recalls Flashcards

1
Q

effect of high wbc count on glucose determination

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

uses arsenomolybdate reagent

A

nelson-somogyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

uses phosphomolybdate reagent

A

FOLIN-WU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

results produced by reduction methods for glucose are _____ higher than those enzymatic methods

A

5-15 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

to establish diabetis mellitus symptoms (3Ps) should be accompanied bh RBS level of :

A

200 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

diabetes type : beta cells destruction

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

diabetes type : chilhood/teens onset

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

diabetes type : autoimmune

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

diabetes type : c-peptide is detectable

A

type 2 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

diabetes type : prediabetes (+) autoantibodies

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

diabetes type : develops abruptly

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

diabetes type : ketosis is common

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diabetes type : medication is insulin absolute

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

diabetes type : medication is oral agents

A

type 2 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

diabetes type : insulin dependent

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

diabetes type : non insulin dependent

A

type 2 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

to establish diabetis mellitus, RBS level must be:

A

greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL plus symptoms of 3Ps - polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

to establis DM, 2-hr post prandial (during OGTT) level must be

A

greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

to establish DM, FBS level must be

A

greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

to establish DM, HbA1C level must be

A

greater than or equal to 6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what enzyme is deficient in type 1 glycogen storage diseases

A

glucose-6-phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

type 1 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

von gierke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

type 2 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

pompe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

type 3 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

cori-forbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

type 4 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

andersen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

type 5 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

mc ardle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

type 6 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

hers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

type 7 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

tarui

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

type 8 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

hug / ohtani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

type 9 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

bresolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

type 10 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

tonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

type 11 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

fanconi-bickel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

type 12 glycogen storage disease synonym

A

kreuder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most common phospholipid found in cell membranes

A

lecithin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

major apolipoprotein of HDL

A

Apo A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

major apolipoprotein of LDL

A

Apo B100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

major apolipoprotein of VLDL

A

Apo B100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

major apolipoprotein of chylomicrons

A

Apo B48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

lipoprotein wirh reverse cholesterol transport

A

HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

transport cholesterol from liver to tissues

A

LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

transports endogenous triglycerides (liver)

A

VLDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

transports exogenous triglycerides (dietary )

A

chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

SPE migration pattern of lipoproteins (starting from origin)

A

chylo > ldl > vldl > hdl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ultracentrifugation of lipoproteins (top to bottom layer)

A

chylo > vldl > ldl > hdl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

aka floating beta lipoprotein

A

b-vldl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

aka sinking pre-beta lipoprotein

A

Lp(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

density similar to LDL

A

Lp(a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ATP III CLASSIFICATION FOR TOTAL CHOLESTEROL VALUES - borderline high

A

200-239 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

ATP III CLASSIFICATION FOR TOTAL CHOLESTEROL VALUES - desirable

A

<200 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ATP III CLASSIFICATION FOR TOTAL CHOLESTEROL VALUES - higher risk for CHD

A

greater than or equal to 240 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ATP III CLASSIFICATION FOR HDL VALUES - <40 indication

A

low with HIGH RISK for cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ATP III CLASSIFICATION FOR HDL VALUES - greater than or equal to 60 mg/dL indication

A

high with low risk for cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ATP III CLASSIFICATION FOR LDL VALUES - 130-159 mg/dL indication

A

borderline high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

1 step method for cholesterol determination

A

liebermann-burchardt (colorimetry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

3 step method for cholesterol determination

A

abell-kendall (C + E + saponification)

56
Q

Coefficient of variation for cholesterol

A

less than or equal to 3%

57
Q

Coefficient of variation for triglyceride

A

less than or equal to 5%

58
Q

Coefficient of variation for HDL

A

less than or equal to 4%

59
Q

coefficient of variation for LDL

A

less than or equal to 4%

60
Q

in frederickson classification, what type has an abnormal LDL receptor gene

A

type IIa (familial hypercholesterolemia)

61
Q

type of hyperlipoproteinemia associated with abnormal LDL receptor gene

A

type 2a (familial hypercholesterolemia)

62
Q

indicator of nutrition

A

prealbumin

63
Q

bind thyroid hormones and retinol-binding protein

A

prealbumin

64
Q

major contributor to oncotic (osmotic) pressure

65
Q

binds copper ; has enzymatic activity

A

ceruloplasmin

66
Q

non APRs

A

a-1 fetoprotein (AFP)
G-c globulin
inter-a-trypsin inhibitor
thyroxine binding globulin
Alpha2 macroglobulin
Beta2 microglobulin

67
Q

negative APRs

A

Prealbumin
Albumin
Transferrin

68
Q

beta-gamma bridging

A

liver cirrhosis

69
Q

monoclonal spike in gamma region

A

multiple myeloma

70
Q

alpha2-globulin spike

A

nephrotic syndrome

71
Q

10-fold increase in alpha2 macroglobulin indicates

A

nephrotic syndrome

72
Q

a1-globulin flat curve indicates

A

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

73
Q

a1-, a2-globulin spikes indicatss

A

acute inflammation

74
Q

polyclonal gammopathy

A

chronic inflammation

75
Q

protein test based on phenolic amino acid oxidation with the HIGHEST SENSITIVITY

A

Folin-Ciocalteu (LOWRY)

76
Q

biochemical marker for bone resorption

A

cross-linked C-Telopeptide

77
Q

useful marker of nutrition

A

prealbumin or fibronectin

78
Q

NPNs from most to least concentrated

A

Urea > amino acid > uric acid > creatinine > creatine > ammonia

79
Q

2nd most concentrated NPN

A

amino acid

80
Q

these assess the excretory function of the kidney (substances excreted to the urine)

