Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Give 4 clinical signs of bronchiolitis

A

Coryzal symptoms preceding:
Dyspnoea with feeding difficulties
Auscultation findings include widespread harsh breath sounds, wheezes and fine inspiratory crackles
Mild fever (under 39ºC)

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2
Q

Commonest cause of bronchiolitis

A

respiratory syncytial virus

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3
Q

Investigation for bronchiolitis

A

Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV

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4
Q

NICE immediate referral criteria for bronchiolitis

A

Apnoea
Child looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional
Severe respiratory distress (grunting, marked chest recession, RR >70)
Central cyanosis
Hypoxia <92% on air

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5
Q

Except for difficulty breathing, what other symptoms are associated with croup?

A

Barking cough, worse at night
Hoarseness
Stridor (laryngeal oedema + secretions) - DO NOT EXAMINE THROAT
Fever
Corzyal symptoms

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6
Q

Other than croup, give 2 other causes of developing stridor in a 4 year old

A

Epiglottis
Foreign body
Anaphylaxis

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7
Q

Name the virus most commonly responsible for causing croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

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8
Q

Treatment prescribed for croup

A

Single dose of dexamethasone regardless of severity

Emergency:
High flow O2
Nebulised adrenaline

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9
Q

Name the most likely finding upon palpation of the abdomen in pyloric stenosis and where in the
abdomen you would expect to find it?

A

Olive-shaped mass in the RUQ

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10
Q

What acid-base disturbance would you expect to find in pyloric stenosis?

A

hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis - from vomiting

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11
Q

Name the four sections of the stomach

A

cardia
fundus
pylorus
body

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12
Q

Typical SUFE patient

A

obese boy aged 10-15

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13
Q

What cartilage makes up the epiphyseal plate?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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14
Q

SUFE 3 features

A

Hip, groin, medial thigh or knee pain
Loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion
Bilateral in 20%

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15
Q

Name 3 differential diagnoses for hip pain in a child

A

SUFE
Perthes
Acute transient synovitis
Septic arthritis

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16
Q

Give 2 causes of jaundice within the first 24 hours of life

A

JAUNDICE IN THE FIRST 24H IS ALWAYS PATHOLOGICAL

Rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD

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17
Q

Most common cause of jaundice 2-14 days

A

Physiological (more RBC, fragile RBC, less developed liver) - more common in breastfed babies

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18
Q

Give 2 investigations (other than bilirubin) for jaundice in first 24h

A

Rhesus status
ultrasound?

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19
Q

Pale stools and raised conjugated bilirubin

Cause of prolonged jaundice in a baby?

A

Obstructive picture: biliary atresia

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20
Q

What complication may occur if raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin remain untreated?

A

Kernicterus

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21
Q

Give 1 methods of treating neonatal jaundice?

A

Phototherapy

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22
Q

What prenatal investigation can be used to detect congenital heart diseases?

A

Echocardiography

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23
Q

In which direction is blood flowing in the heart in acyanotic congenital heart disease?

A

Left to right

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24
Q

Give 2 causes of acyanotic congenital heart disease

A

Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect

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25
Q

In which direction is blood flowing in cyanotic heart disease?

A

Right to left

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26
Q

Give 2 causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A

Tetralogy of fallot
Transposition of the great arteries

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27
Q

In decompensated congenital heart disease, give 2 clinical features

A

Poor feeding
Tachycardia
Cold peripheries
Hepatomegaly
Engorged neck veins

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28
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

Left to right shunt causes pulmonary hypertension which leads to shunt reversal (acyanotic to cyanotic)

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29
Q

Apart from prematurity, give 2 risk factors for IRDS

A

Maternal diabetes
C-section

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30
Q

What substance is deficient in the lungs of premature babies (<32w), giving rise to IRDS?

A

Surfactant produced by mature alveoli

Lack of it leads to high surface tension within alveoli which leads to lung collapse

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31
Q

What prenatal medication can be given to mothers with suspected preterm labour to prevent respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Dexamethasone

Increases production of surfactant

32
Q

Give 2 signs of IRDS

A

Tachypnoea
Cyanosis
Inspiratory recession
Grunting
Nasal flaring

33
Q

What is seen on a chest X-ray in a baby with IRDS?

A

Ground glass appearance

34
Q

In what age range do febrile convulsions typically occur?

A

6 months to 5 years

35
Q

Give 2 features that mean febrile seizures are classified as complex febrile convulsions

A

15 to 30 minutes
Repeated seizures within 24 hours
Focal seizure

36
Q

Give 3 investigations in febrile convulsions

A

FBC
Blood culture
U&E
Glucose
Throat swab

37
Q

Give 1 pieces of information to give to parents prior to child being discharged after febrile seizure

A

Advise to phone for an ambulance if seizure lasts >5 minutes

38
Q

Medication for recurrent febrile convulsions

A

Benzodiazepine rescue medication

39
Q

Define cerebral palsy

A

Disorder of movement and posture due to a non-progressive lesion of the motor pathways in the developing brain

40
Q

Give 2 of the subtypes of cerebral palsy, using the classification system based on movement disorder

A

Spastic (70%) - increased muscle tone due to UMN lesion
Dyskinetic - basal ganglia and substania nigra cause athetoid movements
Ataxic - damage to cerebellum
Mixed

41
Q

Apart from motor complications, give 2 other clinical features that a child with cerebral palsy may have

A

Learning difficulties
Epilepsy
Squint
Hearing impairment

42
Q

Give 3 a cause of cerebral palsy from each category

a) antenatal
b) intrapartum
c) postnatal

A

a) Congenital infection e.g. rubella
b) Birth asphyxia
c) Meningitis

43
Q

Name 2 medications a child with cerebral palsy may be prescribed to help with muscle spasm

A

Diazepam
Baclofen

44
Q

In which gender are intussusceptions more common

45
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of intussusception

A

Invagination of one portion of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually the ileo-caecal region

46
Q

Investigation of choice for intusseception and sign seen

A

Ultrasound
Target-like mass

47
Q

1st line treatment for intussuception

A

Air insufflation under radiological control

48
Q

What are 2 indications for laparotomy in intussuception

A

Failed air insufflation
Signs of peritonitis

49
Q

3 month old baby with episodes in which he becomes irritable, struggles with his
breathing, and his lips turn blue - name?

A

Tet spells

*Tetralogy of fallot

50
Q

Anatomical abnormalities that occur in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary stenosis
RVH
VSD
Overriding aorta

51
Q

Investigations to identify cause in suspected NAI

A

FBC
Coagulation screen
LFTs
Cranial CT
Skeletal survey
Cranial ultrasound

52
Q

3 professionals outside of hospital involved in NAI

A

Social workers
Health visitors
GP
Police

53
Q

2 clinical signs of infectious mono

A

Splenomegaly
Petechial haemorrhages of soft palate
White exudate covering tonsils
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Fever

54
Q

2 complications of infectious mono

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome
Splenic rupture
GBS
Encephalitis
Meningitis

55
Q

Name 2 notifiable diseases

A

Acute meningitis
Botulism
COVID-19
Diptheria
Enteric fever

56
Q

Pyloric stenosis pathophysiology

A

Hypertrophy of the pylorus prevents food travelling from the stomach into the
duodenum as normal
After feeding, there is powerful peristalsis against the narrow pylorus causing food to
be ejected into the oesophagus leading to projectile vomiting

57
Q

Investigation of choice pyloric stenosis

A

Abdo ultrasound

58
Q

Definitive management pyloric stenosis

A

Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy (Ramstedt’s)

59
Q

2 of the 6 in 1 vaccine components

A

Diphtheria
Hep B
Whooping cough
Tetanus
Polio
H. influenzae B

60
Q

8 week vaccinations

A

6 in 1
Rotavirus
Men B

61
Q

When is jaundice pathological

A

first 24h of life

62
Q

3 examples of prolonged jaundice

A

Biliary atresia
Hypothyroidism
Breast milk jaundice

63
Q

What is the serious complication of untreated neonatal jaundice that parents should be warned about?

A

Kernicterus

64
Q

Which special tests in the NIPE can detect signs of hip pathology?

Follow up imaging?

A

Ortolani and Barlow tests

Ultrasound

65
Q

What condition are ortolani/barlow/US looking for

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip

66
Q

Name 2 criteria of Wilson and Junger screening test criteria

A

Important
Cost-effective
Simple and safe screening test
Acceptable to population
Agreed diagnostic investigation for positive test results

67
Q

Epididymo-orchitis presentation

A

gradual onset, over minutes to hours, with unilateral:

Testicular pain
Dragging or heavy sensation
Swelling of testicle and epididymis
Tenderness on palpation, particularly over epididymis
Urethral discharge (should make you think of chlamydia or gonorrhoea)
Systemic symptoms such as fever and potentially sepsis

68
Q

Examination findings in testicular torsion

A

Firm swollen testicle
Elevated (retracted) testicle
Absent cremasteric reflex
Abnormal testicular lie (often horizontal)
Rotation, so that epididymis is not in normal posterior position

69
Q

Explain why trismus occurs in quinsy

A

The inflammation and swelling associated with the abscess can cause pain and spasm of the muscles involved in opening the mouth (masticator muscles)

70
Q

Lymph node enlarged in quinsy

A

Jugulodigastric lymph node

71
Q

What test on an ABG could help decide the urgency of treatment for pneumonia

72
Q

2 management options for bronchiolitis

A

Oxygen
NG feeding

73
Q

Investigation for SUFE

A

AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are diagnostic

74
Q

Management of SUFE

A

Internal fixation (single cannulated screw in centre of epiphysis)

75
Q

4 complications of SUFE

A

Osteoarthritis
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Chrondrolysis
Leg length discrepancy