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CMED 312 ENT Module > TRANS 043 MICROPARA > Flashcards

TRANS 043 MICROPARA Flashcards

1
Q

NORMAL FLORA-CONJUNCTIVAL SAC

A
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis

* Lactobacillus sp

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2
Q

comes from the tears, can destroy

peptidoglycan layers

A

Lysozyme

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3
Q

Bacterial or viral conjunctivitis? mucopurulent discharge?

A

Bacterial; watery in viral

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4
Q

Bacterial or viral conjunctivitis? bilateral

A

Bacterial; unilateral in Viral

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5
Q

Bacterial or viral conjunctivitis? pharyngitis?

A

viral; otitis media in bacterial

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6
Q

Bacterial or viral conjunctivitis? with adenopathy

A

viral. no adenopathy in bacterial

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7
Q

antibiotics for MRSA and S. pneumonia but resistant to H. influenza

A

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin and Tobramycin)

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8
Q

Sensitive to S. pneumoniae but resistant to H. influenza and MRSA

A

Polymxin B and Trimethoprim

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9
Q

Sensitive to H. Influenza and S. Aureus

A

Erythromycin

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10
Q

Azithromycin is sensitive to?

A

S.Pneumoniae and MRSA

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11
Q

Newer fluoroquinolones is sensitive to

A

MRSA

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12
Q

because of the vaginal delivery from a mother infected with
N. gonorrhoeae.
 So you have a mucopurulent discharge because Neisseria is
one of the pyogenic cocci

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

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13
Q

Treatment before for ophthalmia neonatorum however it causes

pigmentation and blackening of the skin

A

silver nitrate

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14
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae virulence factors:

A

▪ Pili
▪ LOS
▪ IgA protease

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15
Q

Able to lyse and destroy the IgA which is in the mucosal barrier

A

IgA protease

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16
Q

Type of Neisseria: with pili, virulent; smaller and raised; bright in reflected light

A

Type T1 and T2-

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17
Q

Type of N. gonorrhea: no pili, avirulent (extracellular); larger; flatter colonies

A

Type T3 to T5

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18
Q

smaller colonies; grows more slowly; more difficult to identify biochemically

A

AHU strains – (Arginine-hypoxanthine-uracil)-

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19
Q

genes both expressed in N. meningitidis

A

por A and por B;

but por B only in N. Gonorrhea

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20
Q

blocks host serum bactericidal (IgG) action against the organism (virulence of N. gonorrhea)

for adherence?

A

Protein III – Rmp (reduction modified protein)

Protein II- Opa (opacity)

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21
Q 
o Enterotoxins
▪ Heat stable exotoxins; A-E, G-J (stable at 100 C, 30 mins)
• A, B, D – food poisoning
• B, C > G, I – TSS
• B pseudomembranous enterocolitis
o TSST-1 (enterotoxin F)
o Exfoliative toxin – epidermolytic/SSS/Ritter
o Cytolytic
▪ Alpha
▪ Beta (Sphingomyelinase C; hot-cold lysin – CAMP)
▪ Gamma (PVL)
▪ Delta
o Enzymes
▪ coagulase (virulence marker)
▪ protease
▪ hyaluronidase
▪ lipase
o Protein A

virulence factors of?

A

staphyloccocus

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22
Q

which is realted to community acquired MRSA, [Panton Valentine Leucocidin/ mec A gene]

A

Panton valentine leucocidin (PVL)

mec A gene is related to MRSA

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23
Q 
• skin and wound infection
o folliculitis
o furuncle (boil)
o carbuncle (with fever and chills)
o bullous impetigo
• Food poisoning (enterotoxins) (2-8 hours after)
o A (78%)
o D (38%)
o B (10%)
• Toxic shock syndrome (Todd,1978), tampons
o menstruating & non menstruating associated
• Scalded skin syndrome/ Ritter
• Osteomyelitis
• Pneumonia

what causative agent?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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24
Q 
• Pink eye conjunctivitis
• Fastidious
• X and V factors
• Satellite phenomenon
 need a special media called chocolate agar

what causative agent?

A

Hemophilus Aegypti

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25
Q

one of the common causes of blindness that presents wiht eye pain, swelling and irritation

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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26
Q

lack mechanisms for production of metabolic energy & cannot synthesize ATP → obligate intracellular

gram neg or gram pos?

A

gram neg

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27
Q

elementary body (infectious form) and the reticulate body

what agent?

A

Chlamydia

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28
Q

in the development cycle of chlamydia, which particle is this?

o small, environmentally stable, infectious particle, high affinity for host epithelial cells near base of microvilli; rapid entrance via:
• Heparan sulfate-like proteoglycans
• MOMP- major outer membrane protein (DFA direct Fluorescent Ab- principle detection
• Glycosylated MOMP
• Engulfment – receptor – mediated endocytosis into clarithrin-coated pits & pinocytosis via non coated pits

A

elementary body

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29
Q

in the developmental cycle of chlamydia, which particle is this?

no electron dense nucleoid, divides by binary fission, entire vacuole with EB to form cytoplasmic inclusion

A

Reticulate Body

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30
Q

outer cell wall of chlamydia is like gram neg or gram pos?

A

gram neg; No typical peptidoglycan; with Penicillin body protein (PBP); no N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
• EB: RNA=DNA; RB: 4x RNA=DNA

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31
Q

for staining chlamydia in giemsa, what stain will be the color of Eb and RB?

A

EB purple

RB blue

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32
Q

in C. Trachomatis, you can see brown inclusion in what stain?

A

Lugol’s iodine

33
Q

which trachoma antigen is for blindness?

A

A, B Ba, C

34
Q

which antigen of trachoma is for STD?

35
Q

it is a diagnosis of exclusion, so pag hindi sya nagrespond sa ibang meds at nagrespond sya sa tetracycline then most likely it is

36
Q
  • Chronic keratoconjunctivitis→ scarring → blindness (possibly with bacterial conjunctivitis)
  • 3-10 days incubation
  • Lacrimation, mucopurulent discharge, conjunctival hyperemia, follicular hypertrophy
  • Epithelial keratitis, subepithelial infiltrates, extension of limbal vessels into cornea (pannus)

what organism?

A

C. Trachoma

37
Q

in lab diagnosis of trachoma, which is the most sensitive? and which test will let you know if you really have an infection or not?

A

Serology (Immunoflourescence);

PCR

38
Q

Treatment for Chlamydia trachoma?

A 
o S-A-F-E program
o Surgery for deformed eyelids
o Azithromycin
o Face washing
o Environmental improvement
39
Q

this are the sheathed round worm

A

Wuchureria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, loa loa

40
Q

what spcimen do you need to diagnose loa loa?

A

since this is a tissue nematode, you need blood to diagnose this

41
Q

The risk of infection is highest in the rainforests of west and central Africa and during the rainy season, when the deerfly (or mango fly or mangrove fly as they are commonly known) are most prevalent

A

AFRICAN EYE WORM loa loa

42
Q

Loiasis, commonly known as “African eye worm” is an infectious disease caused by the nematode Loa loa, which is transmitted to humans via the bite from one of two female Chrysops deerfly species:

A

Chrysops silacea and Chrysops dimidiate.

43
Q

Herpes ZOster type 1?
HZ type 2?
Type 3?

A

all are post varicella

type 3- herpes zoster ophthalmicus
type 2- genital
type 1- oral

44
Q

they are very fond of latency

A

all herpes viruses, retrogade sa dorsal root ganglion

45
Q

Other herpes is oncogenic like EBV which causes

A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt’s lymphoma

46
Q

External ear infectious organism if in swimming pool?

A

P. aeruginosa

47
Q

highest organism isolates in external ear infections?

A

P. Aueroginosa follwed by Staph aureus

48
Q

major players in otitis media?

A 
• Pneumoocci- 33%
• H. influenzae – 20%
• S. pyogenes – 8%
• Others: 1 to 6 %
o M. catarrhalis
o S. aureus
o Enterics
o Anaerobes
49
Q

otomycosis, bacterial viral, fungal?

50
Q

Is a fungal ear infection, a superficial mycotic infection of the outer ear canal.
• It is more common in tropical countries.
• The infection may be either subacute or acute and is characterized by malodorous discharge, inflammation, pruritus, scaling and severe discomfort

A

OTOMYCOSIS

51
Q

Most fungal ear infections are caused by:

A 
Aspergillus niger
Aspergillus fumigatus
Penicillium
Candida albicans
Opportunistic infection
52
Q

in aspergillus niger, Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB)- what is the response?

A

not decolorized, still black pa rin ang kulay

53
Q

Most common viral sinusitis causes

A

Rhinovirus

54
Q

• Viral vector for the AstraZeneca

A

Adenovirus

55
Q

bacterial causes of acute sinusitis?

A 
▪ Acute sinusitis
• S. pneumoniae
• H. influenzae
• Moraxella
• Streptococcus pyogenes
56
Q

bacterial causes of chronic sinusits?

A

Anaerobes (>50%)- “would like to have a deep-seated infection
o Bacteroides
o Anaerobic gram (+) cocci
o Fusobacterium species

57
Q

Fungal causes of sinusitis?

A

• Fungal (immunocompromised or DM)
o Aspergillus
o Mucormycosis

58
Q

Indwelling nasogastric and nasotracheal tubes predispose to nosocomial sinusitis, which is often caused by

A

gram (-) bacteria (Klebsiella and Pseudomonas)

59
Q

Sinusitis in neutrogenic and immunocompromised persons may be caused by

A

Aspergillus and the zygomycetes (e.g Mucor Rhizopus

60
Q

Contraindication for doing a throat swab-

A

when you have a pseudomembrane kasi pwede mag bleed or asphyxia

61
Q

pseudomembrane is preventable via?

A

Diphtheria vaccine

62
Q

S. pyogenes sequelae is acute tonsillopharyngitis that will

lead to

A

Rheumatic fever, and later, Rheumatic heart

disease = mitral valves affected

63
Q 
• Enterococcus
• Gram (+) cocci in pairs or chains
• Catalase negative
• Types of hemolysis
o wide zone or alpha-prime
• Serologic grouping
• Facultative anaerobe
• Aerotolerant anaerobe
o they grow in the presence of oxygen but cannot use oxygen for respiration
• Capnophilic

what org?

A

Streptococcus

64
Q

ttachment parts of the organism into the mucosa in streptococcus?

A

M protein fimbriae-

65
Q 
• Group A
• M protein
• Infections:
o pharyngitis / strep throat
heart disease (RF)
o pyodermal infections
kidney = skin infection
o toxic shock syndrome
A

Strep pyogenes

66
Q

attached to the peptidoglycan of the cell wall and extends to the cell surface essential for virulence
o best defined virulence factor encoded by emm genes
o resists phagocytosis
o adherence of bacterial cell to mucosal cells

what antigenic structure of Strep pyogernes?

67
Q

o both are adhesion molecules that mediate adherence to host epithelial cells.
o both with M proteins – attachment to oral mucosal cells

A

Lipoteichoic acid

68
Q

o weakly immunogenic; prevents opsonized phagocytosis by neutrophils or macrophages; allows bacterium to mask its antigens and remain unrecognized by its host

antigenic structure of strep pyogenes

A

Hyaluronic acid capsule

69
Q

Most affected valve in rheumatic heart disease

A

Mitral valve

70
Q

4 Ds in epiglotittis?

A

dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, and distress—the four D’s.

71
Q

• Hemophilic, pyogenic, capnophilic, pleomorphic, encapsulated
• Needs X and V factors
• Capsular Ag, somatic Ag, outer membrane protein, IgA protease
• Capsular Ag (major antigenic determinant – confers specificity & basis for serovar grouping:
o a to f ; b has pentose – critical determinant of virulence, essential for invasiveness

what organism?

A

Haemophilus

72
Q

bull neck appearance?

A

Diphtheria

73
Q

• Whooping Cough Stages

A

o Catarrhal
 Most infectious
o Paroxysmal
o Covalescent

74
Q
  • Viral etiology
  • The infection leads to swelling inside the trachea, which interferes with normal breathing and produces the classic symptoms of “barking” cough, stridor, and a hoarse voice.
A
  1. Croup/ Laryngotracheobronchitis
75
Q

sputum vs saliva

A

Sputum vs Saliva. If you see >25 PMN and <10 Squamous EC per field, that means it is satisfactory for culture.

pag hindi, saliva lang nakuha mo.

we do not culture saliva

76
Q

“postanginal septicemia” which referred to a series of patients who developed:
o Acute oropharyngeal infection
o Suppurative jugular vein thrombosis
o Sepsis
o Septic embolization of the lungs with abscess

  • Fever, malaise, cervical, & submandibular lymphadenopathy
  • Antecedent upper severe pharyngitis
  • Severe neck pain
  • Possible tender palpable “cord” at the anterior margins of SCM indicative of thrombus
A
  1. Lemierre’s Syndrome (rare)
77
Q

in ENT infections, gold standard is?

78
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis is caused by

CMED 312 ENT Module (16 decks)

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