A

ammonia, urea, uric acid, several minerals and toxic substances

81
Q

synthesized in the kidney

A

erythropoietin
renin
prostaglandins

82
Q

tests for glomerular filtration rate (CBC)

A

clearance tests, cystatin C, beta-trace protein

83
Q

clearance tests for glomerular filtration rate (ICU)

A

inulin
creatinine
urea

84
Q

tests for renal blood flow (BCU)

A

BUN
creatinine
uric acid

85
Q

tests for tubular function (kidney fnx test)

A

excretion tests
concentration tests

86
Q

excretion tests for tubular function [PP]

A

p-aminohippurate
phenolsulfonphthalein dye tests

87
Q

concentration tests for tubular function (kidney fx test)

A

specific gravity
OSMOLARITY/osmolality

88
Q

UREA NITROGEN ASSAY : inexpensive , lacks specificity

A

colorimetric: diacetyl

89
Q

UREA NITROGEN ASSAY : more expensive, greater specificity

A

enzymatic : NH3 formation

90
Q

CREATININE ASSAY : simple and nonspecific

A

colorimetric : end point

91
Q

CREATININE ASSAY : rapid and increased specificity

A

colorimetric : kinetic

92
Q

CREATININE ASSAY : measure ammonia colorimetrically or with ion selective electrode

93
Q

URIC ACID ASSAY : problems with turbidity , several common drugs interfere

A

colorimetric

94
Q

URIC ACID ASSAY: needs special instrumentation and optical cells (SPECIFIC)

A

enzymatic : uv

95
Q

URIC ACID ASSAY: requires mercury arc vapor lamp

A

enzymatic : uv

96
Q

URIC ACID ASSAY : interference by reducing substances

A

enzymatic: H2O2 production

97
Q

categories of azotemia

A

pre-renal
renal
post-renal

98
Q

____ single marker to diagnose renal failure; ____ test to assess the renal tubular integrity

A

creatinine : beta 2 microglobulin

99
Q

endogenous substance used as an alternative test for creatinine clearance to screen for kidney dysfunction

A

Cystatin c

100
Q

liver functions

A

synthesis
metabolism
detoxification
excretion

101
Q

synthesized by the liver

A

proteins and coagulation factors

102
Q

substances detoxified by the liver [BAD]

A

bilirubin, ammonia, drugs

103
Q

substances excreted by the liver (BB)

A

bile acids and bilirubin

104
Q

tests patency if biliary ducts, helatocellular metabolism of bilirubin

A

direct and total bilirubin ratio

105
Q

test for overall patency of biliary ducts

A

serum bile acids (salts)

106
Q

test for abnormality of bile duct epithelium

A

ALP, obstructive enzymes

107
Q

test for the capacity to conjugate bilirubin and secrete bile

A

serum bilirubin level

108
Q

test for hepatocellular damage and necrosis

A

serum AST levels

109
Q

bilirubin fraction covalenlty attached to albumin ; aka as “BILILIPOPROTEIN “

A

delta bilirubin

110
Q

characterized by oartial deficiency of UDPGT (Criggler - Najjar syndrome type II

A

Arias syndrome

111
Q

bilirubin assays

A

Malloy and Evelyn method
Jendrassik and Grof Method

112
Q

Malloy and Evelyn method principle

A

van de berg reaction

113
Q

Jendrassik and Grof method principlev

A

van de berg reaction

114
Q

accelarator used in Malloy and Evelyn method for bilirubin assay

115
Q

accelerator used in Jendrassik and Grof method for bilirubin assay

A

caffeine - sodium benzoate

116
Q

Malloy and Evelyn method pH

117
Q

Jendrassik and Grof method pH

118
Q

principles of enzyme data interpretation (4)

A
  1. there is no truly “organ specific” enzyme
  2. serial masurements provide most useful data ; a 3. single masurement can be misleading
  3. “Negative” (normal) results are useful
    enzyme data must be integrated with other information
119
Q

1st to elevate but not cardiac specific (also present in other muscles)

120
Q

cardiac-specific marker

121
Q

onset of elevation of CK-MB

122
Q

1st to elevate but not pancrea-specific (also present in salivary glands )

123
Q

late marker but pancrease-specific

124
Q

BOWERS & MCCOMB substrate

A

p-nitrophenolphosphate (PNPP)

125
Q

most specific method for ALP measurement

A

BOWERS & MCCOMB

126
Q

ROY & HILLMAN substrate

A

thymolphthalein monophosphate (endpoint)

127
Q

end product of REITMAN & FRANKEL method

A

gulatamate + oxaloacetate

128
Q

forward or direct reaction of LDH method

129
Q

reverse or indirect reaction of LDH measurement

A

wrobleuski la due

130
Q

forward or direct method for ck measurement

A

tanzer-gilvarg

131
Q

reverse or indirect method ck measurement

A

oliver-rosalki

132
Q

conditions affecting ALP activity : pronounced elevation (5 or more times normal)

A

bile duct obstruction
osteitis deformans (pagets disease)
biliary cirrhosis
osteogenic sarcoma (bone tumor)

133
Q

conditions affecting ALP activity : slight elevation (up to 3 times normal)

134
Q

conditions affecting LDH activity : pronounced elevation ( 5 or more times )

A

megaloblastic anemia
renal infarction

135
Q

conditions affecting ALP activity : moderate elevation ( 3-5x)

A

myocardial infarction
pulmonary infarction
hemolytic conditions

136
Q

conditions affecting AST activity : prounounce elevation

A

acute hepatocellular damage
myocardial infarction
acute pancreatitis

137
Q

conditions affecting CK activity : prounounced elevation

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy