass pipette (calibration/graduation mark) : graduated down to tip

210
Q

Glass pipette (calibration/graduation mark) : graduated ; between 2 marks

211
Q

Uses SUCTION to draw sample into a disposable polypropylene tip ; piston does not come in contact with the liquid

A

Air displacement

212
Q

Operates like a hypodermic syringe ; tips must be rinsed out

A

Positive displacement

213
Q

Pipettes must be calibrated every

214
Q

Weight of DISTILLED WATER is delivered ; most accurate

A

Gravimetric method

215
Q

Absorbance of COLORED SOLUTION delivered

A

Spectrophotometric method

216
Q

Centrifuge type : tubes attain a HORIZONTAL POSITION during SPINNING and a VERTICAL POSITION when at REST ; ____ rpm

A

HORIZONTAL OR SWINGING BUCKET ; 3000 rpm

217
Q

Centrifuge type : Tubes are at a fixed angle when rotating ; capable of higher speeds with much less heat build up ; ____ rpm

A

Fixed-angle or angle-head ; 7,000 rpm

218
Q

Centrifuge type : used to separate LAYERS of different specific gravities (SG) ; usually REFRIGERATED to counter the heat produced due to friction ; ___ rpm

A

Ultracentrifuge ; 100,000 rpm

219
Q

Centrifuge type : For body fluid cell counts ; ___ rpm

A

Cytocentrifuge ; 200-2000 rpm

220
Q

Units used for Centrifugation

A

RPM, RCF(g), Svedberg (s)

221
Q

Centrifuge QC : parameters

A

Timer & speed (tachometer), temperature

222
Q

Centrifuge QC is done every

223
Q

Centrifuge QC is done every

224
Q

Reagents : HIGH DEGREE of purity suitable for use in most analytical procedures

A

Analytical reagent grade (American Chemical Society)

225
Q

Reagents : for specific procedures such as CHROMATOGRAPHY, AAS, IMMUNOASSAY, molecular diagnostics, and standardization techniques

A

ULTRAPURE GRADES

226
Q

Reagents : impurity limitations not state ; NOT ACCEPTABLE FOR RESEARCH and LABORATORY techniques

A

Chemically pure grade

227
Q

Reagents : Primarily used to manufacture drugs and purity standards may not meet assay requirements

A

United States Pharmocopeia/ National Formulary Grade

228
Q

Reagents : should not be used in the clinical lab ; for industrial use only

A

Technical or commercial grade

229
Q

Reference material : HIGHLY PURIFIED CHEMICAL that can be measured directly to produce a substance of exact known concentration and purity

A

Primary standard

230
Q

ACS Primary standard has purity tolerance value of _______

A

100 +/- 0.02%

231
Q

Certified for use in clinical chemistry laboratories

A

Standard Reference Materials

232
Q

Purest type of reagent water ; recommended for STANDARD PREPARATION

233
Q

Reagent water acceptable for most laboratory procedures including reagent preparation

234
Q

Reagent water that can be used for some qualitative tests but not for routine analyses and reagent preparation ; water source for the preparation of type I and type II water and for WASHING GLASSWARE

235
Q

Max colony count (CFU/mL) : TYPE I

A

<10 CFU/ml

236
Q

Max colony count (CFU/mL) : type II

237
Q

UV wavelength

238
Q

Visible light wavelength

A

400-700 nm

239
Q

Infrared wavelength

240
Q

Relationship between wavelength and energy

A

Inversely proportional

241
Q

Beer-Lambert’s Law

242
Q

Beer-Lambert’s Law

A=abc

a =

A

Molar Absorptivity

243
Q

To compute the absorbance value given the % transmittance

244
Q

Distilled water, reagent or sample used to subtract absorbances not due to the analyte of interest ; sets the spectrophotometer to 0 absorbance

245
Q

Corrects for absorbance caused by the color of reagents ; used to 0 the instrument before measuring test samples and other blanks

A

Reagent blank

246
Q

Used to subtract the intrinsic absorbance cause by hemolysis, icterus, turbidity, or drug interference during sample analysis

A

Sample blank

247
Q

Substance of known purity and concentration used to determine the concentration of the unknown analyte

248
Q

Solution containing various analyses with known target values ; analyzed with patient samples to monitor analytical performance

