Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biochemistry Lecture > Transcription part 2 > Flashcards

Transcription part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the RNAs that participate in translation

A

mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which provides the anticodon, partnering with the codon

of the mRNA transcript.

A

tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Protein synthesis takes place on

A

ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Types of Ribosome subunits and their functions

A

30S (involved in activation)

50S (involved in the activation and chain initiation step during translation)

70S (involved in the
chain elongation step of the 3rd step of protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A ribosome dissociates into a larger and a smaller body

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In higher organisms, including humans, the ribosome larger body is called ____ and the smaller body is ____

A

LArger: 60S

Smaller body: 40S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The 5’ end of the mature mRNA is bonded to what ribosome

A

40S ribosome and then this unit is then joined to the 60S ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Triplets of bases on mRNA are called

A

codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Start codon is

A

AUG - MEthionine

Cannot initiate translation without this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

one tRNA can carry three amino acids

A

FALSE

Each tRNA is specific for only one amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Each cell carries at least

A

20 specific enzymes, each specific

for one amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Each enzyme recognizes only one tRNA

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

First step in translation –

A

amino acid activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does amino acid activation happens?

A

The enzyme bonds the activated amino acid to the 3’

terminal –OH group of the appropriate tRNA by an ester bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At the opposite end of the tRNA molecule is a

A

codon

recognition site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The codon recognition site is a sequence of three bases

called an

A

anticodon which is provided by the tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This triplet of bases aligns itself in a _____
to the codon triplet on mRNA to produce the amino acid
residues

A

complementary fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
bases always follow the
Watson–Crick base pairing rule.

A

FALSE

Bases do not always pair according to the
Watson–Crick base pairing rule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

There are a
variety of alternative H-bonded base pairing
arrangements called

A

non-Watson or wobble base pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Type of base pairing exists between the codon (mRNA) and anti-codon
(tRNA) base pair

A

non-Watson or wobble base pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

an analog that can pair with C,T, or A

A

I - Inosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Unlike base pairings happen between _____ and the presence of
amino groups at the 6th position

A

G and

A since both are purines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

There are 64 genetic codes and only 20 amino acids

how many codes for amino acids

and how many are for termination

A

But only 61 codes for amino acids, 3 codons are for

termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If mRNA is polyU what is formed

A

polyPHE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

; the triplet UUU,

therefore, must code

A

Phe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ACA must code for

A

Thr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CAC codes for

A

His

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Genetic code is degenerate

A

TRUE

meaning AUG is a single codon that would only code for met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

UGG only codes for

A

Trp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many codons codes for stop codon

A

3 codons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

this codon signals translation-initiation step

A

AUG Met start codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Codons are continuous and unpunctuated

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

There will be overlapping codons and nucleotides
interspersed

A

FALSE

There are no overlapping codons and no nucleotides
interspersed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The code is almost universal

A

TRUE

: Same in viruses, prokaryotes,
and eukaryotes
o Except for some codons in the mitochondria, which are
different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Genetic code is sometimes ambiguous

A

FALSE

Genetic code is unambiguous – it is very exact and is
important to the central dogma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

refers to how the four bases are arranged in
which the cellular machinery can read them to turn them
into a protein

A

Genetic code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Amino acids are activated first by an enzyme

A

aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Enzyme activation requires

A

tRNA, ATP, and Mg2+ cofactor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Prerequisite to initiate translation

A

Activation of enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Also needs the first amino acid, Met – codon AUG (which when mehylated becomes ______

A

fMet-tRNAfMET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ribosomal units involved in Enzyme activation

A

30S, 50S ribosomal subunits, Initiation factors (IF1, IF2,

IF3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Occurs after activation

A

Initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Initiation requires ATP and magnesium

A

FALSE

does not need ATP but GTP and magnesium

GTP is a nucleotide named Guanosine triphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Elongation requires

A

need 70S ribosomal subunit, codons of mRNA,

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

these elongation factors propagate nucleotide

A

TFTU, TFTS, TFG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Elongation also requires

A

GTP and Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Termination requires

A

70S ribosomal subunit, terminal codon of mRNA

UAA, UAG, UGA), release factors (RF1, RF2, RF3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Termination also needs

