Transcription part 2 Flashcards
what are the RNAs that participate in translation
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
which provides the anticodon, partnering with the codon
of the mRNA transcript.
tRNA
Protein synthesis takes place on
ribosomes
Types of Ribosome subunits and their functions
30S (involved in activation)
50S (involved in the activation and chain initiation step during translation)
70S (involved in the
chain elongation step of the 3rd step of protein synthesis)
TRUE OR FALSE
A ribosome dissociates into a larger and a smaller body
TRUE
In higher organisms, including humans, the ribosome larger body is called ____ and the smaller body is ____
LArger: 60S
Smaller body: 40S
The 5’ end of the mature mRNA is bonded to what ribosome
40S ribosome and then this unit is then joined to the 60S ribosome
Triplets of bases on mRNA are called
codon
Start codon is
AUG - MEthionine
Cannot initiate translation without this
TRUE OR FALSE
one tRNA can carry three amino acids
FALSE
Each tRNA is specific for only one amino acid
Each cell carries at least
20 specific enzymes, each specific
for one amino acid
TRUE OR FALSE
Each enzyme recognizes only one tRNA
TRUE
First step in translation –
amino acid activation
how does amino acid activation happens?
The enzyme bonds the activated amino acid to the 3’
terminal –OH group of the appropriate tRNA by an ester bond
At the opposite end of the tRNA molecule is a
codon
recognition site
The codon recognition site is a sequence of three bases
called an
anticodon which is provided by the tRNA
This triplet of bases aligns itself in a _____
to the codon triplet on mRNA to produce the amino acid
residues
complementary fashion
TRUE OR FALSE
bases always follow the
Watson–Crick base pairing rule.
FALSE
Bases do not always pair according to the
Watson–Crick base pairing rule.
There are a
variety of alternative H-bonded base pairing
arrangements called
non-Watson or wobble base pairs
Type of base pairing exists between the codon (mRNA) and anti-codon
(tRNA) base pair
non-Watson or wobble base pairs
an analog that can pair with C,T, or A
I - Inosine
Unlike base pairings happen between _____ and the presence of
amino groups at the 6th position
G and
A since both are purines
There are 64 genetic codes and only 20 amino acids
how many codes for amino acids
and how many are for termination
But only 61 codes for amino acids, 3 codons are for
termination
If mRNA is polyU what is formed
polyPHE
; the triplet UUU,
therefore, must code
Phe
ACA must code for
Thr
CAC codes for
His
TRUE OR FALSE
Genetic code is degenerate
TRUE
meaning AUG is a single codon that would only code for met
UGG only codes for
Trp
How many codons codes for stop codon
3 codons
what are the stop codons
UAA, UAG, UGA
this codon signals translation-initiation step
AUG Met start codon
TRUE OR FALSE
Codons are continuous and unpunctuated
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE
There will be overlapping codons and nucleotides
interspersed
FALSE
There are no overlapping codons and no nucleotides
interspersed
TRUE OR FALSE
The code is almost universal
TRUE
: Same in viruses, prokaryotes,
and eukaryotes
o Except for some codons in the mitochondria, which are
different
TRUE OR FALSE
Genetic code is sometimes ambiguous
FALSE
Genetic code is unambiguous – it is very exact and is
important to the central dogma
refers to how the four bases are arranged in
which the cellular machinery can read them to turn them
into a protein
Genetic code
Amino acids are activated first by an enzyme
aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase
Enzyme activation requires
tRNA, ATP, and Mg2+ cofactor
Prerequisite to initiate translation
Activation of enzyme
Also needs the first amino acid, Met – codon AUG (which when mehylated becomes ______
fMet-tRNAfMET
Ribosomal units involved in Enzyme activation
30S, 50S ribosomal subunits, Initiation factors (IF1, IF2,
IF3)
Occurs after activation
Initiation
Initiation requires ATP and magnesium
FALSE
does not need ATP but GTP and magnesium
GTP is a nucleotide named Guanosine triphosphate
Elongation requires
need 70S ribosomal subunit, codons of mRNA,
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
these elongation factors propagate nucleotide
TFTU, TFTS, TFG
Elongation also requires
GTP and Magnesium
Termination requires
70S ribosomal subunit, terminal codon of mRNA
UAA, UAG, UGA), release factors (RF1, RF2, RF3
Termination also needs
GTP and magnesium
this sequence is recognized/found in Escherichia coli
ribosomes (gram-negative bacteria; one of the most
used microorganisms apart from yeast)
Shine-Dalgarno Sequence
TRUE OR FALSE
Shine-Dalgarno Sequence lie about 10 nucleotides upstream from their
respective AUG (initiation) start codon and are
complementary to the UCCU core sequence element of
E. coli present in 16S ribosomal RNA
TRUE
Activation of an amino acid is the formation of
amino
acid-tRNA
Mechanism of amino acid activation
base Adenosine + an amino acid (keep on adding 1
amino acid residue to increase the chain, initiate the chain of reaction)
o first amino acid: AUG (Methionine)
o will split eventually into amino acid-AMP +
pyrophosphate (inorganic phosphate)
cleavage of two phosphate molecules
Activation of amino acid and initiation of protein synthesis expressed in E. coli requires
ATP (need energy-rich containing compound)
the activated amino acid is bound to its own particular
tRNA by what bond
ester bond
tRNA looks like a
inverted clover leaf or cross
o tRNA structure: there is a 3’ end and at the opposite side
is a 5’ end
o in the presence of _______, this will
split into two and be ready for attachment for the chain
initiation step
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
TRUE OR FALSE
amino acid activation is a two-stage reaction that allows
selectivity at two levels
TRUE
what are the two-stage reaction of amino acid activation
(1) amino acid-AMP remains bound to
the enzyme and binding of the correct amino acid is
verified by an editing site on the tRNA synthetases
tRNA: (2) there are specific binding sites on tRNAs that
are recognized by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
one of the two stage reaction in amino acid activation
§ This stage is very important, and accuracy is vital.
§ First base (Wobble Base Pair) is very importan
tRNA recognized by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
TRUE OR FALSE
Once the amino acid is on its tRNA, there is no other
opportunity to check for correct pairing
TRUE
The anticodon of the tRNA will match up with its
correct codon on the mRNA regardless of whether it
is carrying the correct amino acid.
This is why you would expect problems in protein
synthesis (Gigantism, Dwarfism) where some genes
are not activated/expressed/suppressed.
There are repressor, suppressor, activator, promoter
genes, which can be manipulated/edited already and
that is the essence of
Gene therapy
Importance of newborn screening:
to identify the
genetic defect or mutation that has been committed
during DNA transcription and translation and make
some corrections as early as birth
Elements Needed in Initiation Steps (Step 1):
o f-Met tRNA o 30S Subunit o Initiation Codon (AUG) o Shine-Dalgarno Sequence - species the first amino acid sequence o Template o GTP o Initiation factors (IF 1,2,3)
Elements Needed in Initiation Steps (Step 2):
: The 50S ribosomal subunit is added forming the full
complex
o First amino acid has been produced (formylN-met) facilitated by GTP
o Other needed: Elongation Factor 1,2
o Initiate the addition amino acid residue one after the other
oFormation of an initiation complex.
Three very important binding sites (present in 50s and 70s)
for tRNA in the Chain Elongation Step:
o Peptidyl Site (P)
§ Binds a tRNA that carries a peptide chain
o Aminoacyl Site (A)
§ Binds an incoming amino acid residue
o Exit Site (E )
§ Carries an unchanged tRNA that is about to be
released from the ribosomes
The initiation steps begin with the addition of the second
amino acid specified by the mRNA to a
70s initiation
complex (Met)
TRUE OR FALSE
o Whatever the second codon dictates, that will be the
second amino acid synthesized.
TRUE
WHAT Site on the ribosome is the one initially occupied by the f-MET-tRNAfMet in the 70s initiation complex.
P Site
The second aminoacyl tRNA binds to what site
A site
A triplet
of tRNA bases (anticodon), provided by the tRNA, consists
of a triplet and forms hydrogen bonds
The anticodon forms what bond with the mRNA transcript
H-bonds
o Wobble Base Pairing
o First that is changed or vary
o The second and third, almost the same
In order for chain elongation to happen there must be
peptide bond is formed
o Producing amino acids and they are joined through this.
o There must be an occurrence of peptide bonds in order
to elongate the chain of nucleotides
Chain elongation is catalyzed by
Catalyzed by the peptidyl transferase (part of the 50s
ribosomal subunit)
Refers to the propagation of nucleotide or continuous
addition of nucleotides one after the other
Chain elongation
Steps in Chain elongation
- Affects binding through aminoacyl tRNA binding
- Peptide bond formation catalyzed by peptidyl transferase
- Translocation takes place before another amino acid can be
added to the growing polypeptide chain.
Stabilizes the bond, the primary structure of a protein
Peptide bond formation
Simply continuously adding amino acid residues that’s why
you have monopeptide, dipeptide, tripeptide, hexapeptide,
octapeptide and so On
In peptide bond formation there is the participation of what sites
A site and P site
Last stage/Fourth step in protein synthesis of E. coli
Chain termination
Chain termination requires:
- Termination codons/stop codons (UAA, UAG, OR UGA) of mRNA
- Releasing factors that cleave the polypeptide chain from
the last tRNA and release the tRNA from the ribosome
You need here the 70S ribosomes and also
thereleasing factors RF 1, RF 2, RF 3, that cleave
the polypeptide chain in the last tRNA and release
the tRNA from the ribosome and then itatapon na
lang iyon, di na siya kailangan kasi nakaencode na
tayo ng protein, nakatranslate na tayo ng amino acid
residues
If protein synthesis is not controlled there are no stop codons what will be observed (conditions)
gigantism and dwarfism
The various methods used by organisms to control which genes will be expressed and when not to express
Gene regulation
Gene regulation requires
Release factors and GTP bond to the A-site
o that is the role of A-site
Mechanism of Gene regulation
Hydrolyzation of peptide from tRNA
Finally, the entire complex dissociates (broken down into
smaller pieces), and the ribosome, mRNA, and other
factors are recycled.
TRUE OR FALSE
All gene regulation operates at transcriptional level
FALSE
o Some regulations operate at the transcriptional level
(DNAàRNA)
o Others operate at the translational level
(mRNAàProtein)
§ call this Post translational modification
§ poly A tail
§ methylation
In eukaryotes, transcription is regulated by three elements:
promoters, enhancers, and response elements,
silencers
Located adjacent to the transcription site
o transcription initiation site
Promoters
Promoters Are defined by
an initiator and conserved sequences
such as TATA or GC boxes
consist of repetitive units of T (thymine) and A (Adenine)
TATA box
Consist of Guanine and Cytosine
o GC box
Different ___ bind to different modules of
the promoter region
transcription factors
TRUE OR FALSE
Transcription factors allow the rate of the synthesis of
mRNA (and from there the target protein) vary by a factor of
up to a million
TRUE
o We are not transcribing only 10 mRNA transcript, it
could amount to millions and millions
o A human genome consists of billions of genomes
o It took years and years to study the whole human
genome
TRUE OR FALSE
The higher and bigger the organism is, the more
genome there exist
TRUE
Transcription factors find their targeted sites by twisting
their protein chains so that a certain amino acid sequence
us present at the surface
this is done by its different motifs:
metal binding fingers – zinc finger (made up of ions) form covalent bonds with the side chain of the protein. Zinc finger allows the protein to bind in the major groove of DNA
The conformational twist provided consist of amino acid residues
s Cysteine and Histidine,
sandwiched zinc
you can see here the α and β-pleated sheets
conformation on the secondary structure given here
(right pic)
§ positively charged Histidine and Cysteine (-SH)
groups is negatively charged and zinc has a certain
affinity with Cysteine
Metal-binding Fingers
Two other prominent transcription factors are
the helixturn-helix and the leucine zipper
Transcription factors also process
repressors, which
reduce the rate of transcription
reduce the rate of transcription
repressors
minsan silenced pa that’s why may tinatawag na
silencer
Zinc finger proteins follow what groove of DNA
major groove
In alternate splicing we need the
spliceosome
in case of mutation, sickness, so that you can silent
or splice, remove the genes and can be done by various
means like:
o skipped exon o alternative 5’ splice sites o alternative 3’ splice sites o retained intron o mutually exclusive exon retention
THIS IS DONE BY
CRSPR technology or gene editing
you need gene regulation for a variety of
means:
Control at the translation level to ensure quality
control (parang check and balance)
• 1. the specificity of a tRNA for its unique amino acid
o To dictate the order of sequence
• 2. recognition of the stop codon
o Remember the 3 stop codon
• 3. post transitional control o (a) removal of methionine o (b) chaperoning o (C) degradation of misfolded proteins § If not, it could lead to several disorder due to misfolded proteins because it can tend to misfold or overfolding like mad cow’s disease and etc.
Wobble base pairing, which part of protein synthesis?
2nd step (chain initiation step)
First step:
Second step:
First step: activation Second step: interaction of tRNA, provides anticoding and partners with mRNA transcript which provides the codon; § It happens in ribosomal subunit (30s - chain initiation, 70s – chain elongation)
Which comes first chandigarh sequence or wobble base pairing?
Chandigarh sequence first before
wobble base pairing
Without this sequence, protein synthesis wont effect
Chandigarh sequence
Biosynthesis of RNA is called
Protein synthesis is called
transcription
Translation
When DNA is used as a template to produce RNA, that is
what you call
transcription
made up of building blocks of amino acids
residues
Proteins
The central dogma of molecular biology:
Information contained in DNA molecules is expressed in
the structure of proteins
the turning on or
activation of a gene
gene expression
A process of using a DNA template
Usually, it serves at the parent strand
transcription
will serve as a template as is to produce the
needed RNA and that process is called transcription.
DNA template
What are the RNAs involved in transcription
mRNA tRNA rRNA miRNA siRNA snRNA
What is needed in DNA replication that is not needed in transcription
Primase enzyme - primer
TRUE OR FALSE
all polynucleotide synthesis reaction proceeds
from the 5’ to the 3’ direction
TRUE
The process in which information encoded in a DNA
molecule (coming from the parent strand) is copied into
mRNA molecules
TRANSCRIPTION
DNA Replication takes place in:
Transcription takes place in:
DNA Replication takes place in: cytoplasm
Transcription takes place in: nucleus
TRUE OR FALSE
transcription starts when the DNA double Helix begins to
unwind near the gene to be transcribed
TRUE
___ marks the start of transcription
signals or initiations
TRUE OR FALSE
in transcriptions deoxyribonucleotides are involved
FALSE
ribonucleotides
TRUE OR FALSE
ribonucleotides assemble along the unwound DNA strand in
a complementary sequence
TRUE
RNA is usually synthesized using a DNA template in the
process called
TRANSCRIPTION
What is the enzyme that catalyzes the transcription
DNA
dependent RNA polymerase
The ribonucleotides has
Ribose
Purine bases (A,G)
Pyrimidine (U,C)
Phosphate
What are the 4 ribonucleotide triphosphate
these are required along with
magnesium ion during the process of transcription
ATP,
GTP, CTP, and UTP –
The enzyme polymerase also catalyze transcription
Poly I:
Poly II:
Poly III:
Poly I: rRNA formation
Poly II: mRNA
Poly III: tRNA formation
The bubble is also called the
initiation site
Prokaryotic transcription is catalyzed also by RNA
Polymerase, which is about 470,000 Daltons (molecular
mass) with five (5) types of subunits:
o Two (2) Alpha (α), o Beta (β) o Beta-1/Beta prime (β’) o Sigma (σ)
Transcription can be further subdivided into (3) three parts
Initiation
Elongation / Propagation
Termination
So which of the DNA strand is used for transcription?
DNA strand
(From 3 prime to 5 prime), and produce the RNA from
5 prime to 3 prime.
the DNA strand whose base sequence is identical to the base sequence of the RNA transcript produced (although with thymine replaced by uracil).
Coding strand (5’ to 3’)
Kinds of Polymerase in Prokaryote and in Eukaryote
Prokaryote: 2 Alpha subunit 1 Beta subunit 1 Beta' subunit 1 sigma subunit
Eukaryote:
Poly I
Poly II
Poly III
molecular mass of rRNA polymerase
470,000 Daltons
A eukaryotic gene has two parts:
structural gene
Regulatory gene
There is always a sequence of bases on the DNA strand called
initiation signal (other books call is as transcription initiation site).
Promoters also contain
consensus like TATA box
a DNA sequence near the
transcription start site or TSS (Campbell and Farrell) that is bound by RNA polymerase
during transcription-initiation process
Promoter
These are DNA sequence farther
away from the start site
Enhancers
Main role of Enhancers
they bind tp proteins
and these are called transcription factors and
stimulate transcription
The -10 box is called
Pribnow box / Goldberg-Hogness box
The -35 box is called
lies approximately 26 base pairs upstream
TATA box
Enhancers binds to ___ to enhance the transcription and are interact with _____
Transcription factors
RNA polymerase
The promoters and key
elements are sequences at
-35 region and -10 region
In prokaryotes RNA polymerase is directed to the gene to be transcribed by interactions between the
polymerase sigma subunit and promoter region
After initiation has taken place, RNA polymerase zips up the complementary bases in a process called
elongation or propagation
involves formation of a phosphate ester bonds between each ribose and the next phosphate
group.
Elongation
Elongation is in the 5’ -> 3’ direction
can direct RNA polymerase
to different promoters altering the choice of RNA product
Sigma factors of Prokaryotic transcription
Accounts for what are up regulated or down regulated,
expressed, unexpressed, overexpressed
Enhancers and Silencers
role of the small non-coding
RNA.
Inhibition of transcription by binding to the template strand
The RNA products of transcription are not necessarily
functional RNAs they are made functional by the
post-transcription modification
What are the three recognizable motifs of transcription factors
- Helix-turn-helix
- Major structural motif that is capable of binding to DNA - Zinc fingers (metal binding finger)
- Small structural motif that is described as coordination of one or more zinc ion to stabilize the fold
- Binds to the major groove of the DNA - Basic region leucine finger
What are the Protein modifications:
Removal of Methionine (N-formylmethionine)
Chaperoning (Chaperones) help proteins attain their correct form
Degradation of misfolded proteins
Formation of Poly A tail
Enzyme that governs the post translational modification
Proteasome
TRUE OR FALSE
Proteasome is only found in eukaryotes
FALSE
found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Example of Proteasome
Lysosome
Another regulatory protein aside from proteases
targets proteins for destruction in proteasome
Ubuiquitin / Ubiquinol (ubiquination)
this is a neurodegenerative
disorder and usually occur in the mid-60s or early 60s,
the onset of which may be experience by few during
senior years.
Parkinson’s disease
One of the factors affecting this neurological
or neurodegenerative diseases is the entanglement
of proteins present in some regions of the brain.
Which is why proper folding would be very crucial in
here. You can see how proteins should be folded
properly to avoid this.
Alzheimer’s disease
– it has something to do
again with proper protein folding
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease –
An error in the copying of a sequence of bases
Mutation
An error in the copying of a sequence of bases
Mutation
can cause damage and eventually, death or
apoptosis (programmed cell death)
Mutation
It is estimated that, on average, there is one copying error
for every
10^10 bases
Mutation happens every minute, hour, or day. Its effects
are insurmountable
2 types of Mutations can occur during replication
Spontaneous mutation: It can result from DNA
copying mistakes during cell division
Induced mutation: Mutation is due to exposure to
ionizing radiation such as X-rays
even when there is a substation mutation
in one nucleotide, nothing will change
Silent mutation
single alteration in the DNA base
pair
o This results to the production of a stop codon (UAA,
UGA, UAG)
Nonsense mutation
Worst type of mutation
– addition of more than one base pairs in the DNA sequences
– removal of more than one base pairs
Frameshift Mutations
Insertion mutation
Deletion mutation
Errors in the copying of sequence of bases, specifically
in the replication of viral RNA of the retrovirus
Mutations (and Variants)
Viruses end up being similar but not exact copies of the
original strain of the virus and are now known as
____ of the virus
Variants
have occurred in bacteria to survive in the
presence of antibiotic drugs
mutation
Mutation of bacteria for survival of antibiotic drugs lead to the evolution of
antibiotic-resistant
strains like Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA)
so they develop certain resistance gene (become
stronger)
most common type of mutation in human DNA
G-T
mutation (a single mutation)
occurs about once in every 10,000 – 100,00 base
pairs considering that a human genome contain 3
billion base pairs
TRUE OR FALSE
mutational effects can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
TRUE
mutational effects can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
(as in the case of silent mutation) depending on their context of location
most non-neutral mutations are
deleterious
Types of Mutation
occur in other body cells
A. Germline B. Somatic C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration D. Transition E. Transversion
B. Somatic
Types of Mutation
base change from pyrimidine to another pyrimidine
or purine to another purine
A. Germline B. Somatic C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration D. Transition E. Transversion
D. Transition
Types of Mutation
occur in meats
A. Germline B. Somatic C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration D. Transition E. Transversion
A. Germline
Types of Mutation
base change from purine to pyrimidine or vice versa
A. Germline B. Somatic C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration D. Transition E. Transversion
E. Transversion
Types of Mutation
represent mutations that change chromosome structure
A. Germline B. Somatic C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration D. Transition E. Transversion
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
Types of Mutation
may be due to ionizing radiation (an active mutagenic
substance); an example would be leukemia due to ill
effects of radiation
A. Germline B. Somatic C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration D. Transition E. Transversion
E. Transversion
- agent of substance that could bring about a
permanent alteration to physical composition of a DNA
gene, such that the genetic message is changed.
Mutagen
example of mutation wherein - accumulation of Phe
Phenylketonuria
Mutation that can be happen anytime, whether
we like it or not.
spontaneous mutation
a chemical that causes a base change or
mutation in DNA.
mutagen
Many changes in base sequence caused by radiation and
mutagens do not become mutations because cells have
repair mechanisms called
nucleotide excision repair
(NER).
NER can prevent mutations by cutting out damaged
areas and resynthesizing the proper sequence.
TRUE OR FALSE
All mutations whether spontaneous or induced are harmful
FALSE
Not all mutations are harmful.
Certain ones may be beneficial because they enhance the
survival rate of the species.
One of the important structure in the bases is the
inclusion of the amine group (NH2)
If there is removal amine group, this is called
spontaneous demaination
TRUE OR FALSE
Formation of apurinic and apyrimidic site is a spontaneous mutation
TRUE ?????? di sure sa tanong na to
DNA from two sources that have been combined into one molecule
Sources may not be related with each other (plant, frog,
bacteria, humans)
Recombinant DNA:
Gram negative bacteria
Commonly used microorganism to elucidate the
molecular biology of the cell, together with
Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
o E.coli
A small, circular, double-stranded DNA
molecule of bacterial origin.
Primarily coming from E.coli
PLASMID
A class of enzymes called \_\_\_\_ cleave DNA at specific locations.
Short fragments only (3,4,6 fragments)
restriction endonucleases
Eukaryotic DNA is wound around a core of 8 histone proteins
to form a ___
nucleosome
represents the 1st level of DNA compaction in the nucleus
nucleosome
The histones may then be modified by (3) as a potential mechanism
for regulating gene expression.
acetylation,
phosphorylation, and methylation
refers to creating a genetically identical population
Gene cloning
creates sticky ends in the DNA after cleaving
restriction endonuclease enzymes
This recombinant DNA has a target DNA sequence, usually carried out in a vector
(plasmid or a virus)
____ sequences inserted into the host organism
and used to create many copies
target DNA sequences
organisms that are carrying the target DNA are identified
through a process called
those that were able to express the desired gene of
interest,
Selection
After restriction endonucleases cleave off the human genes, they are joined together by what enzyme
DNA ligase
An Organism whose genetic material has been
altered using genetic engineering techniques
Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)
Upsides of the GMO
provides resistance to a specific disease or insect,
ensuring greater food produce
important sources of medicine
Similar to Genetically Modified Organism
A process of inserting genes of interest into specific Organism
Genetic Engineering
Human peptide
hormone produced in bacteria through cloning and
expression
recombinant erythropoietin
Used as factories to produce a protein from a
cloned gene
to produce the protein product of a gene of interest, the gene must be cloned into an expression vector (carrier) with special features that allows it to be
transcribed and translated into the whole cell
Bacteria
a robust, rapid method used in Making a copy of a piece of DNA (coming from
saliva where DNA may not be enough or hair or
sputum or sperm cell, and so on) and at the same
time adding restriction sites to the ends of the piece
of DNA so that it can easily be cloned into a
backbone marker of choice with minimal limitations
PCR-based cloning
TRUE OR FALSE
PCR is incredibly versatile and allows for nearly all
pieces of DNA to be placed into a backbone
marker
true
2 types of PCR test
Rapid antigen
RT-PCR
Point-of-care testing that directly detects the
presence or absence of an antigen against SARSCoV-2
Rapid antigen
Advantages:
o Quite easy to do
o Can be availed in drive-thrus or pop-up site.
Involves someone taking a sample
Rapid antigen
TRUE OR FALSE
Rapid antigen is accurate
false
not nearly as
accurate or good as the RT-PCR
Detects an ongoing COVID-19 infection, more
expensive option, requires more human labor as well
as laboratory capacity to complete
RT-PCR
RT-PCR means
RT-PCR means Real Time-PCR
This test cannot tell you if you have had COVID in
the past. It is only design to detect an ongoing
infection
RT-PCR
More sensitive than the Rapid antigen test
o More accurate than rapid antigen test
It measures PCR test can take up
very tiny amounts of virus so that they have a high likelihood of catching infections and not giving
false negative.
RT-PCR
a technique whereby a missing gene is replaced by a viral vector
Gene Therapy
An experimental technique that uses genes to treat or
prevent disease
Gene Therapy
An example of this technique is the CRISPR gene editing
Gene Therapy
a genetic engineering technique by which
the genomes simplified version of the
bacterial CRISPR-Cas9 antiviral defense
system
CRISPR gene editing
edits genes by precisely cutting DNA and then letting
natural DNA repair processes to take over
This will form now part of the Transformative therapy
CRISPR / Cas 9
The control process by which the expression of genes is turned on or off
gene regulation
