TRANS (Part 1) Flashcards

1
Q

General Characteristic of Family Mycoplasmataceae

A
  • Lack cell wall or cell wall deficient (gram staining is not performed)
  • Susceptible to antibiotics classified as cell wall inhibitors
  • smallest living organism (0.2 to 0.3 um)
  • Slow growers
  • Facultative anaerobes
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2
Q

Antibiotic classified as cell wall inhibitor

A

Beta Lactams

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3
Q

Example of beta lactams

A

Penicillin and Cephalosphorin

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4
Q

All mycoplasma spp. are slow growers EXCEPT

A

M. hominis (rapidly growing)

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5
Q

All mycoplasma spp. are facultative anaerobe EXCEPT

A

M. pneumoniae (aerobic, highly fastidious)

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6
Q

M. pneumoniae needs complex media that contains

A

Cholesterol and Fatty acid

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7
Q
  • Formerly referred to as Pleuropneumoniae like organism (PPLO) /Eaton agent
  • First mycoplasma to be isolated
A

M. pneumoniae

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8
Q

Agent of Primary Atypical Pneumonia/Walking Pneuomonia/Community acquired atypical pneumonia

A

M. pneumoniae

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9
Q

The two genital mycoplasma that are fastidious and agent of Pelvic Inflammatory disease (PID)

A

M. hominis and M. urealyticum

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10
Q

Causes NGU/Non-gonococcal urethritis

A

M. hominis and U. urealyticum

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11
Q

Mycoplasma spp. (+) on SBA and Chocolate agar

A

M. hominis

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12
Q

Applicable fluorescent stain for Mollicutes but not specific

A

Acridine orange

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13
Q

Ideal culture media for M. pneumoniae and M. hominis

A

SPF Broth

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14
Q

Solid media to recover M. hominis and Ureaplasma spp.

A

A8 Agar

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15
Q

Previously called T-strain Mycoplasma

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

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16
Q

Agent of Human Granulocytic Anaplasmosis

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilium / Ehrlichia phagocytophilium

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17
Q

The vector of Anaplasma phagocytophilium / Ehrlichia phagocytophilium

A

Ixodes ticks

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18
Q

Agent of Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

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19
Q

The vector of Ehrlichia chaffeensis

A

Lone star ticks

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20
Q

Initially a member of family Rickettsiaceae but since it is not arthropod borne, it is no longer part of this family; a potential bioterrorism agent

A

Coxiella burnetii

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21
Q

Modes of transmission of C. burnetii

A
  1. Inhalation of dried birthing fluids of several animals
  2. Ingestions of unpasteurized milk
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22
Q

Coxiella burnetii causes

A

Query Fever (Q fever)

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23
Q

Rickettsial infections are detected using what sero test only

A

Weil felix (*but not specific since it has antigen from the genus Proteus)

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24
Q

Cause Rickettsial pox

A

R. akari

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25
Q

Causes scrub typhus

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

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26
Q

Agent of Epidemic typhus and Brill zinsser disease

A

R. prowazekii

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27
Q

Epidemic typhus requires what specific vector?

A

Louse borne

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28
Q

the repeat/relapse of epidemic typhus; no vector required

A

Brill Zinsser disease

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29
Q

Agent of Murine typhus

A

R. typhi

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30
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

R. rickettsii

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31
Q

The organism that remains to be Chlamydia

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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32
Q

Organisms that are prev. under Chlamydia but became Chlamydophila

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae and Chlamydophila psittacci

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33
Q

General characteristic of Chlamydia/Chlamydophila

A
  1. Obligate intracellular organisms, even though they can be cultivated they require cell or tissue culture
  2. Sensitive to Sulfa drugs
  3. Has 2 distinct form
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34
Q

Infectious form, has spore-like features because it is resistant to environmental physical stress *has outer membrane that contributes to its resistance

A

Elementary body

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35
Q

Most prominent component of that membrane is called

A

Major Outer Membrane Protein or MOMP.

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36
Q

non-infectious form but reproductive form

A

Reticulated body

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37
Q

Agent of Trachoma, LGV, and Reiter’s syndrome

A

C. trachomatis

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38
Q

Chronic eye infection, number 1 cause of preventable blindness

A

Trachoma or TRIC (trachoma inclusion conjunctivitis)

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39
Q

Sexually transmitted disease (STD) and venereally acquired also known as LGV

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

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40
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

Reiter’ syndrome

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41
Q

Has pear shaped elementary body

A

C. pneumoniae

42
Q

Has round shape elementary body

A

C. trachomatis and C. psittacii

43
Q

Regarded as the gold standard until the development of NAAT

A

Cell or Tissue culture

44
Q

Example of Cell or tissue culture

A

McCoy cells, HeLa, Buffalo green monkey

45
Q

Currently the gold standard for C. trachomatis

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT)

46
Q
  • Respiratory pathogen
  • Previously known as TWAR Strain – Taiwan Acute - Respiratory Strain
  • gent of pneumonia
A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

47
Q
  • Respiratory pathogen
  • Parrot fever, ornithosis, Psittacosis *respiratory disease that can be acquired thru contact with infected birds or their droppings, same MOT with C. pneumoniae
A

Chlamydophila psittacii

48
Q
  • Gram negative organism
  • Motile and provided with Axial filaments/Periplasmic flagella
  • Corkscrew motility
  • Cannot be visualized using brightfield microscope therefore, we use Darkfield microscope and silver stain
A

General characteristics of Spirochetes

49
Q

Borrelia and Leptospira multiplies by

A

Binary fission

50
Q

Treponemes multiplies by

A

Transverse fission

51
Q
  • The only genus under spirochetes that can be visualized using brightfield/lighy microscope
  • Arthropod borne – acquired thru bites
  • Blood spirochetes
  • Loosely coiled
A

Genus Borrelia

52
Q

The medium use for Genus borrelia

A

Kelly Medium

53
Q
  • Tightly coiled with 1 or both ends bent to form a hook
  • Requires darkfield, phase contrast microscopes, immunofluorescent microscopy
A

Genus Leptospira

54
Q

The medium used for Genus Leptospira

A

Fletcher’s media

55
Q

T/F: Genus Borrelia and Leptospira are culturable

A

TRUE

56
Q
  • Consisting of 4-14 coils/organism regularly space
  • Agents of syphilis/great pox/French disease
A

Treponema pallidum

57
Q

T/F: T. pallidum is non-culturable

A

TRUE

58
Q

MOT of T. pallidum

A
  • Sexual transmission
  • Blood transfusion
  • Vertical transmission (Mother to fetus)
59
Q

The viability of T. pallidum can be maintained using

A

Testicular chancre of rabbit

60
Q

Stage of syphilis where the patient develops lesion in the genitalia

A

Primary stage

61
Q

Stage of syphilis presence of extragenital lesions (outside)

A

Secondary stage

62
Q

Stage of syphilis where there’s an absence of lesion/symptoms

A

Latent stage

63
Q

Stage of syphilis where lesions develop in deep organs of the body

A

Tertiary stage

64
Q
  • Primary syphilitic lesions
  • Develops during the 1st stage
A

Hard chancre/Hunterian chancre

65
Q
  • Secondary syphilitic lesions
  • Develops during the 2nd stage
A

Condyloma latum

66
Q

Seen on Latent stage of syphilis

A

Absence of symptoms
Blood test (+)

67
Q

Tertiary syphilitic lesions

A

GUMMA’s

68
Q
  • Agent of STD
  • Venereal spirochetosis
A

Treponema cuniculi

69
Q

Trench mouth/Vincent’s stomatitis

A

Treponema vincentii

70
Q

Yaws – Frambesia

A

T. pallidum sp. pertenue

71
Q

Pinta

A

T. pallidum sp. careteum

72
Q

Bejel/Endemicum syphilis

A

T. pallidum sp. endemicum

73
Q

MOT for T. pallidum sp. pertenue, T. pallidum sp. careteum, T. pallidum sp. endemicum

A

Direct contact with infected lesions

74
Q

Diagnostic procedure Genus Borrelia

A

Sero test and Examination of Giemsa stained smears

75
Q
  • Vector for Borrelia burgdorferi
A

Ticks – ixodes spp.
(Deer ticks, Black legged ticks)

76
Q

also known as tick borne relapsing fever; give the agent

A

Lyme disease; Borrelia burgdorferi

77
Q

Stage of Lyme disease where the patient Develops bull’s eye rash (ECM) in the bite site

A

Stage 1

78
Q

Stage of Lyme disease where the patient has dissemination of ECM to other parts of the body

A

Stage 2

79
Q

Stage of Lyme disease where the patient developes Chronic arthritis and development neurologic abnormalities/symptoms

A

Stage 3

80
Q

Vector of Borrelia recurrentis

A

Pediculus spp.
- P. humanus capitis (head louse)
- P. humanus corporis (body louse)

81
Q

Agent that causes Louse borne relapsing fever

A

Borrelia recurrentis

82
Q

Vector of Borrelia duttoni, Borrelia parkeri, Borrelia hermsii (other agents of tick borne relapsing fever)

A

Ornithodoros ticks/
Soft ticks

83
Q

ECM (Erythema Chronicum Migrans)

A

Bull’s eye rash that may develop in Lyme Disease

84
Q

Hallmark of immune phase of Leptospirosis

A

Aseptic meningitis

85
Q

Serologic gold standard for Leptospirosis detection

A

Microscopic agglutination test

86
Q

Causative agent of Leptospirosis (human and animal)

A

L. interrogans

87
Q

Phase of leptospirosis where there’s a septicemia (high fever and headache)

A

Anicteric phase

88
Q

Phase of leptospirosis that is characterized by the involvement of liver and kidney

A

Icteric phase

89
Q

specimen for 1st week for Leptospirosis

A

Blood and CSF

90
Q

Specimen for 2nd week of Leptospirosis

A

Urine

91
Q

The severe form of Leptospirosis

A

Weil’s disease

92
Q

Seldomly performed in the lab

A

Anaerobic culture

93
Q

Equipment used to provide an anaerobic environment

A

GASPAK Jar

94
Q

Component of GASPAK jar that ensures oxygen free environment

A

Palladium Catalyst

95
Q

Indicators of GASPAK

A

Methylene blue or Resazurin (pink)

96
Q

Color of GASPAK Jar in the absence of air

A

Colorless

97
Q

Anaerobes that can emit foul odor

A
  • C. difficile
  • Fusobacterium
  • Porphyromonas
98
Q
  • Produce brick red fluorescence under UV
  • Produce black pigment
  • Gram negative anaerobic bacilli
A

Porphyromonas and Prevotella

99
Q

Red fluorescence that rapidly fades

A

Veilonella

100
Q

Chartreuse fluorescence (Yellow)

A

Fusobacterium nucleatum

101
Q

Anaerobic organisms with sulfur granules

A
  • Actinomyces,
  • Other Propionibacterium,
  • Cutibacterium acnes
  • Eubacterium nodatum