A

GTP and magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

this sequence is recognized/found in Escherichia coli
ribosomes (gram-negative bacteria; one of the most
used microorganisms apart from yeast)

A

Shine-Dalgarno Sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Shine-Dalgarno Sequence lie about 10 nucleotides upstream from their
respective AUG (initiation) start codon and are
complementary to the UCCU core sequence element of
E. coli present in 16S ribosomal RNA

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Activation of an amino acid is the formation of

A

amino

acid-tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mechanism of amino acid activation

A

base Adenosine + an amino acid (keep on adding 1
amino acid residue to increase the chain, initiate the chain of reaction)

o first amino acid: AUG (Methionine)

o will split eventually into amino acid-AMP +
pyrophosphate (inorganic phosphate)

cleavage of two phosphate molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Activation of amino acid and initiation of protein synthesis expressed in E. coli requires

A

ATP (need energy-rich containing compound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

the activated amino acid is bound to its own particular

tRNA by what bond

A

ester bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

tRNA looks like a

A

inverted clover leaf or cross
o tRNA structure: there is a 3’ end and at the opposite side
is a 5’ end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

o in the presence of _______, this will
split into two and be ready for attachment for the chain
initiation step

A

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

amino acid activation is a two-stage reaction that allows
selectivity at two levels

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are the two-stage reaction of amino acid activation

A

(1) amino acid-AMP remains bound to
the enzyme and binding of the correct amino acid is
verified by an editing site on the tRNA synthetases

tRNA: (2) there are specific binding sites on tRNAs that
are recognized by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

one of the two stage reaction in amino acid activation

§ This stage is very important, and accuracy is vital.
§ First base (Wobble Base Pair) is very importan

A

tRNA recognized by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Once the amino acid is on its tRNA, there is no other
opportunity to check for correct pairing

A

TRUE

The anticodon of the tRNA will match up with its
correct codon on the mRNA regardless of whether it
is carrying the correct amino acid.

This is why you would expect problems in protein
synthesis (Gigantism, Dwarfism) where some genes
are not activated/expressed/suppressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

There are repressor, suppressor, activator, promoter
genes, which can be manipulated/edited already and
that is the essence of

A

Gene therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Importance of newborn screening:

A

to identify the
genetic defect or mutation that has been committed
during DNA transcription and translation and make
some corrections as early as birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Elements Needed in Initiation Steps (Step 1):

A 
o f-Met tRNA
o 30S Subunit
o Initiation Codon (AUG)
o Shine-Dalgarno Sequence - species the first amino acid
sequence
o Template
o GTP
o Initiation factors (IF 1,2,3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Elements Needed in Initiation Steps (Step 2):

A

: The 50S ribosomal subunit is added forming the full
complex

o First amino acid has been produced (formylN-met) facilitated by GTP
o Other needed: Elongation Factor 1,2
o Initiate the addition amino acid residue one after the other

oFormation of an initiation complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Three very important binding sites (present in 50s and 70s)

for tRNA in the Chain Elongation Step:

A

o Peptidyl Site (P)
§ Binds a tRNA that carries a peptide chain

o Aminoacyl Site (A)
§ Binds an incoming amino acid residue

o Exit Site (E )
§ Carries an unchanged tRNA that is about to be
released from the ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The initiation steps begin with the addition of the second

amino acid specified by the mRNA to a

A

70s initiation

complex (Met)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

o Whatever the second codon dictates, that will be the
second amino acid synthesized.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

WHAT Site on the ribosome is the one initially occupied by the f-MET-tRNAfMet in the 70s initiation complex.

