Topic 7 - Genetics, population, evolution and ecsystems Flashcards

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1
Q

Define ecology

A

the study of inter-relationships between organisms and their environment

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2
Q

What sort of factors does the environment include?

A
  1. Biotic factors: Living factors

2. Abiotic factors: Non-living or physical factors

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3
Q

Examples of biotic factors

A

Predation, competition, number of mates, disease, prey and predator numbers

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4
Q

Examples of abiotic factors

A

Soil pH, water availability, space, rainfall, nutrients, light intensity

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5
Q

Define the biosphere

A

The biosphere is the regions of the surface (land) and atmosphere (air) and earth occupied by living organisms

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6
Q

Describe the biosphere (3 points)

A
  • Shaped by interactions within organisms and environment
  • An interconnected network
  • Involved in the study of ecology
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7
Q

Define ecosystem

A

An ecosystem is all the interacting biotic and abiotic factors in an area

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8
Q

What are the two main components of an ecosystem

A
  • The flow of energy

- The cycling of elements

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9
Q

Different ecosytem cycles and what they are

A

Water cycle – cycling of water (H and O) through the water cycle
Respiration – transfer of energy and elements
Nutrient cycles – nutrients contain elements (nitrates and phosphates) are recycled in pond
Photosynthesis – plants utilising the suns energy and converting some to ATP/chemical energy
Decay – decay of material releases CO2

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10
Q

What is a habitat

A

A habitat is where the community (different organisms in the same place) is found

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11
Q

Within each habitat there are smaller microhabitats, what are these?

A
  • A habitat which is of small or limited extent

- Differs in character from surrounding habitat (own microclimate)

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12
Q

What are the different microhabitats present in a mature fruit tree?

A
  • Leaves, flowers and fruits (different microhabitats throughout year (seasons) and fruit and flowers in specific times of year)
  • Bark (Lichens and mosses grown on the bark (habitat for them) and different depending on position, shelter age and light intensities = different conditions
  • Lichens and mosses (provide microhabitat for small insects)
  • Canopy deadwood (micro-organisms involved in decay found)
  • Plants colonising the tree base/surface (millipedes, woodlice and caterpillars)
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13
Q

What is a population?

A

A population is a group of interbreeding organisms of one species in a habitat

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14
Q

.A number of ______ can be found within each ecosystem

A

species

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15
Q

.Members of the same species group together forming a ________

A

population

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16
Q

.Different _____ group together to form different populations

A

species

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17
Q

Population boundaries are difficult to define because organisms move, explain this in more detail

A
  • All herons can breed with one another so form a population
  • Woodlice on a rotting log on one side of the pond could breed with woodlice on the other side of the bond
  • If interbreeding is unlikely = two populations
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18
Q

A community is …

A

… all the populations of different species living and interacting in a particular space at the same time

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19
Q

In the pond ecosystems, the community would consist of:

A
  • Frogs
  • Herons
  • Bacteria
  • Bull rushes
  • Trees
  • Grass
  • Fish
  • Worms
  • Insects
  • Fungi
  • Snails
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20
Q

What is an ecological niche?

A

An ecological niche is how an organisms fits into its role within the environment

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21
Q

What does an ecological niche include?

A
  • Where it lives and what it does

- The biotic and abiotic factors required for an organisms survival

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22
Q

Why do no two organisms occupy the same niche?

A
  • Different tolerance levels to environmental factors
  • Best adapted species survives and reproduces
  • At the expense of the weaker species (if conditions remain stable)
  • Competitive exclusion principle (two species competing for the same limited resource cannot coexist at constant population values as one will always outcompete the other)
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23
Q

What is population size?

A

Population size is the number of individuals within a population

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24
Q

What is exponential growth?

A
  • Growth rate is proportional to time
  • As time increases, the variable being recorded increases
  • At an exponential rate
  • But most population growth in the wold does not follow this trend
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25
Q

What is most population growth like?

A
  1. Slow growth – initially a small number of individuals to reproduce
  2. Rapid growth – increased number each reproducing
    Population doubles, increasingly steep curve
  3. Stable state, no growth – rate of growth declines until roughly stable, the population reaches its carrying capacity
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26
Q

What is carrying capacity?

A

the number of organisms which an ecosystem can support without environmental degradation

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27
Q

A limiting factor is …

A

… an environmental condition that limits the growth, abundance, or distribution of an organism or a population of organisms in an ecosystem

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28
Q

Why do limiting factors matter?

A

Limiting factors prevent the population growing exponentially

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29
Q

What are the main limiting factors?

A
  • Disease
  • Predators
  • Water/Humidity
  • Oxygen
  • Competition
  • Food
  • Light
  • Shelter
  • Waste accumulation
  • Temperature
  • pH
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30
Q

How are all of the population limiting factors limiting population?

A

Disease Mutation = no antigens, no memory cells
Predators New adaptations, introduction of species, competition
Water/humidity Transpiration, photosynthesis, osmotic lysis, drought tolerance (GM)
Oxygen Respiratory rate, haemoglobin, tertiary structures, affinity
Competition Intra and inter specific, food webs
Food New sources, global warming, monocultures, deforestation
Light Light intensity – photosynthesis, transpiration, food production
Shelter Shade tolerance, competition
Waste accumulation Mutations for tolerance, pH changes = enzymes
Temperature Enzymes, transpiration, all metabolic processes
pH Enzymes, tissue fluid, mutations, O2 affinity, metabolic processes

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31
Q

Describe the growth rate in bacteria

A

.Quick/rapid growth
.Asexual reproduction
.Less complex
.Binary fission

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32
Q

Describe the growth rate in humans

A

.Slow growth/stabilises
.Sexual reproduction
.Long development
.Few offspring

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33
Q

Describe the growth rate in cats

A

.Middle term
.Long gestation
.Multiple births

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34
Q

Is the rate of population change between species the same?

A

No

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35
Q

When should you use logarithmic scales?

A

.Rapid growth

.Long period of time

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36
Q

Why should you use logarithmic scales?

A

.Reduces wide-ranging quantities to tiny scopes

.Clearer pattern shown

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37
Q

If log x (y) = z then …

A

… x^z = y

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38
Q

A new pond has formed and some algae cells have been found.
Predict what will happen and explain why you think this.
Hint, it is summer, there are no nutrients in water, there are no limiting factors, they reproduce asexually

A

• They reproduce asexually
- Reproduction is quick so number rapidly increases
• It is summer
- High rate of photosynthesis = growth occurs quickly
• There are nutrients in the water
- Mineral ions used up by increasing population.
• There are no limiting factors BUT this changes
- Algae on surface block light reaching deep into the pond.
- Fewer ions or sunlight available for algae
- Other species arrive better adapted to different abiotic factors
- Increase competition and/or predation.
- Changing seasons = temperature drop and lower light intensity
- Algae population decrease

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39
Q

Describe the human population growth with figures

A

The human population has doubled in the last 50 years. Now over 7 billion. If this rate continues we will double our population in the next 40 years!

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40
Q

What factors are increasing human population growth?

A
  • Health Care – Fewer people are dying/aging population
  • Infrastructure and resources – More houses/workplaces/stability
  • Economy – More money for medical care, houses, food
  • Food availability (Agricultural Revolution) – Better nutrition/growth
  • Better quality of life – Better hygiene, fewer diseases
  • Industrial Revolution
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41
Q

.Human population growth does not follow the usual _______ shape

A

sigmoidal

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42
Q

For human population growth, the exponential phase is still continuing rather than plateauing, why?

A
  • Birth rate outweighs death rate

- Immigration outweighs emigration

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43
Q

Population growth =

A

(births + immigration) - (deaths + emigration)

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44
Q

Percentage population growth rate =

A

(Population change during time period / population at start of period) x 100

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45
Q

Birth rate is affected by:

A
  • Contraception
  • Money
  • Culture and Religion
  • Social Pressures
  • Politics (Education and Taxes)
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46
Q

Death rate is affected by:

A
  • Age of population
  • Life expectancy at birth
  • Food supply and range
  • Natural Disasters and War
  • Water and Sanitation
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47
Q

What is a population pyramid?

A

.Age and gender profiles are displayed graphically by stacked bars which represent the % age of males and females in each age group

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48
Q

What do population pyramids give information on?

A

.They give information on future trends of populations, for example how many females of child bearing age

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49
Q

In a population pyramid with a narrow base and wide apex what can you deduce

A

Lower birth rate = narrower base.
Lower mortality rate = more elderly people so apex is wider.
Applies to certain economically more developed countries (Japan)

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50
Q

In a population pyramid with a wide base and narrow apex what can you deduce?

A

High birth rate = wider base.
Fewer old people = narrow apex.
Typical of economically less developed countries.

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51
Q

In a population pyramid with an in balance birth and death rate what can you deduce?

A

Birth rate and death rate are in balance
No change in population size.
Typical of economically developed countries.

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52
Q

As countries develop economically, their human populations display a pattern of growth known as what?

A

demographic transition.

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53
Q

Demographic transitions can be divided into 4 stages depending on what?

A
  • Death Rate - Birth Rate - Total population
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54
Q

What are the four stages in demographic transition and describe them

A
  1. Small and stable – high birth rate, high death rate
  2. Early expansion – high birth rate, decreasing death rate
  3. Late expansion – decreasing birth rate, low death rate
  4. Large and stable – low birth rate, low death rate
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55
Q

Draw a demographic transition

A

check notes

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56
Q

What is a predator?

A

A predator is an organism that feeds on another organism (prey)

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57
Q

Predators have evolved to become better adapted for capturing their prey, give some examples of adaptations

A
  • Faster
  • Better camouflage
  • Sense of smell/eyesight
  • Claws/teeth
  • Agile
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58
Q

What is a prey?

A

A prey is an organism that is attacked/eaten by another organism

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59
Q

Prey have evolved to become better adapted for escaping predators, give some examples

A
  • Camouflage
  • Concealing behaviour
  • Speed
  • Protective features
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60
Q

Explain how prey become adapted for escaping their predators.

A

New mutations occur within the prey population, those with mutations that are advantageous to escaping the predators survive and reproduce and their alleles are passed on at the expense of the less advantageous alleles.

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61
Q

What is a stable community?

A

A stable community is where all the species and environmental factors are in balance so that population sizes remain fairly constant

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62
Q

Draw and label a graph that shows the effect of change in temperature on a stable community

A

Check notes

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63
Q

Describe predator prey cycles

A
  • Predator and prey populations determine one another’s growth
  • The size of one population has a direct impact on the others
  • This is a cyclic relationship (recurring in cycles)
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64
Q

Describe the predator prey cycle graph

A
  1. The pattern shown is that whenever the prey rises to a peak in population size, the population size of the predator grows soon after (but not to the size of the prey), then then as soon as the population size of the prey starts to drop again, soon the population of the predator will as well, this pattern continues multiple times.
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65
Q

Explain the predator prey cycle graph

A
  1. This pattern exists as, since the population of the prey rises, then the predators have more food to eat, so they have more chance of survival, so they can reproduce more, so their populations increase, which means they need more food to maintain their population, so they eat more prey, so the population size of the prey falls, so the predators have less food, so they have less chance of survival, so they reproduce less, so their population falls as well, and now since theirs less predators to eat the prey the prey have a higher chance of survival and so their population rises again and the cycle starts again.
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66
Q

A relationship that is described as cyclical is …

A

a. Evolving or recurring in cycles – changes in population size
b. Recurrence in cycles – as one population changes it directly affects another

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67
Q

Cyclical relationships can also be a result of what?

