Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of acromegaly

A

Excess growth hormone secondary to a pituitary adenoma (95% of cases)

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2
Q

State 6 signs or symptoms in acromegaly

A

Spade-like hands
Increase in shoe size
Large tongue, interdental spaces
Excessive sweating and oily skin
Headaches
Bitemporal heminanopia
Galactorrhoea

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3
Q

What causes the visual field defect in acromegaly?

A

Pituitary adenoma on the optic chiasm

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4
Q

What serum blood test do you want to perform to screen for acromegaly?

A

Serum insulin like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)

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5
Q

Explain how an OGTT can aid the diagnosis of acromegaly

A

Hyperglycaemia causes NO suppression of GH after OGTT

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6
Q

What other endocrinological disorder would you screen for in acromegaly?

A

Diabetes mellitus

GH is an anti-insulin

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7
Q

What is the main cause of death in acromegaly patients

A

Cardiovascular disease

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8
Q

What surgery is performed to cure acromegaly in 95% of patients

A

Trans-sphenoidal surgery

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9
Q

Name 3 drugs that can cause hypothyroidism

A

Carbimazole
Lithium
Amiodarone

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10
Q

Name 4 signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

Symptoms:
Weight gain
Lethargy
Cold intolerance
Constipation
Menorrhagia

Signs:
Dry, cold, yellowish skin
Non-pitting oedema
Dry, coarse scalp hair
Decreased reflexes

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11
Q

Other than iatrogenic, name 4 causes of hypothyroidism

A

Hashimoto
Iodine deficiency
Radioactive iodine
Thyroid surgery

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12
Q

What might a FBC show in hypothyroidism

A

Macrocytic anaemia

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13
Q

What will the level of TSH and T4 be in a patient with primary hypothyroidism

A

High TSH, low T4

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14
Q

How would you treat hypothyroidism medically

A

Levothyroxine

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15
Q

A patient with hypothyroidism notices white patches on the back of both of her hands - what could this represent?

A

Vitiligo

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16
Q

What anatomical structure represents the site at which the thyroid gland originated before embryological descent

A

Foramen caecum

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17
Q

What is Grave’s disease

A

Autoimmune condition causing hyperthyroidism caused by IgG antibodies to the TSH receptor (TSH receptor stimulating antibodies and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies)

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18
Q

Name 3 specific signs of Grave’s disease

A

Exophthalmos
Opthalmoplegia (Lid retraction, lid lag)
Pretibial myxedema
Acropachy / soft tissue swelling and clubbing of the fingers and toe

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19
Q

What would thyroid scintigraphy show in Graves’ disease

A

diffuse, homogenous, increased uptake of radioactive iodine

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20
Q

What drug class can control tremor in hyperthyroidism

A

Beta blocker

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21
Q

Name 1 drugs used in hyperthyroidism

A

Carbimazole

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22
Q

Other than Grave’s specific signs, name 3 signs of hyperthyroidism

A

Fine tremor
Palmar erythema / warm, sweaty hands
Tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation

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23
Q

Excessive thirst, weight loss and increased urine production

Urine dipstick negative for glucose

Most likely diagnosis?

A

Diabetes insipidus

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24
Q

Where is ADH secreted from?

A

Posterior pituitary

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25
Q

Diabetes insipidus

Urine osmolality?

Plasma osmolality?

A

Urine osmolality: low (very diluted)

Plasma osmolality: high (very concentrated) or normal (because of the excess water drinking)

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26
Q

Whats the difference between nephrogenic and cranial diabetes insipidus?

A

Cranial: lack of ADH production
Nephrogenic: lack of response to ADH

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27
Q

How is the water deprivation test used to diagnose diabetes insipidus and what is the differential

A

The differential is primary polydipsia

Water deprivation test:
DI will continue to have low urine osmolality
PP will have high urine osmolality after water deprivation

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28
Q

Name 1 drug used to treat the cranial type of this condition

A

Desmopressin

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29
Q

A woman recently gave birth and suffered a massive post-partum haemorrhage. She is now suffering from diabetes insipidus. What is the likely cause?