A

P Site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The second aminoacyl tRNA binds to what site

A

A site

A triplet
of tRNA bases (anticodon), provided by the tRNA, consists
of a triplet and forms hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The anticodon forms what bond with the mRNA transcript

A

H-bonds

o Wobble Base Pairing
o First that is changed or vary
o The second and third, almost the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In order for chain elongation to happen there must be

A

peptide bond is formed
o Producing amino acids and they are joined through this.
o There must be an occurrence of peptide bonds in order
to elongate the chain of nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Chain elongation is catalyzed by

A

Catalyzed by the peptidyl transferase (part of the 50s

ribosomal subunit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Refers to the propagation of nucleotide or continuous

addition of nucleotides one after the other

A

Chain elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Steps in Chain elongation

A
  1. Affects binding through aminoacyl tRNA binding
  2. Peptide bond formation catalyzed by peptidyl transferase
  3. Translocation takes place before another amino acid can be
    added to the growing polypeptide chain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Stabilizes the bond, the primary structure of a protein

A

Peptide bond formation

Simply continuously adding amino acid residues that’s why
you have monopeptide, dipeptide, tripeptide, hexapeptide,
octapeptide and so On

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In peptide bond formation there is the participation of what sites

A

A site and P site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Last stage/Fourth step in protein synthesis of E. coli

A

Chain termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Chain termination requires:

A
  1. Termination codons/stop codons (UAA, UAG, OR UGA) of mRNA
  2. Releasing factors that cleave the polypeptide chain from
    the last tRNA and release the tRNA from the ribosome

You need here the 70S ribosomes and also
thereleasing factors RF 1, RF 2, RF 3, that cleave
the polypeptide chain in the last tRNA and release
the tRNA from the ribosome and then itatapon na
lang iyon, di na siya kailangan kasi nakaencode na
tayo ng protein, nakatranslate na tayo ng amino acid
residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

If protein synthesis is not controlled there are no stop codons what will be observed (conditions)

A

gigantism and dwarfism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The various methods used by organisms to control which genes will be expressed and when not to express

A

Gene regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Gene regulation requires

A

Release factors and GTP bond to the A-site

o that is the role of A-site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Mechanism of Gene regulation

A

Hydrolyzation of peptide from tRNA

Finally, the entire complex dissociates (broken down into
smaller pieces), and the ribosome, mRNA, and other
factors are recycled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

All gene regulation operates at transcriptional level

A

FALSE

o Some regulations operate at the transcriptional level
(DNAàRNA)
o Others operate at the translational level
(mRNAàProtein)
§ call this Post translational modification
§ poly A tail
§ methylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In eukaryotes, transcription is regulated by three elements:

A

promoters, enhancers, and response elements,

silencers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Located adjacent to the transcription site

o transcription initiation site

A

Promoters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Promoters Are defined by

A

an initiator and conserved sequences

such as TATA or GC boxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q 
consist of repetitive units of T (thymine)
and A (Adenine)
A

TATA box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Consist of Guanine and Cytosine

A

o GC box

90
Q

Different ___ bind to different modules of

the promoter region

A

transcription factors

91
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Transcription factors allow the rate of the synthesis of
mRNA (and from there the target protein) vary by a factor of
up to a million

A

TRUE

o We are not transcribing only 10 mRNA transcript, it
could amount to millions and millions
o A human genome consists of billions of genomes
o It took years and years to study the whole human
genome

92
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The higher and bigger the organism is, the more
genome there exist

A

TRUE

93
Q

Transcription factors find their targeted sites by twisting
their protein chains so that a certain amino acid sequence
us present at the surface
this is done by its different motifs:

A

metal binding fingers – zinc finger (made up of ions) form covalent bonds with the side chain of the protein. Zinc finger allows the protein to bind in the major groove of DNA

94
Q

The conformational twist provided consist of amino acid residues

A

s Cysteine and Histidine,

sandwiched zinc

95
Q

you can see here the α and β-pleated sheets
conformation on the secondary structure given here
(right pic)
§ positively charged Histidine and Cysteine (-SH)
groups is negatively charged and zinc has a certain
affinity with Cysteine

A

Metal-binding Fingers

96
Q

Two other prominent transcription factors are

A

the helixturn-helix and the leucine zipper

97
Q

Transcription factors also process

A

repressors, which

reduce the rate of transcription

98
Q

reduce the rate of transcription

A

repressors

minsan silenced pa that’s why may tinatawag na
silencer

99
Q

Zinc finger proteins follow what groove of DNA

A

major groove

100
Q

In alternate splicing we need the

A

spliceosome

101
Q

in case of mutation, sickness, so that you can silent
or splice, remove the genes and can be done by various
means like:

o skipped exon
o alternative 5’ splice sites
o alternative 3’ splice sites
o retained intron
o mutually exclusive exon retention

THIS IS DONE BY

A

CRSPR technology or gene editing

102
Q

you need gene regulation for a variety of

means:

A

Control at the translation level to ensure quality
control (parang check and balance)

• 1. the specificity of a tRNA for its unique amino acid
o To dictate the order of sequence

• 2. recognition of the stop codon
o Remember the 3 stop codon

• 3. post transitional control
o (a) removal of methionine
o (b) chaperoning
o (C) degradation of misfolded proteins
§ If not, it could lead to several
disorder due to misfolded proteins
because it can tend to misfold or
overfolding like mad cow’s disease
and etc.
103
Q

Wobble base pairing, which part of protein synthesis?

A

2nd step (chain initiation step)

104
Q

First step:

Second step:

A 
First step: activation
Second step: interaction of tRNA, provides anticoding and partners with mRNA transcript
which provides the codon;
§ It happens in ribosomal subunit
(30s - chain initiation, 70s – chain
elongation)
105
Q

Which comes first chandigarh sequence or wobble base pairing?

A

Chandigarh sequence first before

wobble base pairing

106
Q

Without this sequence, protein synthesis wont effect

A

Chandigarh sequence

107
Q

Biosynthesis of RNA is called

Protein synthesis is called

A

transcription

Translation

108
Q

When DNA is used as a template to produce RNA, that is

what you call

A

transcription

109
Q

made up of building blocks of amino acids

residues

A

Proteins

110
Q

The central dogma of molecular biology:

A

Information contained in DNA molecules is expressed in

the structure of proteins

111
Q

the turning on or

activation of a gene

A

gene expression

112
Q

A process of using a DNA template

Usually, it serves at the parent strand

A

transcription

113
Q

will serve as a template as is to produce the

needed RNA and that process is called transcription.

A

DNA template

114
Q

What are the RNAs involved in transcription

A 
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
miRNA
siRNA
snRNA
115
Q

What is needed in DNA replication that is not needed in transcription

A

Primase enzyme - primer

116
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
all polynucleotide synthesis reaction proceeds
from the 5’ to the 3’ direction

A

TRUE

117
Q

The process in which information encoded in a DNA
molecule (coming from the parent strand) is copied into
mRNA molecules

A

TRANSCRIPTION

118
Q

DNA Replication takes place in:

Transcription takes place in:

A

DNA Replication takes place in: cytoplasm

Transcription takes place in: nucleus

119
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

transcription starts when the DNA double Helix begins to
unwind near the gene to be transcribed

A

TRUE

120
Q

___ marks the start of transcription

A

signals or initiations

121
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

in transcriptions deoxyribonucleotides are involved

A

FALSE

ribonucleotides

122
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
ribonucleotides assemble along the unwound DNA strand in
a complementary sequence

A

TRUE

123
Q

RNA is usually synthesized using a DNA template in the

process called

A

TRANSCRIPTION

124
Q

What is the enzyme that catalyzes the transcription

A

DNA

dependent RNA polymerase

125
Q

The ribonucleotides has

A

Ribose
Purine bases (A,G)
Pyrimidine (U,C)
Phosphate

126
Q

What are the 4 ribonucleotide triphosphate

these are required along with
magnesium ion during the process of transcription

A

ATP,

GTP, CTP, and UTP –

127
Q

The enzyme polymerase also catalyze transcription
Poly I:
Poly II:
Poly III:

A

Poly I: rRNA formation
Poly II: mRNA
Poly III: tRNA formation

128
Q

The bubble is also called the

A

initiation site

129
Q

Prokaryotic transcription is catalyzed also by RNA
Polymerase, which is about 470,000 Daltons (molecular
mass) with five (5) types of subunits:

A 
o Two (2) Alpha (α),
o Beta (β)
o Beta-1/Beta prime (β’)
o Sigma (σ)
130
Q

Transcription can be further subdivided into (3) three parts

A

Initiation

Elongation / Propagation

Termination

131
Q

So which of the DNA strand is used for transcription?

A

DNA strand
(From 3 prime to 5 prime), and produce the RNA from
5 prime to 3 prime.

132
Q

the DNA strand whose base sequence is identical to the base sequence of the RNA transcript produced (although with thymine replaced by uracil).

A

Coding strand (5’ to 3’)

133
Q

Kinds of Polymerase in Prokaryote and in Eukaryote

A 
Prokaryote:
2 Alpha subunit
1 Beta subunit
1 Beta' subunit
1 sigma subunit

Eukaryote:
Poly I
Poly II
Poly III

134
Q

molecular mass of rRNA polymerase

A

470,000 Daltons

135
Q

A eukaryotic gene has two parts:

A

structural gene

Regulatory gene

136
Q

There is always a sequence of bases on the DNA strand called

A

initiation signal (other books call is as transcription initiation site).

137
Q

Promoters also contain

A

consensus like TATA box

138
Q

a DNA sequence near the
transcription start site or TSS (Campbell and Farrell) that is bound by RNA polymerase
during transcription-initiation process

A

Promoter

139
Q

These are DNA sequence farther

away from the start site

A

Enhancers

140
Q

Main role of Enhancers

A

they bind tp proteins
and these are called transcription factors and
stimulate transcription

141
Q

The -10 box is called

A

Pribnow box / Goldberg-Hogness box

142
Q

The -35 box is called

lies approximately 26 base pairs upstream

A

TATA box

143
Q

Enhancers binds to ___ to enhance the transcription and are interact with _____

A

Transcription factors

RNA polymerase

144
Q

The promoters and key

elements are sequences at

A

-35 region and -10 region

145
Q

In prokaryotes RNA polymerase is directed to the gene to be transcribed by interactions between the

A

polymerase sigma subunit and promoter region

146
Q 
After initiation
has taken place, RNA
polymerase zips up the
complementary bases in a
process called
A

elongation or propagation

147
Q

involves formation of a phosphate ester bonds between each ribose and the next phosphate
group.

A

Elongation

Elongation is in the 5’ -> 3’ direction

148
Q

can direct RNA polymerase

to different promoters altering the choice of RNA product

A

Sigma factors of Prokaryotic transcription

149
Q

Accounts for what are up regulated or down regulated,

expressed, unexpressed, overexpressed

A

Enhancers and Silencers

150
Q

role of the small non-coding

RNA.

A

Inhibition of transcription by binding to the template strand

151
Q

The RNA products of transcription are not necessarily

functional RNAs they are made functional by the

A

post-transcription modification

152
Q

What are the three recognizable motifs of transcription factors

A
  1. Helix-turn-helix
    - Major structural motif that is capable of binding to DNA
  2. Zinc fingers (metal binding finger)
    - Small structural motif that is described as coordination of one or more zinc ion to stabilize the fold
    - Binds to the major groove of the DNA
  3. Basic region leucine finger
153
Q

What are the Protein modifications:

A

Removal of Methionine (N-formylmethionine)

Chaperoning (Chaperones) help proteins attain their correct form

Degradation of misfolded proteins

Formation of Poly A tail

154
Q

Enzyme that governs the post translational modification

A

Proteasome

155
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Proteasome is only found in eukaryotes

A

FALSE

found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

156
Q

Example of Proteasome

A

Lysosome

157
Q

Another regulatory protein aside from proteases

targets proteins for destruction in proteasome

A

Ubuiquitin / Ubiquinol (ubiquination)

158
Q

this is a neurodegenerative
disorder and usually occur in the mid-60s or early 60s,
the onset of which may be experience by few during
senior years.

A

Parkinson’s disease

159
Q

One of the factors affecting this neurological
or neurodegenerative diseases is the entanglement
of proteins present in some regions of the brain.
Which is why proper folding would be very crucial in
here. You can see how proteins should be folded
properly to avoid this.

A

Alzheimer’s disease

160
Q

– it has something to do

again with proper protein folding

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease –

161
Q

 An error in the copying of a sequence of bases

A

Mutation

162
Q

 An error in the copying of a sequence of bases

A

Mutation

163
Q

can cause damage and eventually, death or

apoptosis (programmed cell death)

A

Mutation

164
Q

 It is estimated that, on average, there is one copying error
for every

A

10^10 bases

Mutation happens every minute, hour, or day. Its effects
are insurmountable

165
Q

2 types of Mutations can occur during replication

A

Spontaneous mutation: It can result from DNA
copying mistakes during cell division

Induced mutation: Mutation is due to exposure to
ionizing radiation such as X-rays

166
Q

even when there is a substation mutation

in one nucleotide, nothing will change

A

Silent mutation

167
Q

single alteration in the DNA base
pair
o This results to the production of a stop codon (UAA,
UGA, UAG)

A

Nonsense mutation

168
Q

Worst type of mutation

– addition of more than one base pairs in the DNA sequences

– removal of more than one base pairs

A

 Frameshift Mutations

Insertion mutation

Deletion mutation

169
Q

Errors in the copying of sequence of bases, specifically

in the replication of viral RNA of the retrovirus

A

Mutations (and Variants)

170
Q

Viruses end up being similar but not exact copies of the
original strain of the virus and are now known as
____ of the virus

A

Variants

171
Q

have occurred in bacteria to survive in the

presence of antibiotic drugs

A

mutation

172
Q

Mutation of bacteria for survival of antibiotic drugs lead to the evolution of

A

antibiotic-resistant
strains like Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA)

so they develop certain resistance gene (become
stronger)

173
Q

most common type of mutation in human DNA

A

G-T
mutation (a single mutation)

occurs about once in every 10,000 – 100,00 base
pairs considering that a human genome contain 3
billion base pairs

174
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

mutational effects can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral

A

TRUE

mutational effects can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
(as in the case of silent mutation) depending on their context of location

175
Q

most non-neutral mutations are

A

deleterious

176
Q

Types of Mutation

occur in other body cells

A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
A

B. Somatic

177
Q

Types of Mutation

base change from pyrimidine to another pyrimidine
or purine to another purine

A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
A

D. Transition

178
Q

Types of Mutation

occur in meats

A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
A

A. Germline

179
Q

Types of Mutation

base change from purine to pyrimidine or vice versa

A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
A

E. Transversion

180
Q

Types of Mutation

represent mutations that change chromosome structure

A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
A

C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration

181
Q

Types of Mutation

may be due to ionizing radiation (an active mutagenic
substance); an example would be leukemia due to ill
effects of radiation

A. Germline
B. Somatic
C. Chromosomal Aberration/Alteration
D. Transition
E. Transversion
A

E. Transversion

182
Q
  • agent of substance that could bring about a
    permanent alteration to physical composition of a DNA
    gene, such that the genetic message is changed.
A

Mutagen

183
Q

example of mutation wherein - accumulation of Phe

A

Phenylketonuria

184
Q

Mutation that can be happen anytime, whether

we like it or not.

A

spontaneous mutation

185
Q

a chemical that causes a base change or

mutation in DNA.

A

mutagen

186
Q

Many changes in base sequence caused by radiation and
mutagens do not become mutations because cells have
repair mechanisms called

A

nucleotide excision repair
(NER).

NER can prevent mutations by cutting out damaged
areas and resynthesizing the proper sequence.

187
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

All mutations whether spontaneous or induced are harmful

A

FALSE

Not all mutations are harmful.

Certain ones may be beneficial because they enhance the
survival rate of the species.

188
Q

One of the important structure in the bases is the
inclusion of the amine group (NH2)
 If there is removal amine group, this is called

A

spontaneous demaination

189
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Formation of apurinic and apyrimidic site is a spontaneous mutation

A

TRUE ?????? di sure sa tanong na to

190
Q

DNA from two sources that have been combined into one molecule

Sources may not be related with each other (plant, frog,
bacteria, humans)

A

 Recombinant DNA:

191
Q

 Gram negative bacteria
 Commonly used microorganism to elucidate the
molecular biology of the cell, together with
Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

A

o E.coli

192
Q

A small, circular, double-stranded DNA
molecule of bacterial origin.