A

a. Climatic changes

b. Disease

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68
Q

The severity of a population crash can be increase or decreased depending on what? Explain each point

A
  1. The number of food sources relied upon (If only one food source is relied upon, and it is destroyed, the population will crash/die. If it has other options its likelihood of survival is higher)
  2. Genetic diversity (Increased probability that there is an advantageous allele in the population)
  3. Availability of mates (Those with advantageous allele or those who survive can breed easily and increase the population size rapidly. Lack of mates means the population cannot increase)
  4. Gestation time (asexual or sexual) (Can lots of offspring be produced very quickly after a crash or decline to re-build the population quickly?)
  5. Intensity of change (Has the environment significantly changed i.e. a drought or is it a period of prolonged dryness that can be survived?)
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69
Q

How can climate change affect cyclical relationships? draw and label a graph

A

Check notes

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70
Q

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using lab studies to investigate predator prey relationships

A

Advantages –
• Control group for comparison
• Investigate multiple factors i.e. is it food availability, poaching or both
• Difficult to count all organisms in the wild so data is unreliable

Disadvantages –
• Results in extermination of the prey which would not happen in nature. Why?
• Habitats are varied in the wild (could have an effect)
• Area the organisms can travel is much larger
• Prey can escape predation

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71
Q

Competition arises when …

A

… 2 or more individuals share any resource that are insufficient to satisfy their requirements

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72
Q

What do animals compete against?

A

space, mates, food and minerals, light, territory and water

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73
Q

There are two types of competition, what are they? With examples

A
  1. Intraspecific (same species) i.e. mates

2. Interspecific (different species) i.e. space/food

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74
Q

Why is intraspecific competition important?

A

• The availability of resources determines the population size as the greater the availability, the larger the population size as there are more resources to grow and breed

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75
Q

Some oak trees have just started to grow. They are competing for light, water and nutrients. Only some survive. Which will survive and why?

A
  • Mutation occurs
  • Mutation is advantageous (causes leaf to have larger leaves or extended roots)
  • Organisms is better adapted to access the requirements for photosynthesis
  • Organisms grows and survives to reproduce
  • Frequency of allele increases in subsequent generations
  • At the expense of the smaller leaved plants
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76
Q

Examples of intraspecific competition

A
  1. Limpets, competing for algae (food)
  2. Oak trees, many small trees, some grow and block light, smaller ones dies, left with few large, dominant oaks
  3. Robins, breeding territory, females only mate with males with territory, each territory only supports one family, scarce food, territories become larger
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77
Q

What occurs in interspecific competition?

A
  • Populations of 2 different species initially occupy the same/very similar niche BUT…..
  • One will normally have a competitive advantage over the other so….
  • Best adapted survives and breed
  • Population increases at the expense of the weaker, less adapted species, resulting in…..
  • Complete removal of the weaker species
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78
Q

What is the competitive exclusion principle?

A

No two species competing for limited resources can co-exist (or occupy the same niche) as one will always eliminate the other

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79
Q

Example of competitive exclusion principle

A
  • Red : Native to UK
  • Grey : Introduced from America
  • 2.5 million grey squirrels and only 160,000 red.
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80
Q

Describe and explain the relationship between red and grey squirels

A
  • More grey squirrels, less red squirrels as competing for food, habitats and space
  • Number of predators increase, grey squirrels do not increase in number as predators eat grey squirrels but the ones alive still outcompete red
  • As predation decreases, population of red squirrels decrease and grey squirrels growth slows, grey squirrels are not eaten but more competition within grey
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81
Q

It is often difficult to prove that competition is the factor affecting population sizes, why?

A
  1. Many other factors involved (abiotic)
  2. A causal link has to be established
  3. Often a time lag (population change may be due to competition that took place many years earlier)
  4. Data on population sizes are hard to obtain and not always reliable
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82
Q

What is abundance?

A

the number of individuals of a species in a given space

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83
Q

How do we measure abundance?

A

.Study small sections of the habitats in detail

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84
Q

Sample methods include:

A
  • Random sampling in the form of frame quadrats and point quadrats
  • Systematic sampling along transects
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85
Q

What do quadrats do?

A

investigate the difference between two or more sites

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86
Q

Three key factors need to be considered when using quadrats:

A
  1. The size of the quadrat to be used
  2. The number of sample quadrats to record within the study area
  3. The position of each quadrat within the study area
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87
Q

Why the size of the quadrat being used is important –

A

.Size of the species being studied
.Size of the area being studied
.Are species evenly distributed or clustered in small groups? If not, a large number of small quadrats is representative

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88
Q

Why the number of sample quadrats to record within the study area is important –

A

.Larger sample = more reliable the results
.Number of species present in the sample area
.Larger number of different species in the sample, the greater the number of quadrats required to produce valid results

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89
Q

Why the position of each quadrant within the study area is important –

A

.Sampling must be random

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90
Q

To ensure that observer bias is minimised, you must generate the positioning of your quadrats in what way?

A

Randomly

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91
Q

How do you do random sampling with quadrats?

A
  1. Two long tape measures at right angles along 2 sides of the study area.
  2. Use coordinates by using random numbers from a table/computer
  3. Place a quadrat at the point of intersection
  4. Repeat multiple times
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92
Q

Sampling with quadrats must be random in order to –

A
  • Avoid sampling bias
  • Ensure data obtained is valid
  • Produce statistically significant results
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93
Q

You have been provided with frame quadrats of varying sizes:
- 0.5m2, 1m2 or 4m2
Using this equipment, suggest how you could use a frame quadrat to investigate the effect of grazing animals on the number of plants growing in a field. (5 marks)

A
  1. Choose a quadrat of appropriate to the size - plants are quite small but area is quite large so 1m2 would be most suitable
  2. Choose 2 fields close together as this minimises soil, climatic and other abiotic differences
  3. One site is regularly grazed, the other is not
  4. Take random samples at many sites in each field either by dice, random number generator, co-ordinates out a hat
  5. Place the quadrat on the ground and record the names and numbers of the different species present
  6. Repeat to increase reliability and calculate a mean
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94
Q

What are point quadrats and how are they used?

A
  • Horizontal bar supported by 2 legs.
  • Pins are dropped through holes in the top
  • Each species the pin touches is recorded.
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95
Q

Difficulties of using quadrats include –

A

.Difficult to identify and count every organism
.Time consuming
.May damage the habitat.
.Difficult to avoid introducing an element of personal bias
.No indication of pattern

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96
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of point quadrats?

A
\+ Smaller organisms
\+ Small areas or specific detail 
-Tedious 
-Hard to use
-Time consuming
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97
Q

Economic Advantages –

A

.Construction sites, less environmental costs
.Finding the optimum conditions for horticulture
.Finding the optimum conditions for agriculture

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98
Q

Systematic sampling studies what?

A

The distribution of a species

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99
Q

When is systematic sampling important?

A

.Gradual changes occur across a habitat
.Transitions within communities occur
.Zonation is present

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100
Q

What are the two types of transect?

A

.Belt transect

.Line transect

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101
Q

What is a line transect and how does it work?

A

.String or tape
.Organisms over which the line passes are recorded
.Usually using a quadrate

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102
Q

What is a belt transect and how does it work?

A

.Strip or meter wide tape
.Second placed parrall to the first
.Species between the two belts are recorded

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103
Q

Line Transect Adv and DisAdv –

A

.Limited Time (Quick)
.Easily shows species range along the transect
.Clear visual of how species change
.Harder to see the range across a large area
.Less data collected

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104
Q

Belt Transect Adv and DisAdv –

A

.More data
.Tells you more about the abundance AND range of individual species at different points along the line
.Shows changes/distribution more clearly as more data
.Dominance of one species can be determined
.Larger area covered
.Time Consuming

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105
Q

.Transects show what?

A

change in the number of species over a given area
.It is not a comparison between two area
.It is used to show a trend

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106
Q

How to use a transect?

A
  1. Place a transect (tape measure) down across a given area
  2. Place a quadrat down at equal or random intervals along the transect
  3. Carry out a second transect in a different part of the sample are but still close by your first sample, so that there is not too much variance in the environment as to change the results massively
  4. Calculate a mean across the 3 transects studied and display your results in a table
  5. Plot a graph and describe the pattern shown
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107
Q

Abundance is …

A

… the number of individuals in a given space

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108
Q

Frequency is what?

A

.The likelihood of a particular species occurring in a quadrat

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109
Q

Percentage cover is what?

A

.Estimate of the area within the quadrat that a particular plant species covers

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110
Q

Equation for per quadrat?

A

Per quadrat = (number of squares species occurs / number of squares in total) x 100

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111
Q

Adv and disadv for frequency?

A

Often expressed as a %
Useful where a species is easier to count
A quick idea of the species present
Lacks information on the density
No detailed information distribution of a species
Can be quite time consuming

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112
Q

Adv and disadv for percentage cover?

A

Useful when a species is abundant or difficult to count
Data can be collected quickly
Gives a representation of distribution/density
Less useful where organisms occur in overlapping layers
Can be less precise
Often subjective

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113
Q

What does mark, release, recapture method entail?

A
  1. A specific number of animals are caught, marked and then released
  2. After some time, a given number of animals are collected randomly
  3. The number of marked animals counted
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114
Q

Estimated population =

A

(total number in 1st sample x total number in 2nd sample) / number of marked individuals recaptured

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115
Q
  1. Not all organisms will have equal chance of being caught as …
A

… they might have different adaptations to make them more camouflaged/escape

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116
Q

Mark, release, recapture is the best option when

A
  • Live organisms
  • Large areas to sample
  • Focus of one species
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117
Q

The mark, release, recapture method is based on a number of assumptions, list them along with why the assumptions are important:

A
  1. Proportion of marked to unmarked in the second sample is the same as the proportion of marked to unmarked in the whole population – results not due to different sizes of sample
  2. Marked individuals distribute evenly – results are valid and not in clusters
  3. The population has a definite boundary – you are studying the whole population
  4. Markings are nontoxic and makes it no more conspicuous – do not injure of reduce the survival chances
  5. Population is constant e.g. not breeding season – ‘new’ individuals would not be marked
  6. Markings cannot be rubbed off during the investigation – population size in second sample is not reduced = valid
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118
Q

Why is mark, release, recapture useful for measuring abundance with organisms?

A

When organisms can move, hide, and are difficult to find and identify

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119
Q

What are the disadvantages of the mark, release, recapture method?

A

Time consuming (need to leave time)
Risk of predation changing sample size
Disturbance of habitat
Trauma or injury to the organism (ethics)

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120
Q

What is meant by positive cooperativity?

A
  1. The binding of the first oxygen to haemoglobin makes the binding of the second and then third easier
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121
Q

What is meant by the term competitive exclusion principle?

A
  1. Organisms will compete for the same resources, the better adapted will survive at the expense of the weaker
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122
Q

Succession is what?

A

the change in species in an area over time

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123
Q

Is succession fast or slow?

A

It can be either

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124
Q

Does succession occur in plants or animals?

A

Both

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125
Q

Where is succession seen?

A
  • Seen in a range of environments:
    .Silt/mud deposits at estuaries
    .Lakes/ponds created by land subsiding
    .Sand forming dunes
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126
Q

At each stage in succession, certain species change the environment so …

A

it becomes more suitable for other species with different adaptations

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127
Q

What is a pioneer species and climax community?

A

Pioneer species (a species colonises an inhospitable area, the first one)

Climax community (stable community, very little/no change, the last one)

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128
Q

Pioneer Species tend to have what characteristics?

A
  1. Reproduce asexually
  2. Produce large quantities of wind dispersed seeds or spores
  3. Can tolerated/are adapted to survive in harsh conditions i.e. low light intensities, low/high pH
  4. Short dormancy or fast germination
  5. Photosynthesise
  6. Are nitrogen fixing
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129
Q

Why does pioneer species have those characteristics?

A

.They reproduce asexually so that they do not rely on another species to increase its population size
.They produce large quantities of wind dispersed seeds or spores so that they can spread to remote areas and without the need for other organisms
.The can tolerate harsh conditions so that they can survive and reproduce when no other organism can
.They have short dormancy/fast germination so that they can reproduce/increase in number quickly
.They can photosynthesise so that they do not rely on food sources
.They are nitrogen fixing so they improves soil quality in when few nutrients

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130
Q

(S) Explain the process of succession, using both animals and plants as an example of this (6 marks)

A
  1. Pioneer species colonises inhospitable area
  2. Reproduces = increases
  3. Changes the conditions/a species makes the conditions less hostile;
  4. New/primary coloniser is better competitor/pioneer species outcompeted; Example = Lichens
  5. Pioneer species grows, dies and nutrients are recycled via decay
  6. Increase in secondary coloniser, changing abiotic factors further
  7. Better adapted/tertiary species increases and secondary decreases
  8. Process continues until a climax community is formed
  9. Few if any new species are replaced
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131
Q

What is the process of succession?

A
  1. Pioneer Species
    Colonises harsh environment
    Reproduce and increase population size
    Changes the environment – nitrogen fixing
    Improve soil quality
  2. Primary Coloniser – for example Lichens who colonise bare rock and can survive desiccation (extreme dryness)
    New species better adapted
    Outcompete pioneers
    New community forms
    Continue to change the environment (abiotic factors) to make it less hostile
  3. Secondary Coloniser
    Weathering of the rock creates sand and soil
    Lichens die and decompose
    Nutrients are recycled
    Nutrients support small plant species
    • The quality and quantity of the soil improves
    • Rock erosion continues and plant species die and decompose.
    • The smaller plants again change and improve the abiotic factors
    • The area can support larger species: grasses, shrubs then trees.
    • Continues until the climax community is reached.
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132
Q

Animal populations establish and grow in the _______ process

A

Cessionary

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133
Q

Describe animal succession?

A

Animals are still reliant on the pioneer plant species
Lichen dies and provides food for detritus feeders  Mosses and grasses provide food and habitat for insects  Secondary consumers feed on the insects  Flowering plants and trees support reptiles, mammals and birds
They are still reliant on lichens to provide primary colonisers with food

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134
Q

Climax communities have dominant _____ and ______ species

A

plant

animal

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135
Q

If an area of land has experienced land clearance or a natural disaster the area returns to its climax community but:

A
  • It does it much faster as the seeds and spores are already present therefore it does not begin at a pioneers species
    • The climax community will be different as there are different abiotic factors
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136
Q

Define preservation

A

Maintaining individuals, populations and ecosystems in their current state without the exploitation of their natural resources

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137
Q

Define conservation (and the two types)

A
Allowing ecosystems to evolve (change) naturally, without resources being overused, there is active human management and two forms:
-	Ex-situ:
Individual endangered species in zoos
Outside natural habitat
-	In-situ:
Whole ecosystems and landscapes
Within habitat
Monitoring succession
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138
Q

Why do we manage succession?

A
  • Allows ecosystems to evolve naturally
  • No detrimental effects on any stage of succession
  • Enables maximum diversity and ecosystems
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139
Q

Explain the stage of succession that should be of greatest focus to conservationists.

A
  1. Mid Succession
  2. Not dominated by one species (low diversity)
  3. Not a very hostile environment
  4. Can support multiple species, more habitats/food sources = higher biodiversity
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140
Q

Why is the stage of succession that should be of greatest focus to conservationists not the climax community?

A
  • Dominated by one species
  • High competitive element
  • Competitive exclusion principle
  • Low Biodiversity
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141
Q

How does burning heathlands manage succession?

A
  1. SOME areas are burnt = Prevent succession
  2. Prevents dominance/climax community
  3. Older forms are less palatable and less nutritious
  4. New heather and other new species can grow
  5. Biodiversity is increased
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142
Q

Burnt vs Unburnt areas create more:

A
  • Habitats
  • Food sources
  • Species
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143
Q

How is succession controlled in moorlands? Why?

A
  • Grazing by sheep and/or periodic burning
  • Maintains low growing plant populations
  • Provide plentiful food sources for grouse
  • Increases number of grouse
  • Happy hunters!
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144
Q

Explain what may happen to moorland if sheep grazing and burning of vegetation ceased? (3 marks)

A
  1. Moorland would undergo secondary succession
    Moorland would reach its climax community
    Community would be dominated by deciduous oak woodland (one species)
    Reduction in biodiversity
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145
Q

Suggest how conservation and leisure could be managed (2 marks)

A
  1. Hunters pay to shoot/only allowed at given times

Payments control and coordinate conservationist burning the land

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146
Q

Discuss the importance of studying and understanding conservation and enhancing biodiversity

A
  • Money - Medicines
  • Tourism - Wood
  • Food - Horticulture
  • Removal of CO2
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147
Q

Define genepool

A

all the alleles of all the genes of all the individuals in a population at a given time at a given time

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148
Q

What is natural selection?

A

the process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment tend to survive and breed at the expense of those less well adapted.

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149
Q

Phenotypic variation is a result of:

A
  1. Genetic factors

2. Environmental factors

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150
Q

Why does genetic variation occur?

A
  1. Meiosis
  2. Sexual reproduction
  3. Main factor – Mutations
    All can result in selection occuring
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151
Q

.Most traits are normally distributed, what does this mean?

A

.The most common result (mode) is near the average (mean) and the middle value (mode)

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152
Q

.When selection occurs, the normal distribution curve may what?

A

Change shape

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153
Q

Directional Selection, what is it with example

A
  • Change in environment
  • Changes the mean
  • Extreme is selected for
  • Antibiotic Resistance
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154
Q

Stabilizing Selection, what is it with example

A
  • Selection against both extremes
  • Phenotypic variation decreases
  • Environment has remained stable
  • Birth Weight
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155
Q

Differences between the reproductive successes of individuals affects the allele frequency in populations, explain how. (6 marks)

A
  1. Random mutation of alleles within the gene pool
  2. The new allele has an advantage in a SPECIFIC environment
  3. The individuals are better adapted/obtain resources
  4. These individuals grow rapidly and live longer compared to other alleles
  5. Reproduce passing on this allele.
  6. Offspring survive better and reproduce
  7. The advantageous allele increases at the expense of the individuals with the less advantageous allele.
  8. Change in the allele frequencies in a population occurs = Evolution
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156
Q

Selection pressures are what?

A

environmental factors that limit the population of a species

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157
Q

Give the features of selection pressures

A
  • Determine the frequency of all the alleles within the gene pool
  • Vary from time to time and place to place
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158
Q

Every organism is subject to selection so …

A

… certain factors may increase the chances of selection occurring

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159
Q

Examples of selection pressures

A

dation, competition, disease, natural disasters

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160
Q
  1. The bacteria population’s normal distribution curve shifted in the direction of a population that has a greater resistance to antibiotics. Explain why. (6 marks)
A
  1. A spontaneous mutation results in a different protein structure, a new enzyme breaks down the antibiotic. Bacteria with the mutation survived. Antibiotic resistance bacteria multiply, this creates an increased frequency of antibiotic resistant alleles at the expense of the non-resistant population.
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161
Q

All species have the potential to increase their number ________

A

exponentially

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162
Q

’The rate increases in proportion to …

A

… the growing total number or size’

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163
Q

Evolution only occurs by natural selection if ….

A

organisms reproduce and have sufficient resources and genetic variation is present within the population and phenotypic variation is present within the population (greater diversity = adapt to change)

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164
Q

In order for populations to survive and increase exponentially they must …

A

have a high reproductive success and a suitable population size to minimise intraspecific competition

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165
Q

Factors that make exponential growth unlikely could be …

A

high death rates from predators, low parental investment and lack of resources

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166
Q
Death rates are not random, how are the following death rates influenced:
Turtle
Arctic fox
Hedgehog
eagle
human
A

Turtle – some food sources, some camouflage
Arctic Fox – Not camouflaged, too warm in summer, some possible food
Hedgehog – lots of food sources, camouflage, hibernation, adapted to predators
Eagle – plenty of food sources, adapted to hunt, suitable habitats
Human – not camouflaged, ability to hint but possible limited food sources

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167
Q

.Death rates within a population will not be completely random / exponential growth is unlikely to occur because organism will…

A
  • Be better adapted to the environment i.e. Camoflagued
    • Suited to prevailing conditions i.e. Catch food
    • Resit disease
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168
Q

Variation is essential because …

A
  • Changing environments - New diseases

- New predators - New competitors

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169
Q

Great tits are small birds. Natural selection influences the number of eggs laid by the Great tits. Explain why great tits that lay fewer than 3 eggs per nest or more than 14 eggs per nest are at a selective disadvantage. (3 marks)

A
  1. When high number of eggs, each individual young will receive less food; reference to mortality rates to disease / predators for
  2. low numbers of eggs; so in both cases low number of offspring will reach maturity / survive;
  3. so less likely to pass on genes / alleles;
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170
Q

Selection pressures are what?

A

environmental factors that limit the population of a species

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171
Q

Difference between directional and stabilizing selection?

A
Stabilizing Selection –
.Selection pressure against both extremes
.(Mean remains the same)
Directional Selection –
.Selection pressure for an extreme
.(Mean changes)
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172
Q

The selection pressure may change too frequently for _____to occur, so both must be over prolonged periods

A

evolution

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173
Q

What is disruptive selection?

A

.Least common form of selection
.Opposite to stabilizing selection
.Favors the extremes at the expense of the intermediate phenotypes

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174
Q

When will disruptive selection occur?

A

When an environmental factor i.e. temperature takes two or more distinct forms. Summer – warm, Winter = cold

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175
Q

Explain the example: Fur Length, in disruptive selection

A
  • 5 degrees in winter (long fur). 15 degrees in summer (Short fur)
  • Result: Two different species, each activie in each season
  • One active in summer so only breed with others active in summer, producing short haired cubs.
  • One active in winter only breed with those active in winter
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176
Q

Why is it important/what impact will it have? (disruptive selection)

A
  • Most important for causing evolutionary

* Could result in two distinct species

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177
Q

Coho salmon example disruptive selection

A
  • Large males and small males have a selective advantages
  • Small males sneak up to females so reproduce and pass on their alleles
  • Large males’ fierce competitors so attract the females and reproduce passing on their alleles
  • Intermediate sized is selected against as has no selective advantage
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178
Q

What is the hardy weinberg principle?

A

A mathematical equation used to calculate the frequencies of the alleles of a gene in a population

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179
Q

The hardy weinberg principle is a ______ analysis

A

statitical

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180
Q

What does the hardy weinberg principle established what?

A
  • Establishes the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles
  • Establishes the frequency of carriers (heterozygotes) in a population
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181
Q

The total frequency of alleles for a gene in a gene pool with only one dominant and recessive alleles will =

A

1 (100%)

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182
Q

In the equation p+q = 1, what do p and q represent?

A

Dominant allele = p

Recessive allele = q

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183
Q

The frequency that A combines with A in the zygote is

A

p x p = p2

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184
Q

The frequency that a combines with a in the zygote is

A

q x q = q2

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185
Q

The frequency that A combines with a in the zygote is

A

p x q = pq

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186
Q

The frequency that a combines with A in the zygote is

A

q x p = qp

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187
Q

P2 + 2pq + q2 =

A

1

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188
Q

What is p2?

A

the frequency/ number of individuals in that population that are homozygous dominant (AA)

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189
Q

What is 2pq?

A

the frequency/number of individuals that are heterozygous (Aa or aA)

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190
Q

What is q2?

A

the frequency / number of individuals in that population that are homozygous recessive (aa)

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191
Q

The Hardy Weinberg formulae is based on the principle that:

A

The proportion of dominant and recessive alleles of any gene in a population remains from one generation to the next

192
Q

Key conditions of The Hardy Weinberg formulae ?

A
  • No new mutations arise
  • The population is isolated (no gene flow / flow of alleles into or out of the population)
  • There is no selection bias
  • Population studied is large
  • Mating is random
193
Q

Why are the conditions in the hardy Weinberg principle important?

A
  • No new mutations arise – no introduction of new alleles
  • The population is isolated (no gene flow / flow of alleles into or out of the population) – movement encourages interbreeding which reduces genetic differences between populations
  • There is no selection bias – natural selection = advantageous alleles favoured
  • Population studied is large – prevents the effects of random events affecting allele frequencies or changes due to chance
  • Mating is random – prevents the selection of particular alleles, selective breeding would alter allele frequencies
194
Q

What is speciation?

A

The formations of two populations from one

195
Q

What are the types of speciation?

A

Allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation

196
Q

Explain how oxygen is loaded, transported and unloaded in the blood. (6 marks)

A

.Haemoglobin carries oxygen / has a high affinity for oxygen / oxyhaemoglobin;
. Loading / uptake / association in lungs;
.at high p.O2;
.Unloads / dissociates / releases to respiring cells / tissues
.at low p.O2;
.Unloading linked to higher carbon dioxide (concentration);

197
Q

Selection pressures are …

A

… environmental factors that limit the population of a species

198
Q

Stabilising selection is caused by …

A

… selection pressure against both extremes, and so the mean remains the same

199
Q

Directional selection is caused by …

A

… selection pressure for an extreme, and so the mean changes

200
Q

Tell me about disruptive selection

A
  • Selects against the average phenotype
  • Favours the extreme phenotypes
  • Can lead to speciation
201
Q

.Speciation is what?

A

the evolution of new species from existing species

202
Q

What does speciation enable?

A

.It enables evolutionary change and diversity

203
Q

Speciation occurs due to:

A
  • Reproductive isolation
  • Genetic differences (mutations)
  • Geographical isolation
    o Differences in two populations gene pools
204
Q

What are the two forms of speciation?

A

Allopatric Speciation:

Sympatric Speciation:

205
Q

WHat is allopatric speciation?

A

.More common
.Different locations
.Geographic separation

206
Q

WHat is Sympatric Speciation:

A

.Less common than allopatric
.Same location
.Reproductive isolation

207
Q

How does allopatric speciation occur –

A

.Each species will have its own range, within which there will be a number of other populations of that species
.Populations can still interact and interbreed
.Unless a barrier occurs, preventing migration between populations of the same species
.The environments of each new range may be different
.Different mutations occur in each range
.Due to different selection pressures, different mutations are favoured
.No gene flow can occur and so changes in allele frequency occur
.Eventually they will be unable to interbreed even if the barrier is removed

208
Q

Define Adaptive radiation

A

The diversification of a species into forms adapted to different ecological niches

209
Q

Allopatric Speciation key points

A
.More common than sympatric
Different locations
.Geographic seperation 
.Physical barrier i.e. Lake, desert, mountain area
.Takes millions of years
210
Q

Sympatric Speciation key points

A

.Less common than allopatric
.Same locations
.Reproductive isolation
.Breeding seasons or food preference

211
Q

Apple maggot fly sympatric specxiation example explanation

A
  1. Only lay eggs inside Hawthorns Fruits (native to North America)
  2. Apple trees introduced
  3. Some flies lay eggs in apples
  4. Mates are found by searching site where they were raised
  5. Raised in apples, mate with flies raised in apples
  6. Mutations may result in two new species
212
Q

two examples of sympatric speciation

A

apple maggot fly, seasonal breeding

213
Q

Why is speciation more likely in small populations?

A

In a small populations there will be:

  • A small variety of alleles (lower genetic diversity)
  • Not equal chance of each allele being passed on OR if a muation occurs….
  • One allele/mutation is passed on very quickly
  • Increase in allele frequency
  • Speciation is more likely
214
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

Genetic drift is genetic change due to chance, eg. By chance fewer decesendents of one phenotype are left behind after some organisms of a species get stamped on

215
Q

On islands in the Caribbean, there are almost 150 species of lizards belonging to the genus Anolis. Scientists believe that these species evolved from two species found on mainland USA.
Explain how the Caribbean species could have evolved. (6 marks)

A
  1. Geographic(al) isolation;
  2. Separate gene pools /no interbreeding/gene flow
  3. Variation due to mutation;
  4. Different selection pressures / different abiotic / biotic conditions / environments / habitats
  5. Different(ial) reproductive success / selected organisms (survive and) reproduce
  6. Leads to change / increase in allele frequency
216
Q

What are the steps to scientific research?

A
  1. Observation
  2. Hypothesis (Null hypothesis, Alternative hypothesis)
  3. Experimentation
  4. Results Analysis
  5. Further Research
217
Q

Null Hypothesis:

A

.There will be no significant difference between two sets of data

218
Q

Alternative Hypothesis:

A

.There will be a significant difference between two sets of data

219
Q

Statistical Testing –

A

a mechanism for making quantitative decisions about a process or processes

220
Q

Chi-squared test used for?

A

comparing observed and expected values

221
Q

When is a two sample t test used for?

A

looking for significant differences between two sets of data

222
Q

When is a Pearson’s correlation coefficient used for?

A

is there a significant correlation between 2 variables?

223
Q

What is the level of probability?

A

The level of probability that you can accept or reject your null hypothesis (significant or due to chance)

224
Q

What does you calculated chi squared value tell you?

A

Calculate a chi squared value
Compare your calculated value with a critical value
At a 0.05 level of probability
95% confidence the difference is significant
5% probability it is due to chance

225
Q

Degrees of Freedom, what are they with example

A

.The number of variables that are free to change
.Calculated by number of categories (n) – 1
.Example: 3 categories – 1 = degrees of freedom is 2

226
Q

How to analyse chi-squared results

A

.Conduct your statistical test = calculated chi squared value
.Compare calculated chi squared and critical values
.If your Chi squared value is higher than the critical value at 0.05 probability, reject the null hypothesis and the results are not due to chance.
If your value is LESS, ACCEPT null hypothesis.
If your value is GREATER, REJECT null hypothesis.

227
Q

What does Harry Robinson remind us?

A

Harry Robinson - HR - Higher Reject, for the chi test

228
Q

What are the steps to a statistical analysis?

A
  1. Formulate a Null Hypothesis
  2. Select the appropriate statistical test
  3. Carry out the calculation
  4. Determine the degrees of freedom
  5. Compare your calculated value to the critical value calculated at 0.05
  6. Compare the calculated value with the critical value:
    a) Higher than the critical value = difference is not due to chance = reject the null hypothesis
    b) Lower than the critical value = difference is likely due to chance = accept the null hypothesis
229
Q

What does a chi-squared test allow us to do?

A

.Identify significant differences between observed and expected results
.Measure the degree of deviation between them
.Determine if differences present between data sets (2+) are significant or due to chance

230
Q

When can we use the chi-squared test?

A

.Data is categorical Phenotypes i.e. eye colour, gender, location
.The portion of numbers expected in each category is known
.The number in each category is greater than 5

231
Q

Chi-squared test formula

A

Chi-squared = Sum ( (observed result – expected result)^2 / expected result)

232
Q

What does the funny E mean?

A

sum of

233
Q

For the chi-squared test, what is ‘o’?

A

observed result

234
Q

For the chi-squared test, what is ‘E’?

A

Excepted result

235
Q

What is disruptive selection?

A

Selective pressures against the intermediate trait

236
Q

Examples of disruptive selection

A

fur length (medium against)

Colour or rabbit (white against)

237
Q

What is speciation?

A

Speciation is the formation of two species from one

238
Q

Where is sympatric speciation?

A

Sympatric Speciation = Same place

239
Q

Exampels of sympatric speciation?

A

Examples are mayflies or seasonal breeding

240
Q

Where does allopatric speciation?

A

away from species

241
Q

Key points of allopatric speciation

A
  1. Geographic(al) isolation
  2. Separate gene pools / No gene flow
  3. Variation caused by a mutation
  4. Different selection pressures
  5. Different(ial) reproductive success
  6. Change in allele frequency.
242
Q

What is genetic drift? What does it do?

A
  • Genetic Change due to CHANCE dissapearance of certain alleles
  • In small populations
  • Increases liklihood of speciation
243
Q

Steps of genetic drift?

A
  1. Smaller population, fewer alleles, less diversity
  2. By chance, one allele is not passed on
  3. By chance fewer decedents of one phenotype are left
244
Q

What is an isolating mechanism?

A
  • Way in which a population becomes separated

* Required for speciation to occur

245
Q

How does ecological (habitat choice) act as isolating mechanism?

A

Inhabit different areas (within the same area), individuals rarely meet or cross paths/mating grounds

246
Q

How does temporal (breeding seasons) act as isolating mechanism?

A

Breeding seasons do not coincide, may not be fertile at the same time, no interbreeding

247
Q

How does hybrid sterility act as isolating mechanism?

A

Different chromosome number, fusion of gametes cannot produce viable gametes, horse (2n = 64), donkey (2n = 62) = mule 63 – no pairing

248
Q

How do behavioural differences act as isolating mechanism?

A

Courtship behaviors are different, no attracted to one another scent, different mating rituals

249
Q

What does conservation entail?

A

• Allowing ecosystems to evolve naturally
• Without resources being overused or exploited
• Active human management
Ex situ vs in situ

250
Q

What is succesion?

A
  • Gradual change
  • Each species changes the conditions for the next
  • Conservation of middle stages
  • Maintains more habitats, food sources, diversity
251
Q

What are the steps to succession?

A

Pioneer species (inhospitable area)  Intermediate stages (highest diversity)  Climax community (domination of one species)

252
Q

What is an example of management of succession? What problems arise from this?

A

Example, burning heathlands –
1. SOME areas are burnt = Prevent succession
2. Prevents dominance/climax community
3. Older forms are less palatable and less nutritious
4. New heather and other new species can grow
5. Biodiversity is increased
Problems? This can be costly as hunters pay a charge to hunt

253
Q

Stages of population growth

A

Slow growth  rapid growth  carrying capacity

254
Q

When is it best to use logarithmic scales? Why?

A

Best to use with rapid growth or when studying a long period of time
• Reduces wide-ranging quantities to tiny scopes
• Clearer Pattern shown

255
Q

Example of when to use logarithmic scale

A

• Bacterial Growth

256
Q

When do you use a two sample t test?

A

.Looking for significant differences between 2 sets of data

257
Q

The two sample t test tells you if there is a statistically significant difference between two means when:

A
  • The sample size is less than 25

- The data is normally distributed

258
Q

Two sample t test equation

A

T = (x1 – x2) / (root( (s1^2 / n1) + (s2^2 / n2) ))

259
Q

In the two sample t test, what does x1 mean?

A

mean of first sample

260
Q

In the two sample t test, what does x2 mean?

A

mean of second sample

261
Q

In the two sample t test, what does s1 mean?

A

standard deviation of first sample

262
Q

In the two sample t test, what does s2 mean?

A

standard deviation of second sample

263
Q

In the two sample t test, what does n1 mean?

A

number of measurement sin fist sample

264
Q

In the two sample t test, what does n2 mean?

A

number of measurements in second sample

265
Q

What does standard deviation show?

A

.How much the data deviates from the mean

.Average distance between each of the data points and the mean

266
Q

How much data lies within 1 and 2 s.d

A

68% of the data lies within 1 s.d

95% of the data lies within 2 s.d

267
Q

Standard deviation equation and meaning of letters

A
S = root( ( sum( x-mean(x) )^2 ) ) / (n-1) )
X = each score
N = the number of values
268
Q

What does Chi Squared test allow us to do?

A

.Identify significant differences between observed and expected results
.Measure the degree of deviation between them
.Determine if differences present between data sets (2+) are significant or due to chance.

269
Q

What conditions must apply for the chi-square test?

A

.Data is categorical (e.g. Phenotypes i.e. eye colour, gender or location)
.The portion of numbers expected in each category is known
.The number in each category is greater than 5

270
Q

Chi squared test formula and meaning

A

χ^2=∑((O-E)^2/E)

Σ Sum of
O Observed result
E Expected result

271
Q

Step by step chi squared test

A
  1. Formulate a Null Hypothesis
  2. Select the appropriate statistical test
  3. Carry out the calculation
  4. Determine the degrees of freedom (n-1)
  5. Compare your calculated value to the critical value calculated at 0.05
  6. Compare the calculated value with the critical value:
  7. Higher than the critical value = difference is not due to chance = reject the null hypothesis
  8. Lower than the critical value = difference is likely due to chance = accept the null hypothesis
272
Q

T-Test, what to do step by step?

A
  1. Formulate a Null Hypothesis
  2. Select the appropriate statistical test
  3. Carry out the calculation
  4. Determine the degrees of freedom (n-1)
  5. Compare your calculated value to the critical value calculated at 0.05
  6. Compare the calculated value with the critical value:
    a) Higher than the critical value = difference is not due to chance = reject the null hypothesis
    b) Lower than the critical value = difference is likely due to chance = accept the null hypothesis
273
Q

What does the T-Test tell you? with conditions

A

.If there is a statistically significant difference between two means when…..
.The sample size is less than 25
.The data is normally distributed

274
Q

Standard deviation formula and meaning of each part

A

root( (sum (x - mean(x))^2 ) / (n-1) )
x = each score
n = the number of values

275
Q

T test formula and meaning of each part

A

t = (x1 - x2) / root( (s1^2 / n1) + (s2^2 / n2) )

x1 = mean of 1st sample 
x2 = mean of 2nd sample
s1 = S.D of 1st sample
s2 = S.D of 2nd sample
n1 = no. measurements in 1st sample
n2 = no, measurements in 2nd  sample
276
Q

T test, when to accept or reject:

A

.If t is HIGHER than the critical value = REJECT the null hypothesis = there is a significant difference between both samples, differences are not due to chance
.If t is LOWER than the critical value = ACCEPT the null hypothesis = differences between the samples are not significant and are likely due to chance

277
Q

What do you use correlation coeficient for?

A

to find if there is a significant correlation between 2 variables

278
Q

When do you use correlation coefficient?

A

.If there is a significant correlation
.If the correlation is positive or negative
.Compares data which from two values
.May be visible on a graph

279
Q

Correlation coefficient (r) =

A

( sum(XY) – ( ( (sum(x)) x (sum(y)) )/n ) ) / root( ( sum(x^2) – ( (sum(x) )^2 /n ) ) x ( sum(y^2) – ( (sum(y) )^2 /n ) ) )

280
Q

What is n, in the correlation coefficient?

A

the number of values of x and y

281
Q

Where will r, the correlation coefficient, always lie?

A

r will always be between -1 and 1

282
Q

For r, the correlation coefficient, the closer to +1, the …

A

stronger the positive correlation

283
Q

For r, the correlation coefficient, the closer to 0, the …

A

the weaker the correlation

284
Q

For r, the correlation coefficient, the closer to -1, the …

A

stronger the negative correlation

285
Q

Student got an r value of 0.324, what is the relationship?

A

Weak positive correlation

286
Q

Student got an r value of -0.963, what is the relationship?

A

.Strong negative correlation

287
Q

Statistical Analysis Steps

A
  1. Formulate a Null Hypothesis
  2. Select the appropriate statistical test
  3. Carry out the calculation
  4. Determine the degrees of freedom
  5. Compare your calculated value to the critical value calculated at 0.05
  6. Compare the calculated value with the critical value:
    a) Higher than the critical value = difference is not due to chance = reject the null hypothesis
    b) Lower than the critical value = difference is likely due to chance = accept the null hypothesis
288
Q

Why population growth might differ between countries

A
  • Access to medical care
  • How much money people in the country have
  • How developed the country is, e.g. water quality
  • Benefits systems
  • Religious beliefs, contraception
  • Education, contraception
  • Social pressures
  • Availability of contraception
  • Culture
  • Age of population
  • Life expectancy low at birth
  • Natural disasters and war
  • Sanitation
289
Q

Features of a Pioneer Species –

A
  • Reproduce asexually
  • Reproduce quickly (short gestation period)
  • Produces lots of offspring
  • Movement of offspring
  • Doesn’t rely on other organisms
  • Adapted to harsh environments
  • Photosynthesise
  • Are nitrogen fixing
290
Q

Define preservation

A

maintaining individuals, populations and ecosystems in their current state without the exploitation of their natural resources

291
Q

Define conservation

A

allowing ecosystems to evolve (change) naturally, without resources being overused

292
Q

Differences between line transect and belt transect

A

Line Transect
.String or tape
.Organisms over which the line passes are recorded
.Usually using a quadrat

Belt Transect
.Strip or metre wide tape
.Second placed parallel to the first
.Species between the two belts are recorded

293
Q

Adv and Disadve of line transect vs belt transect

A

Line - .Limited time (quick)
.Easily shows species range along the transect
.Clear visual of how species change
.Harder to see the range across a large area
.Less data collected

Belt -
.Mora data
.Tells you about the abundance and the range of individual species at different points along the line
.Shows changes/distribution more clearly as more data
.Dominance of one species can be determined

294
Q

Assumptions for mark, release and recapture and why they are important?

A
  1. Proportion of marked to unmarked in the second sample is the same as the proportion of marked to unmarked in the whole population – so results not due to different sizes of sample
  2. Marked individuals distribute evenly – so results are valid, representative and not a result of clusters
  3. The population has a definite boundary – so you are studying the whole population/habitat
  4. Markings are nontoxic and makes it no more conspicuous – so it does not injure them or reduce their survival chances
  5. Population is constants (not breeding season) – ‘new’ individuals would not be marked/representative
  6. Markings cannot be rubbed off during the investigation – so that the population in second sample is not reduced
295
Q

What is the HardyWeinberg Principle

A

The Hardy-Weinberg principle is a mathematical equation used to calculate the frequencies of the alleles of a gene in a population.
Classed as a statistical analysis
- Established the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles
- Established the frequency of carriers (heterozygotes) in a population

296
Q

What principle is hardy-weinberg based on?

A

The proportion of dominant and recessive alleles of any gene in a population remains the same from one generation to the next

297
Q

What conditions is the hardy weinberg princple based on? Why are these important?

A
  • No new mutations arise, so no introduction of new alleles
  • The population is isolated, so no movement which encourages interbreeding which would reduce genetic differences between populations
  • There is no selection bias, natural selection = advantageous alleles favoured
  • Population studied is large, prevents the effects of random events affecting allele frequencies or changes due to chance
  • Mating is random, prevents the selection of particular alleles – selection breeding would alter allele frequencies
298
Q

Explain each part of the hardyweinberg principle

A

p = dominant allele
q = recessive allele
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
p2 is frequency of individuals that are homozygous dominant (AA)
2pq is frequency of individuals that are heterozygous (Aa or aA)
q2 is the frequency of individuals that are homozygous recessive (aa)
1 = all the alleles present must add up to 1 or 100%

299
Q

Define Gene

A

A segment of a nucleic acid that carries the code for a particular polypeptide or fRNA

300
Q

Define locus

A

The location of a specific gene on a chromosome

301
Q

Define amino acid

A

Monomers which make up proteins, coded for by 3 nucleotides

302
Q

Define triplet

A

3 bases code for 1 amino acid

303
Q

Define genetic code

A

The sequence of bases on mRNA which codes for amino acids

304
Q

Define degenerate code

A

Base combinations that lead to the same amino acid

305
Q

Define non-overlapping

A

Each of the amino acids that are coded for are distinct from the bases of adjacent amino acid codes

306
Q

Define universal

A

The same in all living organisms and cells

307
Q

Define exons

A

A part of DNA which codes

308
Q

Define introns

A

A part of DNA which doesn’t code

309
Q

Define chromosomes

A

Structures found inside the nucleus which hold genetic information

310
Q

Define chromatid

A

One of the two strands of a chromosome, held together by the centromere, after DNA replication, before division

311
Q

Define histones

A

Proteins found in the nucleus of eukaryotes which DNA coils around

312
Q

Define allele

A

A version of a gene

313
Q

What are the rules for calculating inheritance?

A
  • Choose a letter to represent the trait you are investigating (B for blue eyes)
  • Choose letters that are different lower case and capitals (Gg not Ww)
  • Capital = dominant, lower case = recessive
  • Label parents and their phenotypes (parent 1 = brown eyes)
  • Label gametes the parents produce and circle them
  • Draw a Punnett square
  • Label the gender of each parent
  • Always write the dominant allele first
  • Work out the cross
  • State the phenotypes
  • Calculate the ration
314
Q

What is a monohybrid cross?

A

a cross in which the alleles of only one gene are involved

  • Inheritance of a single gene
  • Used to determine the dominance relationship between two alleles
  • The cross begins with the parental (P1 or P) generation
315
Q

What is always the expected ration when heterozygotes are crossed?

A

3:1

316
Q

In diploid organisms, characteristics are determined by alleles that occur in ____

A

pairs

317
Q

Only one of each pair of alleles can be present in a single _____ in diploid organisms

A

gamete

318
Q

What do dihybrid crosses do?

A
  • Consider the inheritance of two characteristics at the same time
  • Shows how two characteristics, determined by 2 different genes, located on different chromosomes, are inherited
319
Q

How did Mendel use Peas to investigate bihybrid inheritance?

A
Pea plants varied in two ways:
1.	Seed colour
2.	Seed shape
Yellow and round = dominant
Green and wrinkled = recessive
So there were 4 possible combinations:
1.	R and Y
2.	R and G
3.	W and Y
4.	W and G
Or by genotype
1.	RY
2.	Ry
3.	rY
4.	ry
1 and 4 are homozygous, dominant and recessive respectively

He bread these two to produce a plant with 100% chance of RrYy (heterozygous for both characteristics, so all round and yellow), Mendel then crossed these two over

That means there was a ratio of RY:Ry:rY:ry of 9:3:3:1

320
Q

what is Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment –

A

Each member of a pair of allels may combaine randomlu with either of another pair

321
Q

The gene for colour and gene for shape are on ________ chromosomes

A

different

322
Q

WHat is codominance?

A

When both alleles are expressed in the phenotype

- Neither allele is dominant nor recessive, they are both equally dominant

323
Q

Explain how snapdragons are an example of codominant alleles

A
  • One allele codes for an enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of a red pigment in flowers
  • The other allele code for an altered version of the enzyme that doesn’t produce the red pigment – flowers remain white
  1. Homozygous for allele 1 – pigment produced – red flowers
  2. Homozygous for allele 2 – no enzyme activity so no pigment – white flowers
  3. Heterozygous – single functioning allele so only produces enough pigment to make the flowers pink
324
Q

Rules of codominant writing

A

We can’t use upper and lower case letters as this implies dominant/recessive
- We use different letters instead
o R = red
o W = white
- Letters should be superscript to the letter that represents the gene in question:
o C = colour

325
Q

What are mutiple alleles with example

A
  • Multiple alleles have more than two alternate forms of a single gene, located at the same loci of homologous chromosomes
  • Polygenetic traits (eye colour) are determined by several genes at different gene loci
  • Multiple alleles are involved in the determination of a single train by codominance
  • E.g.
    o Human blood groups
    o 3 alleles associated with he immunoglobulin gene (gene I)
    o Gene I dictates the presence of a certain antigen on the cell surface of red blood cells
326
Q

The allele is I^A, what is the antigen produced, possible genotypes, blood group, and diagram?

A

A
IAIA and IAIO
A

check notes

327
Q

The allele is I^B, what is the antigen produced, possible genotypes, blood group, and diagram?

A

B
IBIB, IBIO
B
Check notes

328
Q

The allele is I^O, what is the antigen produced, possible genotypes, blood group, and diagram?

A

Neither
IOIO
O
Check notes

329
Q

The allele is I^A I^B, what is the antigen produced, possible genotypes, blood group, and diagram?

A

A and B
IAIB
AB
Check notes

330
Q
  • For red blood cells, there are 3 alleles, but only 2 can be present in an individual, why?
A
  • This is because there are only two homologous chromosomes, so only 2 gene loci
331
Q
  • IA and IB are codominant
  • IO is recessive to both
  • This gives rise to ___ possible blood groups
A

4

332
Q

Which are the blood groups, and which is the most common?

A

A, B, AB, O

O is the most common – 48%

333
Q

If you have which antigen, your blood is positive?

A

Rhesus (Rh) D antigen

334
Q

Receiving blood from the wrong group can be life threatening, why? How can this be counteracted?

A
  • The antibodies will attack the cells
  • BUT
  • As group O red blood cells have no antigens, it can safely be given to any other group
335
Q

Explain the antibodies associated with each red blood cell type

A
  • A antigens on the red blood cells with anti-B antibodies in the plasma
  • B antigens with anti-A bodies in the plasma
  • O antigens but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma
  • Both A and B antigens so no antibodies
336
Q

What is Recombinant DNA Technology? What does it produce?

A
  • Transferring DNA fragments from one organism to another
  • Produces transgenic organisms
  • Produces genetically modified organism
  • Produces large quantalities of a required protein
337
Q

Process of producing proteins from recombinant dna technology?

A
  1. Isolation of the DNA fragment that carries the desirable gene
  2. Insertion of the DNA fragment into a vector
  3. Transformation (moving DNA into a host cell)
  4. Identification of the host cells that have successfully taken up the gene by using gene markers
  5. Growth/cloning of the population of host cells
338
Q

Why is it possible to use differing organisms in recombinant dna technology?

A

genetic code is universal

- Mechanisms involved in transcription/translation are universal

339
Q

What is the difference between chromosomes and chromatids?

A
  • Before replication, one chromosome is composed of one DNA molecule
  • Following replication, each chromosome is composed of two identical DNA molecules (i.e. DNA replication increases the amount of DNA but does not increase the number of chromosomes)
  • The two identical copies – each forming one half of the replicated chromosome – are called chromatids
  • During the later stages of cell division, these chromatids separate longitudinally to become individual chromosomes
340
Q

Desxribe the human Karyotype

A
  • 46 chromosomes
  • 23 pairs
  • 22 of the 23pairs have homoglous partners which are identical
  • 23rd pair are sex chromosomes (X and Y)
341
Q

Which of XX, and XY is male and femal?

A

XY – male

XX – female

342
Q

What is the ratio of offspring for reproduction of males and females? (in terms of x and y chromosomes)

A

Offspring – 2x XX, 2x XY
Phenotype – 2x male, 2x female
Ratio – 1:1

343
Q
  • Genes found on either X or Y are _______
A

sex-linked

344
Q

Which is longer, x or y?

A

X

345
Q

Some genes found on x do not have a _______ on Y?

A

Homologous equivalent

346
Q
  • Recessive characteristics found on those people will be more frequent in men, why?
A

This is because they have no homologous series on Y that could carry the dominant allele

347
Q

What is hemophillia?

A
  • X-linked genetic disorder (defective gene on X)
  • Blood does not clot correctly
  • Leads to excess bleeding following a cut or persistent internal bleeding
  • Fatal if not treated
    Fatalities have selectively reduced the gene in the population to approximately 1 in 20,000
348
Q

Why is hemophillia rare in females?

A
  • Have two x chromosomes

- Hemophiliac females used to die at the onset of puberty

349
Q

Is hemophilia recessive or dominant?

A

Recessive

350
Q

What does the recessive hemophilia allele code for?

A

codes for an alternative sequence which results in a faulty protein

351
Q

What do pedigree charts allow us to do?

A
  • Allow us to trace inheritance of sex-linked characteristics
352
Q

Methods used to identify a gene include:

A
  • mRNA  cDNA using reverse transcription
  • Using restriction endonucleases to cut out desired gene
  • Making the gene in a gene machine
353
Q

Draw the process of HIV replication

A

CHECK NOTES

354
Q

What are the steps of HIV replication?

A
  1. HIV binds to helper T cells
  2. Protein capsid fuses
  3. Reverse transcriptase converts HIV RNA to DNA
  4. The new DNA moves into the nucleus to create mRNA
  5. New viral proteins and HIV made
  6. HIV bud away from the helper T cell
355
Q

How is reverse transcriptase used in recombinant DNA?

A
  1. Protein producing cell with large amounts of relevant mRNA is selected
  2. Desired genes mRNA is extracted
  3. Reverse transcriptase forms a single-stranded complementary copy of DNA (cDNA) from mRNA = template strand
  4. Hydrolysis of the mRNA isolates cDNA
  5. DNA polymerase forms DNA on the template cDNA
  6. Desire gene is formed
  7. Could be inserted into plasmids
356
Q

What is a restriction endonuclease?

A
  • A restriction enzyme
  • Cutes DNA at a specific sequence of bases – recognition sequence
  • Has two results
    o Producing ‘blunt ends’
    o Producing ‘sticky ends’
357
Q

Why are sticky ends more useful?

A
  • Are a palindrome
    o Same forward and backward
  • 4 unpaired bases are opposite
  • Recognition sequence is 6 bp palindromic sequence
    o 6 because restriction endonuclease recognizes a 6 base pair sequence
    o Complementary to plasmid
358
Q

What is the gene machine?

A
  • Used to create the gene required
  • Synthesizes DNA fragments from scratch
  • No need for a pre existing DNA template
359
Q

How does the gene machine work?

A
  1. Desired protein identified
  2. Base sequence determined
  3. Amino acid order determine
  4. Amino acid sequence helps work out complementary mRNA codons
  5. mRNA used to produce complementary DNA
360
Q

What are the steps involved in the gene machine?

A
  1. The DNA sequence is designed (if not known) and fed into the computer
  2. First nucleotide is fixed to a support
  3. Nucleotides are added in correct order
  4. Protecting groups are added to ensure bases are added at the right place
  5. Compurers design oligonucleotides
    a. Short sections of single stranded DNA
  6. Protecting groups are removed and oligonucleotides joined
  7. Double strands are formed to replicate a gene
  8. Gene is inserted into a plasmid
  9. Vector (bacteria) stores, replicates, and transfers the gene
  10. New gene is checked for mistakes
  11. Bacteria carrying suitable gene are cloned
361
Q

What is amplification?

A

Once a DNA fragment containing the desired gene you need is isolated you need to:

  • Clone it
  • Produce enough of it for medical or commercial use
362
Q

How is amplification done?

A

Two main methods:

  1. In vivo – transferring into a host cell using a vector
  2. In vitro – polymerase chain reaction
363
Q

What are the 5 main stages of in vivo amplification?

A

In vivo amplification involves the same 5 steps:

  1. Isolation
  2. Insertion
  3. Transformation
  4. Identification
  5. Growth
364
Q

What does isolation and insertion require?

A
  • Restriction endonuclease
  • Complementary sticky ends
  • A vector
  • A plasmid
365
Q

Steps of isolation and insertion

A
  1. Desired gene (from a human) is cut at the recognition site with a restriction enzyme
  2. The section of DNA from E.coli (bacteria) is cut using the same restriction enzyme at the same recognition site
  3. Complementary sticky end is produced
  4. Complementary base pairing occurs
  5. Weak hydrogen bonds form
  6. DNA ligase reforms the sugar-phosphate backbone
366
Q

Explain why the same restriction endonuclease enzyme must be used (4 marks)

A
  1. Cuts at the same base sequence
  2. Ensures sticky ends are complementary
  3. Only cuts at specific recognition site
  4. Ensures DNA fragment can insert into the plasmid
367
Q

Fr transcription to take place you also require (for amplification

A
  • RNA Polymerase
  • Transcription factors to bind near gene
  • Promoter region: initiates transcription
    o Tells RNA polymerase where to bind
  • Terminator: releases RNA polymerase
368
Q

What is transformtion?

A
  • Introducing recombinant plasmids into a host
  • Mixing bacterial cell and plasmid in a medium containing
    o Calcium ions
    o Ice cold
369
Q

Why are those conditions needed for transformation?

A
  1. Ice cold calcium chloride solution
    Increases permeability
  2. Heat shock
    Encourages uptake
370
Q

Problems with transformation

A
  1. Less than 1% take up the plasmids
  2. Some plasmid close before the new DNA is added
  3. Some DNA joins to form its own plasmid
371
Q

What are the main methods of identification?

A

Using a second, separate gene on the plasmid that is easily identifiable –

  1. Resistant to an antibiotic
  2. Make a fluorescent protein
  3. Produce an enzyme whose action can be identified
372
Q

Explain autosomal linkages

A

When 2 or more genes are carried on the same autosome = autosomal linked
• All linked genes stay together during meiosis
• This means they will pass into the gamete together
• Meaning they will pass into the offspring together
• They do not follow Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment as each allele is not free to mix with either allele from another pair

373
Q

Predict the genotypes of offspring of GgNn and GgNn if GN and gn are autosomal linked

A

GGNN
GgNn
GgNn
ggnn

374
Q

Gene markers that code for antibiotic resistance can be used to identify the uptake of recombinant plasmids. Explain how and what are the problems with this (4 marks)

A
  1. Bacterial cells are grown in a medium containing antibiotic
  2. Plasmids taken up, have resistance so survive
  3. Any that do not will die
    Problems –
    Plasmids may be taken up but close before gene is inserted

OR

  1. Second antibiotic resistance gene is cut when new gene is incorporated
  2. Bacteria with required gene are not resistant
  3. Grown in medium containing antibiotic 2
  4. Those with required gene die
375
Q

What is replica plating?

A

One or more secondary petri plates are inoculated with the same colonies of microorganisms from a primary plate, reproducing the original spatial pattern of colonies

376
Q

Steps of replica plating

A
  1. The bacteria is gown on agar treated with ampicillin (antibiotic)
  2. Colonies grow if resistant to ampicillin (the bacteria that took up the plasmid)
  3. A replica plate is now made by pressing the agar of one petri-dish, onto the agar of a new petri-dish, transferring bacterial cells from each colony onto the new agar
  4. Second agar plate is treated with antibiotic 2
  5. Colonies are allowed to develop
  6. Missing colony did not have resistance, must be a colony containing cells with the plasmid
377
Q

Which genetic cross has 3:1 ratio?

A

monohybrid two heterozygous

378
Q

Which genetic cross has 9:3:3:1 ratio?

A

dihybrid two heterozygous

379
Q

Which genetic cross has 1:1:1:1 ratio?

A

blood group (heterozygous A and B) or sex linkage (carrier female and normal male)

380
Q

Which genetic cross has 1:2:1 ratio?

A

Codominant heterozygous

381
Q

What does epi mean?

A

upon/over

382
Q

What is epistasis?

A
  • Epistasis describes a condition whereby one gene controls the expression of another gene
  • Or
  • When an allele of one gene affects or masks the expression of another in the phenotype
383
Q

Ratio for crossing over AaBb and AaBb where a dominant B means A works and a recessive bb means A doesnt work

A

9:4:3

384
Q

Explaination of epistemic genes

A
  • The expression of gene B affects the expression of gene A
  • bb = no melanin/white
  • If there is no melanin then gene A cannot be expressed
  • This means AA, Aa, and aa, will all produce white fur if bb is present
  • If B is present in the genotype, melanin is produced
  • If A and B are produced then melanin and banded are produced, so agouti
  • If B is found with aa, then melanin I produced but bands are not, black
385
Q

How does epistemic genes affect biochemical oathways

A
  • Some genes act in sequence by coding for specific enzymes in a pathway
  • Dominant alleles code for the functional form of the enzyme
  • Recessive homozygotes would disrupt the pathway
  • The presence of one non-functional gene will affect the other as failure to express one gene will result in no pigment being made
386
Q

Explain how antibiotic resistance aids in the identification stage of in vivo amplification?

A
  1. Select a plasmid with two antibiotic resistant genes
  2. Insert the DNA fragment in an antibiotic gene
  3. Grow bacteria on an agar plate containing antibiotic 2
  4. replica plating
  5. Missing colony did not have resistance, and so must be a colony containing cells with he plasmid, you compare this with the first plate, and identify the desired cells to clone
387
Q

A plasmid may be used as a vector. Explain what is meant be a vector in this context. (2 marks)

A

Something which carries foreign DNA molecules into another cell.

388
Q

Molecular biologists often use plasmids which contain antibiotic resistance genes. Explain the reason for this. (2 marks)

A

Acts as a marker gene, which allows the detection of cells containing the plasmid.

389
Q

How can fluoresence aid in the identification stage of in vivo amplification?

A

How?
- Organisms such as jellyfish can produce green fluorescent protein (GFP)
- GFP is introduced into bacterial plasmids
- Required gene is inserted in the middle
What?
- Hybrid plasmid is inserted into host (bacterial cell)
- Any cells that successfully took up plasmids will not fluoresce
- These are collected and cloned

390
Q

How can enzyme markers be used in the identification stage of in vivo amplification?

A
  • Desired gene inserted into a gene coding for an enzyme i.e. lactase
  • Colorless substrate Xgal  lactase  blue
  • Bacteria are grown in a medium containing Xgal
  • Bacteria with plasmid cannot produce lactase
  • Cannot convert colour to blue
  • Colorless spots identified and cloned
391
Q

What is in vitro cloning?

A
  • Copying DNA fragments outside of living organisms
  • Fully autonamted
  • Fast and efficient
  • Highly used in forensic science
392
Q

What is the main method of in vitro cloning?

A
  • PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
  • DNA sequence is exponentially amplified
  • Thousands/millions of copies of DNA segment
393
Q

What is required for in vitro cloning?

A
  1. DNA fragment – specimen of interest that needs to be copied
  2. DNA Polymerase – enzyme that joins nucleotides together
  3. Primers – short nucleotide sequence that has bases complementary to one end of the DNA fragments
  4. Nucleotides – contain the 4 DNA bases and are used to join to the DNA fragments
  5. Thermocycler – automated machine that controls the temperature during the PCR cycle
394
Q

Describe the process of PCR

A
  1. DNA Fragments, DNA polymerase, and primers are mixed and put in the thermocycler
  2. Temperature increased to 95’C which causes the hydrogen bonds to break which separates the DNA strands
  3. Cooled to 55’C which causes the primers to anneal to the complementary bases at the ends of the DNA fragments
  4. Primers stop DNA strands from re-joining
  5. Primers provide the starting sequence for DNA polymerase, which can only join nucleotide onto an existing chain
  6. DNA polymerase beings DNA copying
  7. It begins at the primer until it reaches the end of the fragment
  8. Temperature increases to 72’C, which is the optimum temperature for DNA polymerase
395
Q

Key poitns of PCR

A
  • Produces 2 copies of the original double stranded fragment
  • One cycle takes about 2 minutes
  • More than 100 billion copies can be made in a few hours
  • Process is repeated
396
Q

Polymerase works in PCR because …

A

o It is taken from bacteria in hot springs
o Its an extremophile
o It is thermostable (works functionally in high temperatures)

397
Q

Why is it good to locate genes?

A
  • Identify genes responsible for diseases
  • Infer treatments
  • Allow early diagnosis
  • Recombinant gene technology
398
Q

What are the two main methods for locating genes?

A
  • Labelled DNA probes

- DNA hybridization

399
Q

Summarize the process of DNA hybridization for locating genes

A
  1. Double stranded DNA is heated
  2. The single stranded DNA is mixed with a labelled DNA probe (marker)
  3. The solution is cooled so the complementary bases can anneal DNA hybridisation
  4. The marker on the probe identifies the gene present
400
Q

What is a DNA probe and what is it used for?

A
  • Short, single-stranded sections of DNA fragments
  • Bind to complementary sections on other DNA strands
  • Labelled so easily identifiable
401
Q

DNA probe methods

A
  • Fluorescently labelled
  • Radioactively labelled
  • Isotope 32P
  • IDd using X-ray film
402
Q

To identify a disease causing mutation you need to:

A
  • Screen for mutated genes
  • Create a probe complementary to mutated gene
  • Sequence the mutant gene
    o DNA sequencing is used to determine the nucleotide order of the mutant allele
403
Q

How do you identify a mutant allele?

A
  1. DNA sequencing determines the nucleotide order
  2. DNA fragments complementary to the mutant gene are made
  3. The DNA fragment is radioactively/fluorescently labelled (DNA probe)
  4. PCR used to copy the DNA probe
  5. PCR used to copy the DNA prove
  6. DNA from the patient is heated to make it a single strand
  7. The probe is added
  8. DNA prove will bind if complementary mutant DNA is present
  9. Sample is washed to remove any unattached proves
  10. Labeled DNA fragments labelled are identified
404
Q

What is genetic counselling?

A

A service that help individuals to:

  • Understand a screenings emotional, psychological, medical and economic consequences
  • Get more accurate testing and understand results of this
  • Help make more appropriate and informed decisions
405
Q

Why do genetic counselling?

A
  • Family history
  • High probability of having children with the disorder
  • Increased risk/risk factors
406
Q

What is a microarray?

A
  • A collection of microscopic DNA spots
  • Attached to a solid tile
  • In a known position
407
Q

Why is a microarray useful?

A

It is a lab tool used to:

  • Detect the expression of different gees
  • At the same time (simultaneously)
  • Identify multiple genetic disorders
408
Q

Steps for microarray use

A
  1. Identify different disease causing genes
  2. Amplify the DNA probes using PCR
  3. Attach them to a glass slide
  4. Extract the DNA/RNA you want to test (from different areas of the genome)
  5. Add a label to this so that it can be identified
  6. Add this to your slide
  7. Complementary DNA in the donor will bind to probes
  8. Wash the array to remove any unbound sample fragments
  9. Expose to UV light
  10. Any DNA bound to the probe will fluorescence
409
Q

Micro array positive result

A

If the fluorescent spot contains the probe for the mutated gene, the sample donor has that genetic disorder.

410
Q

How can microarrays be used?

A

A microarray can be very useful for identifying:

  • Cancer causing mutations
  • People at risk of genetic diseases
  • The most effective medicines
411
Q

What are the two Tumour Supressing Genes

A
  • One alleles of the tumour suppressing gene = can survive

- Both alleles of the tumour supressing gene = tumour may develop

412
Q

How can microarrays help?

A
  • Identify people at risk
  • Ensure they cut down on mutagens
  • Regular check ups
413
Q

How is genetics linked to medicine?

A
  • Genotypes affect the effectiveness of some drugs
  • Dosages can be controlled, making it
    o Cheaper
    o More effective
    o Reduces harm
    Cancer screening could show:
  • Oncogene mutations
    o Determine the type of cancer = the best drug or chemo to use
  • Gene changes
    o Predict likely benefit from different treatments
  • Single cancer cells
    o Could cause a relapse
    Other Examples:
  • Painkillers
    o Effectiveness linked to activating enzyme levels
  • Vitamin E
    o Reduces risk of cardiovascular disease in some diabetic patients, increases it in others
414
Q

What is a mutation?

A
  • A change to the structure or quantity of DNA
415
Q

WHat are the two types of mutations?

A
  • There are 2 categories of mutation
    o Gene mutation
    o Chromosome mutation
416
Q

What is a gene mutation?

A
  • A change to one or more of the bases
  • A change to the order of the bases
  • Can happen during DNA replication
417
Q

What is a chromosome mutation?

A
  • Change to the structure or number of chromosomes
    o Polyploidy
     Change in whole set, usual when organism has 3 or more sets (plants
    o Non-Disjnction
     When homologous pairs don’t separate during meiosis, gametes end up with more or fewer chromosomes
418
Q

Explain substitution

A
  • One base is replaced with another
  • 3 possible outcomes
    o A stop codon is formed
     Polypeptide chain formation is stopped prematurely
    o Different amino acid formed
     Polypeptide different by one amino acid
     Protein may have different shape (active site)
    o Different codon produce by codes for the same amino acid
419
Q

Explain deletion

A
  • Deletion of base
  • Can have a huge impact
  • Frameshift left
  • Reading frame shifts so all triplets are changed
  • All amino acids are different
  • Worse if deleted base is at the start of a sequence
420
Q

Effects of addition and deletion of bases

A

Addition of a base –
- Similar to deletion if its one base – frameshift tight
- If 3 bases (or a multiple of 3 bases) area added there will be no frameshift and so the change less dramatic
Duplication of a base –
- One or more bases repeated
- Frameshift right

421
Q

Explain inversion mutation

A
  • A group of bases separate from the sequence and re-join in the same place but in inverted order
  • The base sequence is reversed
422
Q

Explain translocation mutation

A
  • A group of bases separate from one chromosome and join another
  • Usually have a marked effect
  • Translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 causes leukaemia
423
Q

Crossing Over Vs Translocation

A
  • Translocation is a mutation, crossing over is not
  • Translocation result in a change in the genetic information between non-homologous chromosomes
  • Crossing over simple swaps genetic material between homologous chromosomes unchanged
424
Q

Causes of Mutations

A
  • Spontaneous
    o No outside factors involved, usually during DNA replication
  • Natural mutation rate = 1 or 2 mutations per 100,000 genes per generation
  • Mutagenic agents/mutagens increase this
    o Chemicals
     Nirogen dioxide affects transcription
     Benzopyrene (tobacco) inactivates tumour suppressor genes
    o High energy ionising radiation
     Alpha and beta particles
     Xrays
     UV
     All disrupt DNA Structure
425
Q

What is genetif fingerprintin?

A

Genetic fingerprinting is a forensic diagnostic tool which uses analysis of DNA to identify individuals

426
Q

What is genetic fingerprinting useful for?

A
It is useful for:
-	Forensic science
-	Genetic relationships
o	Paternity testing
-	Genetic variation/diversity
-	Medical diagnosis
-	Plant and animal breeding
o	Identify organism the desired genes
o	Identify paternity (pedigrees)
o	Prevent interbreeding
427
Q

Why is everyone’s genome unique?

A
  • Genomes contain repetitive, non-coding bases (introns)
  • Contain repeated sequences called variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)
  • VNTRs number and length gives a unique pattern
  • Close related = more similar the VNTRs
428
Q

Steps of genetic fingerprinting

A
  1. Extraction
  2. Digestion
  3. Separation (gel electrophoresis)
  4. Hybridization
  5. Development
429
Q

Describe extraction for DNA fingerprinting

A
  • DNA is extracted from a sample (blood, hair, semen, skin)

- Amplified using PCR or cells broken down to release DNA

430
Q

Describe digestion for DNA fingerprinting

A
  • Restriction endonucleases

- Cut close but not within the target DNA (VNTR)

431
Q

What is gel electrophoresis and how does it work?

A
What is Gel Electrophoresis?
-	Separates DNA fragments by size
How does it work?
-	Agar gel with electrical current running through it
-	Fragments are labelled
-	Small fragments travel further
-	Final position can be viewed
432
Q

Why is everyone’s genome unique?

A
  • Short sequences of non-coding DNA
  • Repeat in tandem (end to end)
  • Number of repeats varies
  • Length varies
433
Q

Steps of genetic fingerprinting?

A
  1. Extraction – cell lysis and/or PCR
  2. Digestion – restriction endonuclease
  3. Separation – gel electrophoresis
  4. Hybridization – labelled probe
  5. Development – UV or radioactive analysis
434
Q

Describe the steps of gel electrophoresis

A
  1. DNA sample added to well
  2. Power source turned on and DNA migrates through the gel
  3. The fragments are separated by size
  4. Smallest move further
435
Q

How do you analyze gel electrophoresis?

A
  • Control = DNA ladder
  • Sample from scene
  • Suspects DNA
  • Comparisons made
  • Criminal identified
436
Q

What is southern blotting?

A
  • A lab technique
  • Transfer’s electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments
  • To a filter membrane (nylon sheath)
  • Prepares fragments for hybridization
  • Enables identification
437
Q

Steps of southern blotting simplified

A
  1. Nylon membrane
  2. Absorbent paper
  3. Exact position of fragments
  4. DNA probes
  5. Hybridization
  6. Analysis and identification
438
Q

Steps of southern plotting

A
  1. DNA fragments produced on gel
  2. Placed in alkali to separate double strands
  3. Thin nylon membrane laid over gel and covered with absorbent paper sheets
  4. Paper draws up the liquid containing the DNA by capillary action, DNA fragmens fix to the nylon in the same position as the gel
  5. DNA fragments are fixed to the nylon using UV light, nylon is peeled off
439
Q

What is hybridizarion?

A
  • Radioactive/fluorescent DNA probes are added to label the VNTRs (hybridization)
  • Specific probes bind to complementary sequences
  • Washed to remove excess probes
  • Membrane is dried
440
Q

What is development?

A
  • Nylon sheet is placed under X-ray film
  • Radioactive probes on the DNA fragments expose the film
  • Produces visible pattern of light and dark bands
  • Pattern is unique
  • Distribution analyzed
441
Q

Whole process of genetic fingerprinting

A
  • Extraction
  • Digestion
  • Separation
    o Including Southern Blotting
  • Hybridization
  • Development
    o Including Analysis
442
Q
  • For forensic science, DNA matches are not enough to convict a suspect, why?
A

o The DNA may have been left on some other, innocent occasion
o The DNA may belong to a very close relative
o The DNA sample may have been contaminated after the crime, either by the suspects DNA or by chemicals which affect the action of the restriction endonuclease used in preparing the fingerprint
o The calculation used to suggest the probability of a DNA match is based on the assumption that the binding pattern DNA is randomly distributed within the community, but in the case where small religious or ethnic groups tend to have partners within their own community

443
Q

What are stem cells?

A
  • Undifferentiated cells that can mature into any type of cell
  • All specialised cells originally came from stem cells.
  • Stem cells divide to become new cells, which then become speciailised.
444
Q

What is self-renewal?

A

Self-renewal – the ability to go through numerous cycles of cell division while maintaining the undifferentiated state.

445
Q

What is an embryonic stem cell?

A

early stages of development, very flexible

446
Q

What is an adult tissue stem cell?

A

found in fetus  adult, specific to a particular tissue/organ, allow self-regeneration only

447
Q

What are the locations of somatic stem cells?

A
  • Blood vessels
  • Skin
  • Heart
  • Liver
  • Gut
  • Bone marrow
  • Peripheral blood
  • Skeletal muscle
448
Q

What is a totipotent stem cell?

A

o Can produce all cell types (embryo and placenta)

o Only present during the first few cell divisions

449
Q

What is a pluripotent stem cell?

A

o Can become body cells found in an embryo but not the placenta
o Can divide in unlimited numbers so used in medicine

450
Q

WHat is a multipotent stem cell?

A

o Found in adults
o Give rise to several different types of specialised cells, but are restricted to a certain organ or tissue types e.g. blood cells

451
Q

WHat is a unipotent stem cell?

A

o Found in adults

o Can only make one type of cell e.g. epidermal skin cells

452
Q

Why are totipotent cells useful?

A
  • Totipotent cells have the ability to develop into any cell found in the human body and during its development
  • Useful during embryo development, as we start off as a single cell, but are eventually a collection of millions of different cell types
453
Q

Why are embryonic stem cells important?

A
  • Embryonic stem cells are important because they can differentiate into any type of cell
  • For the first few weeks, the developing embryo contains unspecialised cells, these are embryonic stem cells
454
Q

How do cells become specialised?

A

Specialised cells all contain the same genetic information.

  1. A cell becomes specialised as different genes are expressed, and so only some DNA is translated into proteins
  2. All cells in the body do not make all of the products they are genetically capable of, as it would be a waste of resources
455
Q

How are cells specialised, in depth?

A
  1. Some genes are permanently expressed
  2. Some genes are never expressed
  3. Some switch on and off
  4. Differentiated cells produce different proteins as a result
    Essentially:
    Gene expressed  mRNA transcribed and translated into proteins  proteins modify the cell  cell becomes specialised for a particular function
    Genes switched off  mRNA not transcribed  protein not produced
456
Q

How are genes prevented from expressing themselves?

A
  1. The prevention of transcription (therefore no mRNA)

2. Break down of mRNA before translation

457
Q

Describe cardiomyoctes

A

unipotent

  • Heart muscle cells
  • Originally thought they were unable to divide to replicate themselves in mature mammals
  • Now thought that we have unipotent stem cells in the heart that can replace the old/damaged cardiomyocytes
458
Q

How can stem cells help heart attacks?

A
  • A heart attack occurs when the coronary arteries are blocked
  • With no blood flow, the cells die, causing cardiac tissue to die
  • Once these tissues are lost, they cannot be replaced, thus causing permanent damage
  • Current research has shown that it may be possible to repair damaged cardiac tissue with stem cells
  • Human embryonic stem cells can differentiate into cardiomyocytes under appropriate conditions
459
Q

How are human embryonic stem cells used?

A
  • Cells can be taken from the early stages of an embryo, grown in vitro, and induced to develop into tissues
460
Q

Descrbe parkinson’s disease

A
  • Degenerative neurological disorder that affects the body’s motor system
  • It is caused by a lack of dopamine made by brain cells
  • 10 million sufferers
461
Q

What are iPS cells?

A
  1. iPS cells are induced pluripotent stem cells that are produced from unipotent cells
462
Q

How are iPS cells geneticallly altered?

A
  1. They are genetically altered so that they have the characteristics of embryonic stem cells (pluripotent), this is done by inducing genes and transcriptional factors to be expressed (switches on ‘off’ genes)
  2. Since the genes can be ‘switched on’ it shows that adult stem cells retain the genetic information that was present in the embryonic stage
463
Q

What are interesting about iPS cells?

A
  1. iPS cells are similar to embryonic stem cells, capable of self-renewal, and have the potential to divide indefinitely
464
Q

Why could iPS cells be useful?

A
  1. They could be useful as they replace embryonic stem cells in research and treatment, as well as removing ethical complications
465
Q

Do mature plants have stem cells?

A
  1. Mature plants have many totipotent cells, this allows them to form clones from a single cell
466
Q

For stem cell research

A
  • Huge potential to cure debilitating disease
  • Wrong to allow suffering when it can be relieved
  • Embryos are created for other purposes (IVF) so why not stem cells
  • Embryos of less than 14 days are not recognisably human and so do not command the same respect as adults or fetuses
  • There is no risk of research escalating or including fetuses because of current legislation
  • Adult stem cells are not as suitable as embryonic stem cells and it may be many years before they are, in the meantime many people will suffer unnecessarily
467
Q

Against stem cell research

A
  • It is wrong to use humans, including potential humans, as a means to an end
  • Embryos are human, they have human genes, and deserve the same respect and treatment as adult humans
  • It is a ‘slippery slope’ to the use of older embryos and fetuses for research
  • It could lead to research and development of human cloning and, although banned in the UK, the information gained could be used elsewhere
  • It undermines respect for life
  • Adult stem cells are an available alternative and energies should be directed towards developing these
468
Q

What does in vivo have which in vitro doesn’t?

A

Can add a gene to a different organism via a vector
Little risk of contamination as restriction endonuclease is specific
Isolates specific genes
Very accurate/mutation rate is low
Contaminated in In Vivo will not be taken up by the plasmid due to specific sticky ends

469
Q

What does in vitro have which in vivo doesn’t?

A
Very fast (in vitro takes weeks)
Forensic analysis – produce samples quickly from a tiny specimen
Does not require living cells
No time consuming culture needed
Only need a DNA sequence
470
Q

How does RNA polymerase Stop?

A
  • When RNA polymerase reaches a stop triplet, it detaches – the production of pre-mRNA is complete
471
Q

What is a splieosome?

A

RNA-protein complex made up of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs)

472
Q

Draw a diagram to show ho w spliceosome works

A

check notes

473
Q

Describe tRNA –

A
  • The open-end of a tRNA molecule is the amino acid attachment site
  • The opposite end is the anticodon loop
  • The anticodon loop consists of 3 unpaired bases
  • These bases vary, giving tRNA specificity to amino acids
474
Q

What forms the peptide bonds in translation?

A

Peptide bonds are formed with the enzyme peptidyl transferase and ATP in translation

475
Q

The ribosome loves along the mRNA until it reaches a stop codon, there it detaches due to what?

A

The ribosome loves along the mRNA until it reaches a stop codon, there it detaches due to the presence of a release factor.

476
Q

How does the adrenaline second messenger model work? Draw a diagram

A

check notes

477
Q

How does the epinephrine second messenger model work? Draw a diagram

A

check notes