Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

Give 4 risk factors for IHD

A

Modifiable: smoking, obesity, hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia

Non-modifiable: Age, male, family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Other than exertion, give 2 possible triggers of angina

A

Cold/windy weather
Emotion (anger/excitement)
Lying down
Vivid dreams (nocturnal angina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Other than chest pain, give 2 symptoms a pt may experience during an episode of angina

A

SOB
Sweating
Feeling faint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 2 blood tests requested for angina and why

A

FBC (anaemia)
TFTs (thyrotoxicosis)
lipid profile (hypercholesterolaemia)
glucose (T2DM)
U&Es (renal vessel disease if considering ACEi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Other than blood tests, name 3 tests used to investigate angina

A

Coronary angiogram (gold-standard)

ECG, exercise tolerance test, echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does aspirin reduce the risk of coronary events

A

COX-1 inhibitor, inhibiting production of Thromboxine A2 from platelets (reduces the level of platelet aggregation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which artery supplies the anterior territory of the myocardium?

A

Left anterior descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give 3 aspects of your immediate management plan in a STEMI

A

PAIN:

Perform ABC assessment and ECG
Aspirin 300mg and Another antiplatelet (ticagrelor 180mg)
IV morphine if required (with an antiemetic e.g. metoclopromide)
Nitrate (GTN spray)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two management options are available to definitively treat a STEMI

A

Primary PCI
If PCI availability >120 min: thrombolysis with fibronlytic agent e.g. alteplase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give four medications that may be started prior to discharge after a STEMI

A

6 A’s:
Aspirin
Another antiplatelet (ticagrelor or clopidogrel)
Atorvastatin
ACEi
Atenolol (bisoprolol more commonly)
Aldosterone antagonist (e.g. eplerenone; for those with clinical HF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give 3 signs of pulmonary oedema you would look for on examination

A

Tachycardia, tachypnoea, bilateral bibasal crackles on ausculatation, 3rd heart sound; if right-sided HF raised JVP and peripheral oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 pulmonary oedema investigations

A

CXR (ABCDEF)
ECG
ABG (T1RF?)
Echocardiogram (EF %)
Bloods (FBC, U&E, lipids, glucose)
Cardiac enzymes (e.g. troponin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 2 drugs that may be used in the treatment of acute pulmonary oedema

A

Oxygen
Furosemide
Morphine
Nitrates (GTN)

‘SODIUM’:
Sit up
Oxygen
Diuretics (Furosemide)
IV fluids need to be stopped
Underlying cause needs to be treated
Morphine + nitrate (severe cases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name one drug that may have been used in the treatment of pulmonary oedema that can cause hypokalaemia

A

Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give 2 ways to raise potassium medically

A

Oral (sando-K)
IV (add KCI to IV fluids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the leads on a 12-lead ECG in which you would expect to see ST elevation on a lateral STEMI.

Which vessel is likely to be affected?

A

aVL, I, V5-V6

Left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give two abnormalities that may be seen on his ECG prior to discharge after a STEMI

A

T wave inversion
Pathological Q waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DVLA rules for driving after an MI

A

You don’t need to tellDVLAif you’ve had an MI or a heart, cardiac or coronary angioplasty

Stop driving after MI for:
* 1 week if you had successful angioplasty
* 4 weeks if you had angioplasty but it wasn’t successful or if you didn’t have angioplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give 3 possible complications of CT coronary angiogram

A

M-SAID
MI
Stroke (+ bleeding/haemorrhage)
Allergy to contrast
Infection
Damage to coronary vessels requiring intervention / Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which territory of the myocardium do leads II, III and aVF represent?

Which vessel is responsible for this territory?

A

Inferior

Right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A patients pulse is no longer palpable and he’s stopped breathing, give 2 things you would do next?

A
  1. Call for help / crash team
  2. Start chest compressions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the normal QRS interval?

A

< 120 ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a capture beat?

A

Sinus impulse conducts through the AV node producing a normal QRS complex between wide QRS complexes of ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Regular, tachycardia, broad QRS complexes with an occasional capture beat, what is the rhythm disturbance?

A

Ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the shockable rhythms

A

VF and pulseless VT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Give 2 drugs that may be used during cardiac arrest

A

Adrenaline
Amiodorone
Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What system is used to classify the severity of heart failure?

A

NYHA classification
1. no symptoms
2. mild / ordinary activity
3. symptoms occur with minimal activity / significant limitation
4. symptoms occur at rest/ severe limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give 3 symptoms of left ventricular failure

A

SOB (3):
Orthopnoea (exacerbated by lying flat)
On exertion / reduced exercise tolerance
Paroxysmal noctural dyspnoea

Cough (2):
Nocturnal
Frothy white or pink sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Give 3 signs of heart failure on a CXR

A

ABCDEF of pulmonary oedema

Alveolar oedema (‘bat wings’)
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Diversion (upper lobe)
Effusion (blunted costophrenic angles)
Fluid in the fissures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How and where does furosemide act?

A

‘LOOP diuretic’

Inhibits the Na-K-2Cl co-transporter in the Loop of Henle (keeping Na in the urine) which therefore diminishes the osmotic gradient for water reabsorption (water follows salt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which drug used in AF and HF caused ST depression (reverse tick) and T wave inversion in V4-6 on ECG

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BMI equation and classifications

A

weight in kg / height in m (sq)

<18.5: underweight
18.5 to 24.9: healthy
25 to 29.9: overweight
30 to 39.9: obese
>40: severely obese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

3 pieces of lifestyle advice for overweight patient with hypertension

A

Aim to lose weight
Increase exercise
Stop smoking
Reduce alcohol intake
Low fat diet
Low salt intake

34
Q

Class of anti-hypertensive drug 1st line for 52 year old white pt with no co-morbidities

35
Q

Class of anti-hypertensive drug 1st line for 56 year old white pt with no co-morbidities

36
Q

Class of anti-hypertensive drug 1st line for 52 year old patient with african-caribbean ethnicity

37
Q

Class of anti-hypertensive drug 1st line for 58 year old patient with T2DM

38
Q

2 side effects to be aware of before starting an ACEi

A

Dry cough
Hypotension
Renal impairment
Hyperkalaemia

39
Q

2 signs that may be visible on the retina of someone with hypertensive retinopathy

A

CRASH:
Cotton wool spots
Retinal haemorrhages
AV nipping
Silver wiring
Hard exudates

40
Q

3 complications of essential hypertension

A

HF
IHD
Stroke
CKD
Hypertensive retinopathy
PVD

41
Q

Mechanism of action of simvastatin

A

Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase (rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis)

42
Q

2 signs of hypercholesterolaemia on examination

A

Xanthelasma
Tendon xanthoma
Corneal arcus

43
Q

One drug used to treat acute phase of gout

A

NSAID (ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen)
Colchicine

44
Q

3 common causes of AF

A

SMITH:
Sepsis
Mitral valve pathology
IHD
Thyrotoxicosis (hyperthyroidism)
HTN

45
Q

2 features of AF on ECG

A

Irregular QRS complexes
Absent P waves

46
Q

2 associated symptoms of AF

A

Syncope
SOB
Chest pain

47
Q

2 methods of cardioversion in AF (rhythm control)

A

Electrical (DC cardioversion; on the R wave)
Pharmacological (flecainide or amiodorone)

48
Q

2 medications that may be used long term in AF

A

Beta-blocker
CCB

co-existing HF:
Digoxin
Amiodorone

49
Q

2 complications of AF

A

Stroke
TIA
HF

50
Q

Fever, night sweats, SOB, high-pitched early diastolic murmur, coarse crepitations at lung base → immediate management plan

A

(infective endocarditis)

ABCDE approach

51
Q

Organism most likely to be responsible for infective endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

52
Q

Name of boat-shaped retinal haemorrhage with pale centre seen on fundoscopy of infective endocarditis patient

53
Q

Criteria used for infective endocarditis diagnosis

A

Modified duke criteria

Major: persistently positive blood cultures and vegetation on echo

Minor (RF): IVDU, valve pathology, fever (>38), vascular features e.g. janeway lesions, immunological features e.g. oslers nodes, microbiological features e.g. positive culture

54
Q

Other than early diastolic murmur, give 3 signs of aortic regurgitation

A

Collapsing pulse
Corrigan’s sign (carotid pulsation)
Quinckes sign (nail bed pulsation)
Austin flint murmur (mitral cusp fluttering from regurg causing mid-diastolic murmur)

55
Q

Pan systolic murmur with RV heave - what valve disease has caused the infective endocarditis?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

56
Q

Most likely organism causing infective endocarditis in an IVDU

A

Staphylococcus aureus

57
Q

How should blood cultures be taken in infective endocarditis

A

3 samples from different venepuncture sites 30 minutes apart from each other

*All cultures should be collected prior to commencing antibiotics unless septic

58
Q

Other than blood tests, what imaging investigations should be used in infective endocarditis?

A

Echocardiogram

CXR (PE)
ECG (AF from damaged valves)
Urine dip (microscopic haematuria)

59
Q

Other than IVDU, give 2 examples of pre-existing cardiac disease that increases risk of infective endocarditis?

A

Prosthetic valve
Mitral valve disease
Aortic valve disease (e.g. bicuspid aortic valve)
PDA
VSD
Coarctation

60
Q

4 medications used for secondary prevention in stable angina

A

Aspirin
Atorvastatin
ACE inhibitor
Beta blocker

61
Q

Medication and dose for bradycardia

A

Atropine 500 mcg (repeat if unsuccessful)

62
Q

Non-pharmacological management option for bradycardia

A

Transcutaneous pacing

63
Q

Name 2 reflexes you could check when verifying a death

A

Pupillary
Corneal

64
Q

3 components of Cushing’s reflex

A

Hypertension
Bradycardia
Irregular breathing pattern

65
Q

Describe 3 signs of expanding EDH as it enlarges and before it ultimately results in coning

A

Nausea and vomiting
Brief lucid interval
Rapid deterioration in consciousness (following lucid interval)
CN III palsy / ‘down and out’ pupil
Seizures
Reduced GCS

66
Q

What is ‘coning’?

A

(Raised intracranial pressure causes)
Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum
Leads to compression to the brainstem
(and respiratory arrest)

67
Q

Name 4 clinical signs on examination of infective endocarditis

A

Roth spots
Osler’s nodes
Splinter haemorrhages
Splenomegaly
Janeway’slesions
Petechiae

68
Q

Name 2 classes of drugs used first-line in HF which help to reduce mortality

A

ACEi
Beta blockers

69
Q

List 2 causes of distributive shock

A

system wide vasodilation

Septic
Anaphylactic
Neurogenic

70
Q

List 2 causes of hypovolaemic shock

A

fluid loss

Haemorrhagic
Burns

71
Q

Causes of mediastinal widening

A

Aortic dissection
Aortic aneurysm
Lung mass

72
Q

Murmur associated with aortic dissection

A

Early diastolic decrescendo
Loudest at left sternal edge

73
Q

Aortic dissection investigation in

a) stable
b) unstable

A

a) CT CAP (chest abdo pelvis)
b) TOE

74
Q

Classification system for aortic dissection

A

Stanford classification (Type A or B)

75
Q

1st line medical management for aortic dissection

A

IV labetalol to control BP

76
Q

2 clinical signs that would support coarctation of the aorta

A

Radio-femoral delay
Ejection systolic murmur (i.e. aortic stenosis)

77
Q

2 diagnostic tests for coarctation of the aorta

A

Echo
CT aorta

78
Q

2 ways you could exclude a renal cause of hypertension

A

U&E
Renal USS

79
Q

2 options for long term management of coarctation of aorta

A

Conventional open surgery
Balloon angioplasty and stent insertion

80
Q

Bedside investigation to confirm diagnosis of PVD

A

Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)

81
Q

3 definitive management options for proximal arterial occlusion in PVD

A

Bypass graft surgery
Angioplasty
Stent

leg MI