Trauma and orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most likely bacterial cause of septic arthritis? (1)

Most common location

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Knee

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2
Q

What fluids will you send for culture in septic arthritis (2)

A

Synovial fluid culture
Blood culture (most common cause is hematogenous spread)

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3
Q

Name 2 inflammatory markers raised along with the WCC in septic arthritis

A

ESR, CRP

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4
Q

Outline immediate management plan in septic arthritis

A

Analgesia
Take blood and fluid cultures BEFORE empirical antibiotics
IV antibiotics: flucloxacillin or clindamycin if allergic for 4-6 weeks

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5
Q

What would be the role of orthopaedics do in septic arthritis (1)

A

Joint aspiration / wash out to decompress joint

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6
Q

What other organism should be considered in septic arthritis if a metal prosthesis was in situ in the joint

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

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7
Q

Give 2 risk factors for developing septic arthritis (2)

A

Penetrating injury
Immunocompromised
Infections elsewhere e.g. gonococcal
Diabetes

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8
Q

Most likely cause of septic arthritis in sexually active patient (1)

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea (gonococcus)

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9
Q

Name 4 rotator cuff muscles

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

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10
Q

Where does the supraspinatus attach to the humerus? (1)

A

Greater tubercle

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11
Q

What muscle takes over abduction of the arm after the supraspinatus initiates movement (first 10-15 degrees) (1)

A

Deltoid 15-90

(Trapezius 90-180)

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12
Q

What 2 muscles are innervated by the accessory nerve? (2)

A

Teres minor
Deltoid

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13
Q

What 2 methods are used to image the supraspinatus and to assess whether any labral tears are present? (2)

A

MRI and ultrasound

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14
Q

ABCDE approach: RTA, spinal board with collar, blocks and tape immobilising his cervical spine, snoring-like sound from airway

a) What manoeuvre should you perform initially? (1)

b) What adjunct is available to help manage the patient’s airway? (1)

A

a) Jaw thrust

(presume cervical spine is unstable so do not perform head tilt-chin lift)

b) Oropharyngeal airway (Guedel)

(nasopharyngeal cannot be used as there is a possibility of basal skull fracture)

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15
Q

ABCDE approach

What can you do improve a patient’s ‘breathing’

A

Oxygen 15L non-rebreathe mask

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16
Q

ABCDE approach

Tachycardiac, hypotensive, no obvious site of bleeding

a) Give 2 initial steps you would take to manage his circulatory problems (2)

b) What 4 urgent blood tests would you request at this point (4)

A

a) Insert two wide-bore cannulae, IV 0.9% normal saline bolus

b) FBC, U&E, cross-match, clotting

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17
Q

Below what GCS is the airway at risk of not being maintained?

A

< 8

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18
Q

ABCDE approach

a) Name 2 images you would request in a trauma series (2)

b) What 2 forms of complex imaging would allow you to fully assess the extent of the injuries (2)

A

a) chest, pelvic and cervical X-ray

b) CT head and adbomen

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19
Q

Hyper-resonant percussion and tracheal deviation most likely diagnosis (1)

A

Tension pneumothorax

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20
Q

Management of pneumothorax

a) minimal symptoms
b) symptoms but not high-risk
c) high-risk characteristics (haemodynamic compromise, >50)

A

a) conservative care
b) needle aspiration (wide-bore cannula into the 2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line), if unsuccessful then chest drain
c) chest drain (triangle of safety)

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21
Q

Massive haemothorax

a) Percussion sound (1)

b) Acute management (1)

A

a) Dull percussion

b) Wide-bore chest drain (tube thoracosotomy)

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22
Q

3cm laceration entering the chest wall around the 6th intercostal space, give 2 structures that could be damaged (2)

A

liver, heart

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23
Q

Initial imaging test for haemothorax (1)

A

Chest X-ray

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24
Q

Test for integrity of anterior cruciate ligament (1)

A

Anterior drawer test

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25
Q

Test for integrity of posterior cruciate ligament (1)

A

Posterior drawer test

26
Q

Describe how you test the collateral ligaments of the knee (2)

A

Flexion of the knee to 20 degrees, one hand holds the ankle and one stabilises the femur

Knee joint stressed in abduction to test the MCL and adduction to test the LCL

27
Q

a) what is the unhappy triad? (1)
b) why is it so commonly damaged? (1)

A

a)
1. anterior cruciate ligament
2. medial collateral ligament
3. medial meniscus

b) tightly adheres to the MCL

28
Q

What test may be positive with a meniscal tear? (1)

A

McMurray’s test

29
Q

What imaging can be used to assess the damage to the medial meniscus? (1)

30
Q

Where can an autograft be taken from if the ACL is to be reconstructed (1)

A

Patella tendon
Hamstring tendon
Quadriceps tendon

31
Q

Which cruciate ligament is seen attaching anteriorly to the tibial plateu? (1)

32
Q

What position will the leg be in in a NOF? (2)

A

externally rotated and shortened

33
Q

If X-rays are inconclusive, give an alternative imaging method which may be used to confirm a fractured neck of the femur?