249
Q

Values provided by the manufactured

A

Assayed control

250
Q

Values determined by the lab

A

Unassayed control

251
Q

Any wavelength outside the band of interest ; detected using cut-off filters

A

Stray light

252
Q

Done using GLASS FILTERS and solutions that have known absorbance values

A

Absorbance check

253
Q

Type of monochromator : continuous, non linear spectrum better separation of high frequency light

254
Q

Type of monochromator : continuous, LINEAR, uniform separation of wavelengths ; most common

A

Diffraction gratings

255
Q

Range of wavelengths transmitted ; calculated as width at more than half the maximum transmittance

256
Q

Simplest type of photodetector

A

Barrier layer cell

257
Q

Photodetector that requires external voltage source

258
Q

Photodetector with excellent linearity

A

Photodiode

259
Q

Most common and most sensitive photodetector

A

Photomultiplier

260
Q

Designed to compensate for variations in intensity of the light source by splitting the light beam from the lamp and directing ONE PORTION to a reference cover and the OTHER to the sample cuvet

A

Double beam spectrophotometry

261
Q

Beam splitter ; 2 photodetectors

A

Double-beam-in- space

262
Q

Chopper ; 1 photodetector ; excitation energy

A

Double-beam-in-time

263
Q

Measurement of the amount of light emitted by excited molecules

A

Fluorometry

264
Q

1000 times more sensitive than spectrophotometry

A

Fluorometry

265
Q

Number of monochromators used in Fluorometry

266
Q

4 causes of quenching or decreased fluorescence

A

Increased temp
Prolonged exposure to UV light
Concentrated/ undiluted samples
PH changes and contaminated samples

267
Q

Measurement of light emission caused by a chemical, biochemical, or electrochemical reaction, and not by photo illumination

A

Luminometry

268
Q

Detection of flashes of light using a PM tube and counting of the electrical impulses

A

Scintillation counting

269
Q

Crystal scintillation

A

Gamma counter ; I-125 and I-131

270
Q

Liquid scintillation

A

Beta counter ; H-3 and C-14

271
Q

Measurement of the amount LIGHT BLOCKED

A

Turbidimetry

272
Q

Measurement of the amount of light SCATTERED by a suspension of particles

A

Nephelometry

273
Q

Involves fragmentation and ionization of molecules using a suitable source of energy followed by separation of the ions by mass-to-charge ratio and counting the number of ions of each type

A

Mass spectrometry

274
Q

Involves fragmentation and ionization of molecules using a suitable source of energy followed by separation of the ions by mass-to-charge ratio and counting the number of ions of each type

A

Mass spectrometry

275
Q

Non destructive method for determining the structure of organic compound ; used in lipoprotein particle measurement

A

Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

276
Q

Pumps each specimen in a batch through a system of CONTINUOUS tubing at the same rate and is subjected to the same analytic reactions ; significant CARRY-OVER problems and wasteful use of continuously flowing reagents

A

Continuous flow

277
Q

These are formed to serve as separating and cleaning media

A

Air bubbles

278
Q

Continuous flow : meant for mixing

A

Coiled tubing/glass coils

279
Q

Uses centrifugal force to transfer liquids in separate cuvets for measurement ; capable of batch analysis

A

Centrifugal analysis

280
Q

Places each sample and accompanying reagents in separate containers ; batch analysis ; random access or stat capabilities

A

Discrete analysis

281
Q

Each specimen in a batch enters the analytical process ONE AFTER ANOTHER, and each result or set of results emerges in the same order as the specimens are entered

A

Sequential analysis

282
Q

All specimens are subjected to a SERIES of analytical processes at the same time in a PARALLEL fashion

A

Parallel analysis

283
Q

Many specimens are GROUPED in the same analytical session ; large number of specimens are in ONE run

A

Batch analysis

284
Q

Each specimen is analyzed for a DIFFERENT SELECTION of tests ; capable of analyzing STAT specimens out of sequence on an as-needed basis

A

Random-access analysis

285
Q

Requires the reagent TO BE IN A UNIQUE CONTAINER or format provided by the manufacturer

A

Closed-system analyzer

286
Q

The operator is ABLE TO CHANGE the parameters related to an analysis and prepare in-house reagents or use reagents from a variety of suppliers

A

Open-system analyzers

287
Q

Most commonly used POCT ; use enzymatic methods coupled with photometric or electrochemical detection l should not be used to diagnose DM

A

Blood glucose monitors (glucometers)