A

Sheehan’s syndrome (pituitary gland infarction)

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30
Q

3 causes of hypoglycaemia

A

Insulinoma
Self-administration of insulin
Alcohol (causes exagerrated insulin secretion)

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31
Q

Name 4 autonomic symptoms of hypoglycaemia

A

Sweating
Shaking
Hunger
Anxiety
Nausea

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32
Q

Likely cause of hypoglycaemia in an unconscious teenage boy with known diabetes

A

Inappropriate use of insulin (overmedicating)

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33
Q

Name 2 symptoms of neuroglycopenia other than coma

A

Weakness
Vision changes
Confusion
Dizziness

34
Q

What can repeated episodes of hypoglycaemia lead to?

A

A lack of awareness of hypoglycaemia happening

35
Q

What advice would you give to a patient and their family regarding prevention of hypoglycaemic episodes

A

Regular meals (never miss one)
Regular finger-prick monitoring
Keep emergency supply of glucose in pocket e.g. energy tablets
Adjust insulin appropriately in response to change in diet, activity or illness

36
Q

Middle aged man complaining of persistent fungal infection in penis, tiredness, visual blurring and polyuria. What is the underlying diagnosis?

37
Q

Explain the OGTT

A

Plasma glucose 2h after drinking 75g glucose

38
Q

Name 2 macrovascular complications and 2 microvascular complications of T2DM

A

Macrovascular:
Stroke
CVD

Microvascular:
Retinopathy
Neuropathy
Nephropathy

39
Q

Other than Metformin, name 3 agents that could be used to treat T2DM

A

Sulfonyureas
Pioglitazone
DPP4 inhibitors
SGLT2 inhibitors
GLP-1 analogue

40
Q

How do you confirm the diagnosis of DKA by bedside testing

A

Urinary ketones

41
Q

Name 2 venous blood tests you may perform for the causes of DKA

A

FBC (infection)
U&E (electrolyte abnormality, renal failure)

42
Q

pH 7.11
PO2 13.8
PCO2 2.7
BE -7.3
HCO3 18.9

What in your interpretation of this ABG?

A

Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

43
Q

What is the management of DKA?

A

Fluids
Insulin
Glucose when < 14
Potassium in IV fluids
Investigate and treat underlying cause e.g. infection
Chart fluids
Ketones, pH, bicarb

44
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of DKA and the 3 most common precipitating factors

A

Uncontrolled lipolysis which results in excess free fatty acids ultimately converted to ketone bodies

Infection
Missed insulin doses
Myocardial infarction

45
Q

Middle aged man with fatigue and loss of appetite, slight tanning of the skin and buccal pigmentation. PMH of vitiligo. Most likely diagnosis?

A

Addison’s disease

46
Q

Pathophysiology of Addison’s disease

A

Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands resulting in reduced cortisol and aldosterone

47
Q

Name 2 tests you would like to perform to aid the diagnosis of Addison’s disease

A

Diagnostic: ACTH stimulation test (short SynACTHen test) plasma cortisol is measured before and after 30 minutes after giving SynACTHen IM

If this test is not available, 9am serum cortisol >100 should prompt further synacthen test

U&Es for electrolyte abnormalities

48
Q

What would a U&E show in Addison’s disease

A

No aldosterone = hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia

No cortisol = hypoglycaemia

Metabolic acidosis

49
Q

Apart from glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone), what drug class would you prescribe in Addison’s disease

A

mineralocorticoids (fludrocortisone)

50
Q

Give 3 pieces of advice you would provide after prescribing glucocorticoids to a patient

A

Carry a steroid card and medic alert ID bracelet
Double the dose during acute illness
Do not miss a dose
Carry emergency IM hydrocortisone

51
Q

What is the commonest cause of pathological hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Prolactinoma (pituitary adenoma)

52
Q

Name 3 signs or symptoms a patient with hyperprolactinaemia may have?