34
Q

What system is used to classify intracapsular femoral neck fractures? (1)

A

Garden classification system

35
Q

Name 2 arterial supplies to the head of the femur (2)

A

Cervical vessels in the joint capsule
Artery of the ligamentum teres
Intramedullary vessels

36
Q

What complication may occur if the blood supply to the head of the femur is disrupted by an intracapsular fracture

A

Avascular necrosis

37
Q

Operative procedure: displaced intracapsular fracture where there are concerns that the blood supply has been disrupted

A

Arthroplasty (hemi or total)

hemiarthroplasty if poor mobility before / significantly co-morbid otherwise total

38
Q

Operative procedure: Undisplaced intracapsular fracture with blood supply intact

A

Internal fixation (nails or screws)

39
Q

Name 1 blood test to perform before surgery

A

FBC, U&E, cross-match, clotting

40
Q

a) What bone is fractured in a Colles’ fracture

b) What part of the bone is fractured

c) What displacement

A

a) Radius

b) Distal

c) Dorsal displacement

Dinner fork Deformity

41
Q

Approximately how long does a Colles’ fracture take to heal?

42
Q

Define an open fracture

A

communication between the fracture and the outside world

43
Q

What system is used to classify open fractures?

A

gustilo and anderson classification system

44
Q

Give 4 components of managing an open fracture

A

Fluid resuscitation
Assessment of neurovascular status
Sterile cover
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Tetanus prophylaxis

45
Q

Excruciating pain in posterior aspect of lower leg exacerbated by dorsiflexion of the foot

a) likely diagnosis
b) surgical management

A

a) Compartment syndrome
b) Urgent decompression via open fasciotomy

46
Q

Apart from compartment syndrome, give 2 complications of open fracture

A

Wound infection
Tetanus infection
Osteomyelitis
Nerve damage
Vascular damage
Sepsis
DVT
Death

47
Q

a) What is the termination of the spinal cord known as?

b) at what vertebral level does it occur in adults

c) at what vertrebral level does it occur in newborns

A

a) conus medullaris

b) L2-L3

c) L4-L5

48
Q

What are two possible causes of cauda equina syndrome

A

Herniated disc (most common)
Spinal trauma
Spinal tumour e.g. mets
Spinal abscess

49
Q

Give 2 lower motor neurone signs

A

Fasiculations
Hypotonia
Hyporeflexia
Muscle wasting

*Cauda equina is lower motor neurone which is why you get bilateral hyporeflexia

50
Q

What is the preferred imaging modality in suspected cauda equina

A

Lumbar MRI spine

51
Q

a) What is the definitive management of cauda equina

b) Give 1 potential complication if left untreated

A

urgent surgical decompression

paralysis, sensory abnormalities, bladder dysfunction, bowel dysfunction, sexual dysfunction

52
Q

What gender is more at risk of developing osteoarthritis

53
Q

Give 2 features that may be found on examination of OA knee

A

Tenderness, derangement, swelling, pain on movement, crepitus

54
Q

What are the swellings at DIPJ affected by osteoarthritis called?

A

Heberden’s nodes

55
Q

What are the 4 changes typically seen on X-ray of a joint affected by OA?

A

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subchondral cysts
Subchondral sclerosis

56
Q

a) Give 2 pieces of lifestyle advice for OA

b) give 2 reasons to consider joint arthroplasty

A

a) weight loss, regular exercise

b) reduced QOL, symptoms not responding to non-surgical

57
Q

2 features of the pain a/w carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Worse at night
Gradually worsening
Intermittent
Relieved by shaking hand

58
Q

Nerve affected in carpal tunnel syndrome and nerve roots

A

Median
C6-T1

59
Q

Why is sensation usually preserved over the palm in CTS

A

Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve does not pass through the CT

60
Q

T scores for osteopenia and osteoporosis

A

1 to 2.5 = osteopenia
> 2.5 = osteoporosis

61
Q

Give 3 symptoms/signs of cauda equina

A

Urinary retention
Lower limb weakness
Bowel dyfunction e.g. incontinence
Bilateral hyporeflexia
Sudden onset bilateral sciatica
Sudden onset bilateral neurological symptoms (weakness, tingling)
Saddle paraesthesia

62
Q

Compartment syndrome features

A

Acute compartment syndrome presents with the 5 P’s:

P – Pain “disproportionate” to the underlying injury, worsened by passive stretching of the muscles
P – Paresthesia
P – Pale or pink
P – Pressure (high) / swollen
P – Paralysis (a late and worrying feature)

NOTE: pulselessness is NOT a feature and would indicate acute limb ischaemia