COTE Flashcards

1
Q

How is the diagnosis of postural hypotension made?

A

Drop in systolic of 20 or diastolic of 10 after standing

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2
Q

3 medications that can cause postural hypotension

A

Furosemide, bendroflumethiazide
Tamsulosin
Calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors

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3
Q

Other than medication, give 2 possible causes of postural hypotension

A

Parkinsons
T2DM
Aortic stenosis

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4
Q

Give 2 non-pharmacological management options for postural hypotension

A

Increasing salt and fluid intake
Avoiding sudden sitting to standing, prolonged standing etc
Compression stockings or abdominal binder (to reduce venous pooling)
Physical activity (to reduce venous pooling)

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5
Q

Give 2 drugs used to manage postural hypotension

A

Fludrocortisone
Midodrine

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6
Q

Other than postural hypotension, give 2 factors that may increase the risk of falls in the elderly

A

Polypharmacy
Arthritis
Reduced cognition
Reduced vision

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7
Q

Define delirium

A

an acute onset of cognitive deficit where the perception of reality is distorted

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8
Q

What tool can differentiate delirium from dementia

A

4AT

Alertness
A short test of orientation (cognition)
Attention (recitation of the months in backwards order)
Acute change or fluctuating course

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9
Q

Other than infection, give 3 possible causes of delirium

A

Urinary retention
Dehydration
Hypothermia
Hypoxia
Insomnia
Hepatic or renal impairment
Environmental changes / visual disturbance / hearing disturbance
Drugs (opioids / corticosteroids / anticholinergics / benzodiazepines)
Alcohol withdrawal

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10
Q

Which organisms are most commonly responsible for UTIs

A

e.coli
staph aureus

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of penicillin-based antibiotics?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

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12
Q

How may bacteria develop resistance to penicillin-based antibiotics

A

Beta-lactamase production (break down the beta-lactam ring)

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13
Q

How do combination penicillin drugs work e.g. co-amoxiclav or tazocin

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitors

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14
Q

Other than memory loss, give 2 ways dementia may present

A

Irritability
Mood changes
Personality changes
Anorexia

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15
Q

Other than Alzheimer’s disease, give the 2 commonest causes of dementia

A

Lewy body dementia
Vascular dementia

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16
Q

Give 2 common reversible causes of dementia

A

Normal pressure hydrocephaly
B12 deficiency
Thiamine deficiency
Uraemia

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17
Q

Name 2 abnormalities seen on an MRI brain of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease

A

Frontal lobe atrophy
Hippocampal atrophy
Ventricular enlargement

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18
Q

What class of medication may be given to a patient with alzheimer’s disease and briefly explain its mechanism of action

A

Anticholinergics e.g. donepezil, rivastigmine

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (less ACh broken down and more available at the synapse)

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19
Q

Which group of muscles are commonly weak in women with stress incontinence

A

Pelvic floor muscles

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20
Q

Name one drug that precipitates urinary incontinence

A

Diuretics (furosemide, bendroflumethiazide)
Sedatives (opiates, antipsychotics)

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21
Q

Give 2 reasons for pelvic floor weakness

A

Pregnancy
Childbirth
Obesity
Chronic constipation

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22
Q

Name one drug that may cause urinary retention

A

Anti-cholinergics

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23
Q

Give 2 pieces of advice for stress incontinence

A

Drink less fluids

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24
Q

How does duloxetine work for stress incontinence

A

tightens the urethral sphincter

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25
Q

A pt has recently started a new tablet, as her BP was not controlled on amlodipine, and her urinary incontinence has got worse - what is the tablet?

A

ACEi

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26
Q

What scoring system can be used to determine the risk of stroke in the days following a TIA

A

ABCD2

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27
Q

Name the parameters of the ABCD2 scoring system

A

Age (65 - 1, 70 -2)
Blood pressure
Clinical features
Duration (> 60)
Diabetes

28
Q

What operation may be performed on someone with carotid artery stenosis?

A

Carotid arterectomy

29
Q

Name 3 risk factors for ischaemic stroke

A

Smoking
Obesity
Hypertension

30
Q

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin

A

Vitamin K antagonist

31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of apixaban

A

Direct inhibitor of factor X

32
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dabigatran

A

Indirect inhibitor of factor X

33
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dalteparin

34
Q

What is the mechanism of action of heparin

35
Q

From which artery does the middle cerebral artery arise

A

Internal carotids

36
Q

Facial droop, slurred speech, expressive dysphasia, right-sided facial palsy, right-sided weakness and right homonymous hemianopia

Using the OCSP, what is the diagnosis?

37
Q

What drug is commonly used for stroke thrombolysis?

38
Q

Give 4 absolute or relative contraindications to thrombolysis

A

Previous intracranial haemorrhage
Active bleeding
Severe uncontrolled hypertension
Significant head injury within 3 months
Recent intracranial surgery
Ischaemic stroke within 3 months

39
Q

Name 4 risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Steroids
Hyperthyroidism
Alcohol and smoking
Thin (BMI <18.5)
Testosterone
Early menopause
Renal/liver
Erosive bone disease (myeloma, RA)
Dietary low calcium/malabsorption

40
Q

Fractured right pubic ramus (common site for osteoporotic fractures)

Name 3 other sites where osteoporotic fractures often occur

A

NOF
Elbow?
Knee?

41
Q

on a DEXA scan, what is meant by a) T score b) Z score

A

a) Against healthy young person
b) Against matched for sex, age, ethnicity

42
Q

Give 2 pieces of advice on how to take bisphosphonates e.g. alendronate

A

Sit up
30 mins before eating and drinking
In the morning

43
Q

Give 2 common side effects of bisphosphonates and 2 serious side effects

A

Diarrhoea, reflux

Oesophageal ulcers, atypical fractures

44
Q

What 2 investigations are requested in a myeloma screen

A

Urinary proteins
Serum proteins

45
Q

What characteristic abnormality may be seen on X-ray in myeloma

A

punched out lesions

46
Q

Myeloma pt with difficulty passing urine and constipation, no sensation below T10

Diagnosis?

A

spinal cord compression

47
Q

What drug should be started immediately in spinal cord compression

A

dexamethasone

48
Q

What urgent investigation would you request for spinal cord compression

49
Q

Give 2 management options for spinal cord compression

A

surgical decompression

50
Q

Other than spinal cord compression, name 2 other possible complications of myeloma

A

Hypercalcaemia
Acute kidney injury
Anaemia

51
Q

What is parkinsons disease

A

Destruction of dopaminergic neurones in the substania nigra causing motor defects

52
Q

Give the 3 classical features of PD

A

Bradykinesia
Cogwheel rigidity
Unilateral tremor

53
Q

Other than the classical triad, give 2 other features of PD

A

Hypomimica
Hypoarthria

54
Q

Name 2 other causes of PD

A

Drugs
Lewy body

55
Q

Why is levodepa often used in combination with another durg e.g. carbidopa

A

stops levodopa being broken down peripherally so it has a longer affect in the CNS

56
Q

Features of benign essential tremor

A

improves with alcohol
bilateral tremor
worse with movement

57
Q

Other than prostate cancer, give 2 other causes of a raised PSA

58
Q

What abnormality would you expect to see on LFTs in bone cancer

A

raised ALP

59
Q

Give 2 management options for hypercalcaemia

A

Fluids
Bisphosphonates

60
Q

Name the 4 distressing end-of-life symptoms and name a drug for each

A

Agitation - haloperidol
Respiratory secretions - hyoscene
Constipation - laxatives
Pain - morphine

61
Q

Mechanism of action of memantine

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

62
Q

Donepezil and rivastigmine mechanism of action

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

63
Q

1 non-pharmacological interventions used in prevention and treatment of delirium

A

Reduce polypharmacy
Promote good sleep hygiene
Avoid dehydration
Encourage early mobilisation
Encourage family to visit
Reorient patient
Maintain environment

64
Q

Document to make DNACPR legally binding

A

Advance decision to refuse treatment

65
Q

Give two appropriate points for metastatic bone cancer discussion (aims)

A
  1. Manage symptoms e.g. analgesia
  2. Slow progression e.g. chemo
  3. Improve quality of life e.g. end of life discussions such as DNACPR, ceiling of care, wishes for home or hospital
66
Q

What is one area of palliative care that you cannot offer support or advice

A

Anything which would assist suicide