A

Galactorrhoea
Subfertility
Decreased libido
Headache
Bitemporal hemianopia

53
Q

What imaging test would you request in hyperprolactinaemia

54
Q

Name a drug used to treat hyperprolactinaemia and its mechanism of action

A

Cabergoline/bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

55
Q

Other than pharmacological, what other treatment is available to a patient with hyperprolactinaemia who refuses surgery

A

Radiotherapy

56
Q

Commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Solitary adenoma (80%)

57
Q

Name 4 signs or symptoms of hypercalcaemia

A

Bones, stones, groans and psychiatric moans
Shortened QT interval on ECG

58
Q

In primary hyperparathyroidism, will the a) calcium and b) phosphate be low/normal/high

A

High calcium
Low phosphate

PTH may be inappropriately normal with the raised calcium as it should be low due to negative feedback

59
Q

In secondary hyperparathyroidism, will the a) calcium and b) phosphate be low/normal/high

A

Low or normal calcium
Elevated phosphate

60
Q

In tertiary hyperparathyroidism, will the a) calcium and b) phosphate be low/normal/high

A

Normal or high calcium
Normal or decreased phosphate

61
Q

What imaging test would you order in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

X-ray shows pepperpot skull

62
Q

Definitive management of primary parathyroidism

A

Total parathyroidectomy

Complication: laryngeal nerve palsy

63
Q

What is the relationship between vitamin D and calcium?

A

vitamin D levels increase the efficiency of calcium absorption in the gut

64
Q

What type of sense diminishes first in peripheral neuropathy?

65
Q

Other than glove and stocking neuropathy, what signs may you find on diabetic foot examination

A

Charcot’s joint (neuropathic arthropathy)
Painless ulcer
High arched foot with clawing of toes
Diminished reflexes

66
Q

Name 2 other types of neuropathy that occur in diabetes patients

A

Autonomic neuropathy
Diabetic amytrophy
Mononeuritis multiplex

67
Q

What is key in management of preventing progression
of polyneuropathy

A

good glycaemic control

68
Q

A man with T2DM and peripheral neuropathy has intractable vomiting, what is the likely cause?

A

Autonomic gastroparesis

69
Q

Most serious side effect of carbimazole and signs that would alert a patient to it

A

Agranulocytosis

Seek medical advice if sore throat, mouth ulcers, bruising, fever, malaise

70
Q

2 definitive management options for Grave’s disease

A

Radioiodine therapy
Thyroidectomy

71
Q

Part of adrenal gland and hormone

A

Zona glomerulosa: aldosterone
Zona fasciculata: cortisol
Zona reticularis: androgens
Medulla: adrenaline

72
Q

2 signs and 2 symptoms of Cushing’s

A

Symptoms: depression, insomnia, acne
Signs: moon face, buffalo hump, central obesity

73
Q

Blood test and time for overnight suppression test

A

Serum cortisol 9am

74
Q

Diagnostic criteria for DKA

A

D: Glucose >11 or known DM
K: Ketones >3 or urinary ketones ++
A: pH <7.3
Bicarbonate <15

75
Q

Insulin rate for DKA

A

0.1 units / kg / hour

76
Q

ABG complication of fluid overload

A

Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

77
Q

List 3 initial steps in the management of unrousable hypoglycaemia after 1 dose of glucose IV

A

Another dose of IV glucose
Oxygen
Collateral history
Bloods lab glucose
Urea and electrolytes

78
Q

What underlying problem might explain hypoglycaemia in a T2DM on insulin

A

Excess insulin
Intercurrent illness
Reduced oral intake

79
Q

Possible safeguarding concern in hypoglycaemia in a insulin dependent patient and how to test it

A

Excess exogenous insulin either by carer, family or self

Test by measuring c-peptide (measure of endogenous insulin only)

80
Q

3 nephrogenic causes of DI

A

Genetic ADH receptor abnormality
Lithium
Haemochromatosis

81
Q

Why do polyuria and polydipsia occur in hyperglycaemia

A

Water is dragged out of the body due to the osmotic effects of excess blood glucose being secreted in the urine

82
Q

2 causes for 90% of hypercalcaemia

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism
Malignancy (PTHrP from tumour e.g. SCC, bone mets, myeloma)