Primarily coming from E.coli

A

PLASMID

193
Q 
A class of enzymes called \_\_\_\_
cleave DNA at specific locations.

 Short fragments only (3,4,6 fragments)

A

restriction endonucleases

194
Q

Eukaryotic DNA is wound around a core of 8 histone proteins

to form a ___

A

nucleosome

195
Q

represents the 1st level of DNA compaction in the nucleus

A

nucleosome

196
Q

The histones may then be modified by (3) as a potential mechanism
for regulating gene expression.

A

acetylation,

phosphorylation, and methylation

197
Q

refers to creating a genetically identical population

A

Gene cloning

198
Q

creates sticky ends in the DNA after cleaving

A

restriction endonuclease enzymes

199
Q

This recombinant DNA has a target DNA sequence, usually carried out in a vector
(plasmid or a virus)

____ sequences inserted into the host organism
and used to create many copies

A

target DNA sequences

200
Q

organisms that are carrying the target DNA are identified
through a process called

those that were able to express the desired gene of
interest,

A

Selection

201
Q

After restriction endonucleases cleave off the human genes, they are joined together by what enzyme

A

DNA ligase

202
Q

An Organism whose genetic material has been

altered using genetic engineering techniques

A

Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)

203
Q

Upsides of the GMO

A

provides resistance to a specific disease or insect,
ensuring greater food produce

 important sources of medicine

204
Q

Similar to Genetically Modified Organism

 A process of inserting genes of interest into specific Organism

A

Genetic Engineering

205
Q

Human peptide
hormone produced in bacteria through cloning and
expression

A

recombinant erythropoietin

206
Q

Used as factories to produce a protein from a
cloned gene

 to produce the protein product of a gene of interest, the gene must be cloned into an expression vector (carrier) with special features that allows it to be
transcribed and translated into the whole cell

A

Bacteria

207
Q

a robust, rapid method used in Making a copy of a piece of DNA (coming from
saliva where DNA may not be enough or hair or
sputum or sperm cell, and so on) and at the same
time adding restriction sites to the ends of the piece
of DNA so that it can easily be cloned into a
backbone marker of choice with minimal limitations

A

PCR-based cloning

208
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

PCR is incredibly versatile and allows for nearly all
pieces of DNA to be placed into a backbone
marker

A

true

209
Q

2 types of PCR test

A

Rapid antigen

RT-PCR

210
Q

Point-of-care testing that directly detects the

presence or absence of an antigen against SARSCoV-2

A

Rapid antigen

211
Q

Advantages:
o Quite easy to do
o Can be availed in drive-thrus or pop-up site.
Involves someone taking a sample

A

Rapid antigen

212
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Rapid antigen is accurate

A

false

not nearly as
accurate or good as the RT-PCR

213
Q

Detects an ongoing COVID-19 infection, more
expensive option, requires more human labor as well
as laboratory capacity to complete

A

RT-PCR

214
Q

RT-PCR means

A

 RT-PCR means Real Time-PCR

215
Q

This test cannot tell you if you have had COVID in
the past. It is only design to detect an ongoing
infection

A

RT-PCR

216
Q

More sensitive than the Rapid antigen test
o More accurate than rapid antigen test

 It measures PCR test can take up
very tiny amounts of virus so that they have a high likelihood of catching infections and not giving
false negative.

A

RT-PCR

217
Q

a technique whereby a missing gene is replaced by a viral vector

A

Gene Therapy

218
Q

An experimental technique that uses genes to treat or

prevent disease

A

Gene Therapy

219
Q

An example of this technique is the CRISPR gene editing

A

Gene Therapy

220
Q

a genetic engineering technique by which
the genomes simplified version of the
bacterial CRISPR-Cas9 antiviral defense
system

A

CRISPR gene editing

221
Q

edits genes by precisely cutting DNA and then letting
natural DNA repair processes to take over

This will form now part of the Transformative therapy

A

CRISPR / Cas 9

222
Q

The control process by which the expression of genes is turned on or off

A

gene regulation

Biochemistry Lecture (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions