Transcription part 2 Flashcards
1
Q
what are the RNAs that participate in translation
A
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
2
Q
which provides the anticodon, partnering with the codon
of the mRNA transcript.
A
tRNA
3
Q
Protein synthesis takes place on
A
ribosomes
4
Q
Types of Ribosome subunits and their functions
A
30S (involved in activation)
50S (involved in the activation and chain initiation step during translation)
70S (involved in the
chain elongation step of the 3rd step of protein synthesis)
5
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
A ribosome dissociates into a larger and a smaller body
A
TRUE
6
Q
In higher organisms, including humans, the ribosome larger body is called ____ and the smaller body is ____
A
LArger: 60S
Smaller body: 40S
7
Q
The 5’ end of the mature mRNA is bonded to what ribosome
A
40S ribosome and then this unit is then joined to the 60S ribosome
8
Q
Triplets of bases on mRNA are called
A
codon
9
Q
Start codon is
A
AUG - MEthionine
Cannot initiate translation without this
10
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
one tRNA can carry three amino acids
A
FALSE
Each tRNA is specific for only one amino acid
11
Q
Each cell carries at least
A
20 specific enzymes, each specific
for one amino acid
12
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
Each enzyme recognizes only one tRNA
A
TRUE
13
Q
First step in translation –
A
amino acid activation
14
Q
how does amino acid activation happens?
A
The enzyme bonds the activated amino acid to the 3’
terminal –OH group of the appropriate tRNA by an ester bond
15
Q
At the opposite end of the tRNA molecule is a
A
codon
recognition site
16
Q
The codon recognition site is a sequence of three bases
called an
A
anticodon which is provided by the tRNA
17
Q
This triplet of bases aligns itself in a _____
to the codon triplet on mRNA to produce the amino acid
residues
A
complementary fashion
18
Q
TRUE OR FALSE
bases always follow the
Watson–Crick base pairing rule.
A
FALSE
Bases do not always pair according to the
Watson–Crick base pairing rule.
19
Q
There are a
variety of alternative H-bonded base pairing
arrangements called
A
non-Watson or wobble base pairs
20
Q
Type of base pairing exists between the codon (mRNA) and anti-codon
(tRNA) base pair
A
non-Watson or wobble base pairs
21
Q
an analog that can pair with C,T, or A
A
I - Inosine
22
Q
Unlike base pairings happen between _____ and the presence of
amino groups at the 6th position
A
G and
A since both are purines
23
Q
There are 64 genetic codes and only 20 amino acids
how many codes for amino acids
and how many are for termination
A
But only 61 codes for amino acids, 3 codons are for
termination
24
Q
If mRNA is polyU what is formed
A
polyPHE
25
; the triplet UUU,
| therefore, must code
Phe
26
ACA must code for
Thr
27
CAC codes for
His
28
TRUE OR FALSE
Genetic code is degenerate
TRUE
meaning AUG is a single codon that would only code for met
29
UGG only codes for
Trp
30
How many codons codes for stop codon
3 codons
31
what are the stop codons
UAA, UAG, UGA
32
this codon signals translation-initiation step
AUG Met start codon
33
TRUE OR FALSE
Codons are continuous and unpunctuated
TRUE
34
TRUE OR FALSE
There will be overlapping codons and nucleotides
interspersed
FALSE
There are no overlapping codons and no nucleotides
interspersed
35
TRUE OR FALSE
The code is almost universal
TRUE
: Same in viruses, prokaryotes,
and eukaryotes
o Except for some codons in the mitochondria, which are
different
36
TRUE OR FALSE
Genetic code is sometimes ambiguous
FALSE
Genetic code is unambiguous – it is very exact and is
important to the central dogma
37
refers to how the four bases are arranged in
which the cellular machinery can read them to turn them
into a protein
Genetic code
38
Amino acids are activated first by an enzyme
aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase
39
Enzyme activation requires
tRNA, ATP, and Mg2+ cofactor
40
Prerequisite to initiate translation
Activation of enzyme
41
Also needs the first amino acid, Met – codon AUG (which when mehylated becomes ______
fMet-tRNAfMET
42
Ribosomal units involved in Enzyme activation
30S, 50S ribosomal subunits, Initiation factors (IF1, IF2,
| IF3)
43
Occurs after activation
Initiation
44
Initiation requires ATP and magnesium
FALSE
does not need ATP but GTP and magnesium
GTP is a nucleotide named Guanosine triphosphate
45
Elongation requires
need 70S ribosomal subunit, codons of mRNA,
| aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
46
these elongation factors propagate nucleotide
TFTU, TFTS, TFG
47
Elongation also requires
GTP and Magnesium
48
Termination requires
70S ribosomal subunit, terminal codon of mRNA
| UAA, UAG, UGA), release factors (RF1, RF2, RF3
49
Termination also needs
GTP and magnesium
50
this sequence is recognized/found in Escherichia coli
ribosomes (gram-negative bacteria; one of the most
used microorganisms apart from yeast)
Shine-Dalgarno Sequence
51
TRUE OR FALSE
Shine-Dalgarno Sequence lie about 10 nucleotides upstream from their
respective AUG (initiation) start codon and are
complementary to the UCCU core sequence element of
E. coli present in 16S ribosomal RNA
TRUE
52
Activation of an amino acid is the formation of
amino
| acid-tRNA
53
Mechanism of amino acid activation
base Adenosine + an amino acid (keep on adding 1
amino acid residue to increase the chain, initiate the chain of reaction)
o first amino acid: AUG (Methionine)
o will split eventually into amino acid-AMP +
pyrophosphate (inorganic phosphate)
cleavage of two phosphate molecules
54
Activation of amino acid and initiation of protein synthesis expressed in E. coli requires
ATP (need energy-rich containing compound)
55
the activated amino acid is bound to its own particular
| tRNA by what bond
ester bond
56
tRNA looks like a
inverted clover leaf or cross
o tRNA structure: there is a 3’ end and at the opposite side
is a 5’ end
57
o in the presence of _______, this will
split into two and be ready for attachment for the chain
initiation step
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
58
TRUE OR FALSE
amino acid activation is a two-stage reaction that allows
selectivity at two levels
TRUE
59
what are the two-stage reaction of amino acid activation
(1) amino acid-AMP remains bound to
the enzyme and binding of the correct amino acid is
verified by an editing site on the tRNA synthetases
tRNA: (2) there are specific binding sites on tRNAs that
are recognized by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
60
one of the two stage reaction in amino acid activation
§ This stage is very important, and accuracy is vital.
§ First base (Wobble Base Pair) is very importan
tRNA recognized by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
61
TRUE OR FALSE
Once the amino acid is on its tRNA, there is no other
opportunity to check for correct pairing
TRUE
The anticodon of the tRNA will match up with its
correct codon on the mRNA regardless of whether it
is carrying the correct amino acid.
This is why you would expect problems in protein
synthesis (Gigantism, Dwarfism) where some genes
are not activated/expressed/suppressed.
62
There are repressor, suppressor, activator, promoter
genes, which can be manipulated/edited already and
that is the essence of
Gene therapy
63
Importance of newborn screening:
to identify the
genetic defect or mutation that has been committed
during DNA transcription and translation and make
some corrections as early as birth
64
Elements Needed in Initiation Steps (Step 1):
```
o f-Met tRNA
o 30S Subunit
o Initiation Codon (AUG)
o Shine-Dalgarno Sequence - species the first amino acid
sequence
o Template
o GTP
o Initiation factors (IF 1,2,3)
```
65
Elements Needed in Initiation Steps (Step 2):
: The 50S ribosomal subunit is added forming the full
complex
o First amino acid has been produced (formylN-met) facilitated by GTP
o Other needed: Elongation Factor 1,2
o Initiate the addition amino acid residue one after the other
oFormation of an initiation complex.
66
Three very important binding sites (present in 50s and 70s)
| for tRNA in the Chain Elongation Step:
o Peptidyl Site (P)
§ Binds a tRNA that carries a peptide chain
o Aminoacyl Site (A)
§ Binds an incoming amino acid residue
o Exit Site (E )
§ Carries an unchanged tRNA that is about to be
released from the ribosomes
67
The initiation steps begin with the addition of the second
| amino acid specified by the mRNA to a
70s initiation
| complex (Met)
68
TRUE OR FALSE
o Whatever the second codon dictates, that will be the
second amino acid synthesized.
TRUE
69
WHAT Site on the ribosome is the one initially occupied by the f-MET-tRNAfMet in the 70s initiation complex.
P Site
70
The second aminoacyl tRNA binds to what site
A site
A triplet
of tRNA bases (anticodon), provided by the tRNA, consists
of a triplet and forms hydrogen bonds
71
The anticodon forms what bond with the mRNA transcript
H-bonds
o Wobble Base Pairing
o First that is changed or vary
o The second and third, almost the same
72
In order for chain elongation to happen there must be
peptide bond is formed
o Producing amino acids and they are joined through this.
o There must be an occurrence of peptide bonds in order
to elongate the chain of nucleotides
73
Chain elongation is catalyzed by
Catalyzed by the peptidyl transferase (part of the 50s
| ribosomal subunit)
74
Refers to the propagation of nucleotide or continuous
| addition of nucleotides one after the other
Chain elongation
75
Steps in Chain elongation
1. Affects binding through aminoacyl tRNA binding
2. Peptide bond formation catalyzed by peptidyl transferase
3. Translocation takes place before another amino acid can be
added to the growing polypeptide chain.
76
Stabilizes the bond, the primary structure of a protein
Peptide bond formation
Simply continuously adding amino acid residues that’s why
you have monopeptide, dipeptide, tripeptide, hexapeptide,
octapeptide and so On
77
In peptide bond formation there is the participation of what sites
A site and P site
78
Last stage/Fourth step in protein synthesis of E. coli
Chain termination
79
Chain termination requires:
1. Termination codons/stop codons (UAA, UAG, OR UGA) of mRNA
2. Releasing factors that cleave the polypeptide chain from
the last tRNA and release the tRNA from the ribosome
You need here the 70S ribosomes and also
thereleasing factors RF 1, RF 2, RF 3, that cleave
the polypeptide chain in the last tRNA and release
the tRNA from the ribosome and then itatapon na
lang iyon, di na siya kailangan kasi nakaencode na
tayo ng protein, nakatranslate na tayo ng amino acid
residues
80
If protein synthesis is not controlled there are no stop codons what will be observed (conditions)
gigantism and dwarfism
81
The various methods used by organisms to control which genes will be expressed and when not to express
Gene regulation
82
Gene regulation requires
Release factors and GTP bond to the A-site
| o that is the role of A-site
83
Mechanism of Gene regulation
Hydrolyzation of peptide from tRNA
Finally, the entire complex dissociates (broken down into
smaller pieces), and the ribosome, mRNA, and other
factors are recycled.
84
TRUE OR FALSE
All gene regulation operates at transcriptional level
FALSE
o Some regulations operate at the transcriptional level
(DNAàRNA)
o Others operate at the translational level
(mRNAàProtein)
§ call this Post translational modification
§ poly A tail
§ methylation
85
In eukaryotes, transcription is regulated by three elements:
promoters, enhancers, and response elements,
| silencers
86
Located adjacent to the transcription site
| o transcription initiation site
Promoters
87
Promoters Are defined by
an initiator and conserved sequences
| such as TATA or GC boxes
88
```
consist of repetitive units of T (thymine)
and A (Adenine)
```
TATA box
89
Consist of Guanine and Cytosine
o GC box
90
Different ___ bind to different modules of
| the promoter region
transcription factors
91
TRUE OR FALSE
Transcription factors allow the rate of the synthesis of
mRNA (and from there the target protein) vary by a factor of
up to a million
TRUE
o We are not transcribing only 10 mRNA transcript, it
could amount to millions and millions
o A human genome consists of billions of genomes
o It took years and years to study the whole human
genome
92
TRUE OR FALSE
The higher and bigger the organism is, the more
genome there exist
TRUE
93
Transcription factors find their targeted sites by twisting
their protein chains so that a certain amino acid sequence
us present at the surface
this is done by its different motifs:
metal binding fingers -- zinc finger (made up of ions) form covalent bonds with the side chain of the protein. Zinc finger allows the protein to bind in the major groove of DNA
94
The conformational twist provided consist of amino acid residues
s Cysteine and Histidine,
| sandwiched zinc
95
you can see here the α and β-pleated sheets
conformation on the secondary structure given here
(right pic)
§ positively charged Histidine and Cysteine (-SH)
groups is negatively charged and zinc has a certain
affinity with Cysteine
Metal-binding Fingers
96
Two other prominent transcription factors are
the helixturn-helix and the leucine zipper
97
Transcription factors also process
repressors, which
| reduce the rate of transcription
98
reduce the rate of transcription
repressors
minsan silenced pa that’s why may tinatawag na
silencer
99
Zinc finger proteins follow what groove of DNA
major groove
100
In alternate splicing we need the
spliceosome
101
in case of mutation, sickness, so that you can silent
or splice, remove the genes and can be done by various
means like:
```
o skipped exon
o alternative 5’ splice sites
o alternative 3’ splice sites
o retained intron
o mutually exclusive exon retention
```
THIS IS DONE BY
CRSPR technology or gene editing
102
you need gene regulation for a variety of
| means:
Control at the translation level to ensure quality
control (parang check and balance)
• 1. the specificity of a tRNA for its unique amino acid
o To dictate the order of sequence
• 2. recognition of the stop codon
o Remember the 3 stop codon
```
• 3. post transitional control
o (a) removal of methionine
o (b) chaperoning
o (C) degradation of misfolded proteins
§ If not, it could lead to several
disorder due to misfolded proteins
because it can tend to misfold or
overfolding like mad cow’s disease
and etc.
```
103
Wobble base pairing, which part of protein synthesis?
2nd step (chain initiation step)
104
First step:
| Second step:
```
First step: activation
Second step: interaction of tRNA, provides anticoding and partners with mRNA transcript
which provides the codon;
§ It happens in ribosomal subunit
(30s - chain initiation, 70s – chain
elongation)
```
105
Which comes first chandigarh sequence or wobble base pairing?
Chandigarh sequence first before
| wobble base pairing
106
Without this sequence, protein synthesis wont effect
Chandigarh sequence
107
Biosynthesis of RNA is called
Protein synthesis is called
transcription
Translation
108
When DNA is used as a template to produce RNA, that is
| what you call
transcription
109
made up of building blocks of amino acids
| residues
Proteins
110
The central dogma of molecular biology:
Information contained in DNA molecules is expressed in
| the structure of proteins
111
the turning on or
| activation of a gene
gene expression
112
A process of using a DNA template
Usually, it serves at the parent strand
transcription
113
will serve as a template as is to produce the
| needed RNA and that process is called transcription.
DNA template
114
What are the RNAs involved in transcription
```
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
miRNA
siRNA
snRNA
```
115
What is needed in DNA replication that is not needed in transcription
Primase enzyme - primer
116
TRUE OR FALSE
all polynucleotide synthesis reaction proceeds
from the 5’ to the 3’ direction
TRUE
117
The process in which information encoded in a DNA
molecule (coming from the parent strand) is copied into
mRNA molecules
TRANSCRIPTION
118
DNA Replication takes place in:
Transcription takes place in:
DNA Replication takes place in: cytoplasm
Transcription takes place in: nucleus
119
TRUE OR FALSE
transcription starts when the DNA double Helix begins to
unwind near the gene to be transcribed
TRUE
120
___ marks the start of transcription
signals or initiations
121
TRUE OR FALSE
| in transcriptions deoxyribonucleotides are involved
FALSE
ribonucleotides
122
TRUE OR FALSE
ribonucleotides assemble along the unwound DNA strand in
a complementary sequence
TRUE
123
RNA is usually synthesized using a DNA template in the
| process called
TRANSCRIPTION
124
What is the enzyme that catalyzes the transcription
DNA
| dependent RNA polymerase
125
The ribonucleotides has
Ribose
Purine bases (A,G)
Pyrimidine (U,C)
Phosphate
126
What are the 4 ribonucleotide triphosphate
these are required along with
magnesium ion during the process of transcription
ATP,
| GTP, CTP, and UTP –
127
The enzyme polymerase also catalyze transcription
Poly I:
Poly II:
Poly III:
Poly I: rRNA formation
Poly II: mRNA
Poly III: tRNA formation
128
The bubble is also called the
initiation site
129
Prokaryotic transcription is catalyzed also by RNA
Polymerase, which is about 470,000 Daltons (molecular
mass) with five (5) types of subunits:
```
o Two (2) Alpha (α),
o Beta (β)
o Beta-1/Beta prime (β’)
o Sigma (σ)
```
130
Transcription can be further subdivided into (3) three parts
Initiation
Elongation / Propagation
Termination
131
So which of the DNA strand is used for transcription?
DNA strand
(From 3 prime to 5 prime), and produce the RNA from
5 prime to 3 prime.
132
the DNA strand whose base sequence is identical to the base sequence of the RNA transcript produced (although with thymine replaced by uracil).
Coding strand (5' to 3')
133
Kinds of Polymerase in Prokaryote and in Eukaryote
```
Prokaryote:
2 Alpha subunit
1 Beta subunit
1 Beta' subunit
1 sigma subunit
```
Eukaryote:
Poly I
Poly II
Poly III
134
molecular mass of rRNA polymerase
470,000 Daltons
135
A eukaryotic gene has two parts:
structural gene
Regulatory gene
136
There is always a sequence of bases on the DNA strand called
initiation signal (other books call is as transcription initiation site).
137
Promoters also contain
consensus like TATA box
138
a DNA sequence near the
transcription start site or TSS (Campbell and Farrell) that is bound by RNA polymerase
during transcription-initiation process
Promoter
139
These are DNA sequence farther
| away from the start site
Enhancers
140
Main role of Enhancers
they bind tp proteins
and these are called transcription factors and
stimulate transcription
141
The -10 box is called
Pribnow box / Goldberg-Hogness box
142
The -35 box is called
lies approximately 26 base pairs upstream
TATA box
143
Enhancers binds to ___ to enhance the transcription and are interact with _____
Transcription factors
RNA polymerase
144
The promoters and key
| elements are sequences at
-35 region and -10 region
145
In prokaryotes RNA polymerase is directed to the gene to be transcribed by interactions between the
polymerase sigma subunit and promoter region
146
```
After initiation
has taken place, RNA
polymerase zips up the
complementary bases in a
process called
```
elongation or propagation
147
involves formation of a phosphate ester bonds between each ribose and the next phosphate
group.
Elongation
Elongation is in the 5’ -> 3’ direction
148
can direct RNA polymerase
| to different promoters altering the choice of RNA product
Sigma factors of Prokaryotic transcription
149
Accounts for what are up regulated or down regulated,
| expressed, unexpressed, overexpressed
Enhancers and Silencers
150
role of the small non-coding
| RNA.
Inhibition of transcription by binding to the template strand
151
The RNA products of transcription are not necessarily
| functional RNAs they are made functional by the
post-transcription modification
152
What are the three recognizable motifs of transcription factors
1. Helix-turn-helix
- Major structural motif that is capable of binding to DNA
2. Zinc fingers (metal binding finger)
- Small structural motif that is described as coordination of one or more zinc ion to stabilize the fold
- Binds to the major groove of the DNA
3. Basic region leucine finger
153
What are the Protein modifications:
Removal of Methionine (N-formylmethionine)
Chaperoning (Chaperones) help proteins attain their correct form
Degradation of misfolded proteins
Formation of Poly A tail
154
Enzyme that governs the post translational modification
Proteasome
155
TRUE OR FALSE
| Proteasome is only found in eukaryotes
FALSE
| found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
156
Example of Proteasome
Lysosome
157
Another regulatory protein aside from proteases
targets proteins for destruction in proteasome
Ubuiquitin / Ubiquinol (ubiquination)
158
this is a neurodegenerative
disorder and usually occur in the mid-60s or early 60s,
the onset of which may be experience by few during
senior years.
Parkinson’s disease
159
One of the factors affecting this neurological
or neurodegenerative diseases is the entanglement
of proteins present in some regions of the brain.
Which is why proper folding would be very crucial in
here. You can see how proteins should be folded
properly to avoid this.
Alzheimer’s disease
160
– it has something to do
| again with proper protein folding
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease –
161
An error in the copying of a sequence of bases
Mutation
162
An error in the copying of a sequence of bases
Mutation
163
can cause damage and eventually, death or
| apoptosis (programmed cell death)
Mutation
164
It is estimated that, on average, there is one copying error
for every
10^10 bases
Mutation happens every minute, hour, or day. Its effects
are insurmountable
165
2 types of Mutations can occur during replication
Spontaneous mutation: It can result from DNA
copying mistakes during cell division
Induced mutation: Mutation is due to exposure to
ionizing radiation such as X-rays
166
even when there is a substation mutation
| in one nucleotide, nothing will change
Silent mutation
167
single alteration in the DNA base
pair
o This results to the production of a stop codon (UAA,
UGA, UAG)
Nonsense mutation
168
Worst type of mutation
– addition of more than one base pairs in the DNA sequences
– removal of more than one base pairs
Frameshift Mutations
Insertion mutation
Deletion mutation
169
Errors in the copying of sequence of bases, specifically
| in the replication of viral RNA of the retrovirus
Mutations (and Variants)
170
Viruses end up being similar but not exact copies of the
original strain of the virus and are now known as
____ of the virus
Variants
171
have occurred in bacteria to survive in the
| presence of antibiotic drugs
mutation
172
Mutation of bacteria for survival of antibiotic drugs lead to the evolution of
antibiotic-resistant
strains like Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA)
so they develop certain resistance gene (become
stronger)
173
most common type of mutation in human DNA
G-T
mutation (a single mutation)
occurs about once in every 10,000 – 100,00 base
pairs considering that a human genome contain 3
billion base pairs
174
TRUE OR FALSE
mutational effects can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
TRUE
mutational effects can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
(as in the case of silent mutation) depending on their context of location
175
most non-neutral mutations are
deleterious
176
Types of Mutation
occur in other body cells
```
A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
```
B. Somatic
177
Types of Mutation
base change from pyrimidine to another pyrimidine
or purine to another purine
```
A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
```
D. Transition
178
Types of Mutation
occur in meats
```
A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
```
A. Germline
179
Types of Mutation
base change from purine to pyrimidine or vice versa
```
A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
```
E. Transversion
180
Types of Mutation
represent mutations that change chromosome structure
```
A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
```
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
181
Types of Mutation
may be due to ionizing radiation (an active mutagenic
substance); an example would be leukemia due to ill
effects of radiation
```
A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
```
E. Transversion
182
- agent of substance that could bring about a
permanent alteration to physical composition of a DNA
gene, such that the genetic message is changed.
Mutagen
183
example of mutation wherein - accumulation of Phe
Phenylketonuria
184
Mutation that can be happen anytime, whether
| we like it or not.
spontaneous mutation
185
a chemical that causes a base change or
| mutation in DNA.
mutagen
186
Many changes in base sequence caused by radiation and
mutagens do not become mutations because cells have
repair mechanisms called
nucleotide excision repair
(NER).
NER can prevent mutations by cutting out damaged
areas and resynthesizing the proper sequence.
187
TRUE OR FALSE
All mutations whether spontaneous or induced are harmful
FALSE
Not all mutations are harmful.
Certain ones may be beneficial because they enhance the
survival rate of the species.
188
One of the important structure in the bases is the
inclusion of the amine group (NH2)
If there is removal amine group, this is called
spontaneous demaination
189
TRUE OR FALSE
| Formation of apurinic and apyrimidic site is a spontaneous mutation
TRUE ?????? di sure sa tanong na to
190
DNA from two sources that have been combined into one molecule
Sources may not be related with each other (plant, frog,
bacteria, humans)
Recombinant DNA:
191
Gram negative bacteria
Commonly used microorganism to elucidate the
molecular biology of the cell, together with
Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
o E.coli
192
A small, circular, double-stranded DNA
molecule of bacterial origin.
Primarily coming from E.coli
PLASMID
193
```
A class of enzymes called ____
cleave DNA at specific locations.
```
Short fragments only (3,4,6 fragments)
restriction endonucleases
194
Eukaryotic DNA is wound around a core of 8 histone proteins
| to form a ___
nucleosome
195
represents the 1st level of DNA compaction in the nucleus
nucleosome
196
The histones may then be modified by (3) as a potential mechanism
for regulating gene expression.
acetylation,
| phosphorylation, and methylation
197
refers to creating a genetically identical population
Gene cloning
198
creates sticky ends in the DNA after cleaving
restriction endonuclease enzymes
199
This recombinant DNA has a target DNA sequence, usually carried out in a vector
(plasmid or a virus)
____ sequences inserted into the host organism
and used to create many copies
target DNA sequences
200
organisms that are carrying the target DNA are identified
through a process called
those that were able to express the desired gene of
interest,
Selection
201
After restriction endonucleases cleave off the human genes, they are joined together by what enzyme
DNA ligase
202
An Organism whose genetic material has been
| altered using genetic engineering techniques
Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)
203
Upsides of the GMO
provides resistance to a specific disease or insect,
ensuring greater food produce
important sources of medicine
204
Similar to Genetically Modified Organism
A process of inserting genes of interest into specific Organism
Genetic Engineering
205
Human peptide
hormone produced in bacteria through cloning and
expression
recombinant erythropoietin
206
Used as factories to produce a protein from a
cloned gene
to produce the protein product of a gene of interest, the gene must be cloned into an expression vector (carrier) with special features that allows it to be
transcribed and translated into the whole cell
Bacteria
207
a robust, rapid method used in Making a copy of a piece of DNA (coming from
saliva where DNA may not be enough or hair or
sputum or sperm cell, and so on) and at the same
time adding restriction sites to the ends of the piece
of DNA so that it can easily be cloned into a
backbone marker of choice with minimal limitations
PCR-based cloning
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TRUE OR FALSE
PCR is incredibly versatile and allows for nearly all
pieces of DNA to be placed into a backbone
marker
true
209
2 types of PCR test
Rapid antigen
RT-PCR
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Point-of-care testing that directly detects the
| presence or absence of an antigen against SARSCoV-2
Rapid antigen
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Advantages:
o Quite easy to do
o Can be availed in drive-thrus or pop-up site.
Involves someone taking a sample
Rapid antigen
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TRUE OR FALSE
| Rapid antigen is accurate
false
not nearly as
accurate or good as the RT-PCR
213
Detects an ongoing COVID-19 infection, more
expensive option, requires more human labor as well
as laboratory capacity to complete
RT-PCR
214
RT-PCR means
RT-PCR means Real Time-PCR
215
This test cannot tell you if you have had COVID in
the past. It is only design to detect an ongoing
infection
RT-PCR
216
More sensitive than the Rapid antigen test
o More accurate than rapid antigen test
It measures PCR test can take up
very tiny amounts of virus so that they have a high likelihood of catching infections and not giving
false negative.
RT-PCR
217
a technique whereby a missing gene is replaced by a viral vector
Gene Therapy
218
An experimental technique that uses genes to treat or
| prevent disease
Gene Therapy
219
An example of this technique is the CRISPR gene editing
Gene Therapy
220
a genetic engineering technique by which
the genomes simplified version of the
bacterial CRISPR-Cas9 antiviral defense
system
CRISPR gene editing
221
edits genes by precisely cutting DNA and then letting
natural DNA repair processes to take over
This will form now part of the Transformative therapy
CRISPR / Cas 9
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The control process by which the expression of genes is turned on or off
gene regulation
