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SK299 > Topic 3 - Nutrition & Digestion > Flashcards

Topic 3 - Nutrition & Digestion Flashcards

1
Q

What proportion of society is considered overweight?

A

Over 1/3 of adults and nearly 1/3 of children

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2
Q

Simplified, what causes obesity?

A

Too much energy-rich food and too sedentary a lifestyle

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3
Q

What are the possible neurological effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Headache
  • Stroke
  • Dementia, inc. Alzheimer’s
  • Vision loss from diabetic complications
  • False brain tumour (pseudo tumour cerebri)
  • Diabetic neuropathy (weak/numbness)
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4
Q

What are the possible respiratory effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Asthma
  • Sleep apnoea
  • Pulmonary embolism (blockage of the main artery of the lung)
  • Pulmonary hypertension (increased blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs)
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5
Q

What are the possible urological effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Diabetes

* Kidney cancer

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6
Q

What are the possible circulatory effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • High blood pressure
  • High cholesterol
  • Atherosclerosis (fatty deposits in the arteries)
  • Irregular heartbeat
  • Heart attack/failure
  • Poor circulation
  • Leg/ankle swelling
  • Peripheral artery disease (buildup of plaque in arteries)
  • Certain lymphomas
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7
Q

What are the possible psychological effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Eating disorders
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8
Q

What are the possible gastrointestinal effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • GERD
  • Oesophageal cancer
  • Colon polyps
  • Fatty liver disease
  • Cirrhosis (disease of the liver)
  • Liver cancer
  • Gallstones
  • Gallbladder cancer
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9
Q

What are the possible pancreatic effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Type 2 diabetes
  • Pancreatitis
  • Pancreatic cancer
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10
Q

What are the possible nutritional effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency

* Other vitamin/mineral deficiencies

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11
Q

What are the possible female reproductive effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Irregular periods
  • Infertility
  • PCOS
  • Ovarian/Endometrial/Cervical/Breast cancer
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12
Q

What are the possible male reproductive effects of excessive fat storage?

A
  • Prostate cancer
  • Infertility
  • Erectile dysfunction
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13
Q

What is adipose tissue?

A

Body fat - specialised connective tissue made of lipid-rich cells called adipocytes

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14
Q

What does the term ‘lean body mass’ refer to?

A

All body organs (eg bone, muscle, lungs) which do not store fat

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15
Q

What are the two types of adipose tissue?

A
  • White adipose tissue

* Brown adipose tissue

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16
Q

What is white adipose (WAT) tissue?

A
  • The most common type of adipose tissue found in the body

* Stores energy as fat

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17
Q

What is brown adipose (BAT) tissue?

A

Tissue whose primary function is thermoregulation

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18
Q

What is the function of brown adipose tissue?

A

To produce body heat from the energy which comes from the food we consume

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19
Q

What is the function of white adipose tissue?

A

Its main function is insulation and energy storage

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20
Q

Where is brown adipose tissue typically stored?

A
  • The neck

* Around the large blood vessels of the thorax

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21
Q

What are adipocytes?

A

Cells which are specialised in the synthesis and storage of fat

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22
Q

We need some white adipose tissue (WAT), but what for?

A

Cushioning, insulating and protecting organs and bones in the body

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23
Q

What are the factors which likely affect a person’s volume of adipose tissue (adiposity)?

A
  • Genetics
  • Age
  • Sex
  • Physical activity
  • Diet
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24
Q

Where do men tend to carry their excess fat?

A

Abdomen

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25
Q

Where do women tend to carry their excess fat?

A
  • Thighs

* Hips

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26
Q

After what age do people tend to lose fat and lean body mass?

A

70

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27
Q

How does the WHO recommend assessing an individual’s adiposity?

A

By using their waist-to-hip ratio in combination with their BMI

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28
Q

What are the two factors that make up an individual’s TEE (total energy expenditure)?

A
  • The total energy required to carry out basic processes of life (eg heartbeat, breathing)
  • The total energy required for other tasks such as brain activity
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29
Q

What is the definition of BMR?

A

The number of calories your body uses to maintain vital functions, such as breathing, heart rate, and brain function

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30
Q

How would you be in a state of energy balance?

A

If your total energy intake (TEI) exactly matches your total energy expenditure (TEE)

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31
Q

How would you be in a state of positive energy balance?

A

If your total energy intake (TEI) is greater than your total energy expenditure (TEE)

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32
Q

How would you be in a state of negative energy balance?

A

If total energy intake (TEI) is less than total energy expenditure (TEE)

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33
Q

Is obesity caused by a positive or negative energy balance?

A

A positive energy balance

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34
Q

What is catabolism?

A

The breaking down of complex substances in to simpler ones, with the release of energy

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35
Q

Are catabolic reactions exergonic or endergonic?

A

Exergonic

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36
Q

Define exergonic

A

A reaction which relases or generates more energy than it uses

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37
Q

Define endergonic

A

Reactions which use more energy than they release

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38
Q

What is anabolism?

A

The process by which the body utilizes the energy released by catabolism to synthesize complex molecules

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39
Q

In which part of the cell is ATP made?

A

The cytosol

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40
Q

What is glycolisis?

A

The process that combines sugars and glycerol to produce ATP

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41
Q

What is the TCA (tricarboxylic acid) cycle?

A

A series of metabolic reactons that occur in the mitochrondria producing ATP

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42
Q

By what other term is the TCA cycle known?

A

Aerobic respiration

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43
Q

What are the waste products of the TCA cycle?

A
  • Water

* Carbon dixoide

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44
Q

Which is more efficient: anaerobic or aerobic respiration?

A

Aerobic

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45
Q

How many more times more ATP than anaerobic respiration does aerobic respiration produce?

A

15 times

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46
Q

During periods of heavy exercise, what is the main source of ATP, glycolysis or aerobic respiration?

A

Glycolysis

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47
Q

What is de novo lipogenisis?

A

The process which converts glucose and some amino acids in to fat

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48
Q

What are the six key nutrient groups?

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Fats
  • Proteins
  • Minerals
  • Vitamins
  • Water
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49
Q

Which nutritional group is important to assist with the maintenance of ionic gradients?

A

Minerals

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50
Q

What is the definition of the term macronutrients?

A

The nutrients required in large amounts in the diet, i.e. carbohydrates, fats and protein

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51
Q

What is the definition of the term micronutrients?

A

Nutrients that are needed in only very small quantities by the body

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52
Q

What is the definition of the term antioxidants?

A

Molecules, including certain vitamins, that can inactivate harmful free radicals

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53
Q

What proportion of your energy intake does the WHO recommend to come from carbohydrates?

A

55-75%

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54
Q

What proportion of your energy intake does the WHO recommend to come from fats?

A

Less than 30%

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55
Q

What proportion of your energy intake does the WHO recommend to come from proteins?

A

10-15%

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56
Q

What are some of the main roles of iron within the body?

What can arise from deficiency in this?

A
  • Transport of oxygen in the blood

* Anaemia, the reduction of the capacity to transport oxygen

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57
Q

What are some of the main roles of zinc within the body?

What can arise from deficiency in this?

A
  • Regulation of several biochemical pathways
  • Stunt growth in children
  • Reduce effectiveness of immune system
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58
Q

What are some of the main roles of folate within the body?

What can arise from deficiency in this?

A

Fetal development

Neural tube defects

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59
Q

What are some of the main roles of vitamin A within the body?
What can arise from deficiency in this?

A
  • Development and maintenance of immune and visual systems
  • Blindness
  • Susceptibility to infection
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60
Q

What are some of the main roles of vitamin C within the body?
What can arise from deficiency in this?

A
  • Facilitates absorption of iron in the gut
  • Involved in several enzymatic pathways, inc. collagen synthesis
  • Scurvy due to breakdown and poor maintenance of connective tissues containing collagen
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61
Q

Which of the following types of carbohydrate has the simplest structure?

Polysaccharaide
Monosaccharide
Disaccharadie

A

Monosaccharide

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62
Q

What do polysaccharaides consist of?

A

Linear or branched chains of sugars joined together

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63
Q

Which sugars are polysaccharides?

A
  • Starch
  • Cellulose
  • Glycogen
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64
Q

Name the two monosaccharides

A
  • Glucose

* Fructose

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65
Q

Which sugar is a disaccharide?

A

Sucrose

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66
Q

What percentage of body mass do lipids account for?

A

Roughly 18-25%

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67
Q

What functions can lipids perform?

A
  • Structural components of cell membranes
  • Signalling molecules
  • Long-term energy storage
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68
Q

Which of the following is the simplest form of lipid?

Fatty acids
Triglycerides
Phosopholipids
Steroids

A

Fatty acids

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69
Q

What is the typical cellular structure of steroids?

A

Multiple carbon rings

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70
Q

Is a fatty acid with one or more carbon-to-carbon covalent bonds in its tail a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid?

A

Unsaturated

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71
Q

What are the functions of lipids?

A
  • Protection
  • Insulation & thermoregulation
  • Formation of the plasma membrane
  • ATP synthesis
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72
Q

What are the components of a the basic structure of an amino acid?

A
  • Hydrogen group
  • Amine group
  • Carboxyl group
  • R group
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73
Q

What do all amino acids have in their structure?

A

A central carbon atom with four entities bonded to it

74
Q

What is the term used to describe cells which are exposed to the external environment?

A

Epithelial cells

75
Q

In the process of digestion, where does absorption start?

A

The small intestine

76
Q

What is the enzyme produced in the mouth which helps begin to break down food?

A

Salivary amylase

77
Q

What is the name for chewed and partially digested food?

78
Q

What is receptive relaxation (in terms of digestion)?

Which are the muscles that relax as part of this?

A
  • The relaxation of the stomach in response to swallowing

* The sphincter and upper stomach muscles

79
Q

What are the minimum and maximum volumes of the stomach?

A
  • 50ml

* 1500ml

80
Q

Up to how many times in size can the stomach increase?

81
Q

What is the gastric mucosa?

A

The mucus membrane lining of the stomach

82
Q

In which region of the stomach does gastric empyting occur?

A

The pyloric region

83
Q

How much chyme does the stomach release with each of its contractions?

84
Q

What is the hormone produced in the gastric mucosa?

85
Q

With regards to the stomach and digestion, what are neck cells?

A

Mucus-producing cells which cover the inside of the stomach, protecting it from the corrosive nature of gastric acid.

86
Q

With regards to the stomach and digestion, what are chief cells?

A

Epithelial cell that are found mainly in the mucosal layer of the stomach lining and which secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase, as well as chymosin

87
Q

With regards to the stomach and digestion, what are parietal cells?

A

Epithelial cells in the stomach that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor

88
Q

Which type of gastric cell is responsible for secreting hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal cells

89
Q

Which type of gastric cell is responsible for secreting pepsinogen, gastric lipase and rennin?

A

Chief cells

90
Q

Which type of gastric cell is responsible for secreting (stomach) mucus?

A

Neck cells

91
Q

In the mouth, carbohydrates such as starch are digested into which smaller molecules?

A

Maltose and short-chain polysaccharides

92
Q

Which enzyme is present in saliva?

A

Salivary amylase

93
Q

In the stomach, what is food broken further down into?

A
  • Amino acids

* Peptides

94
Q

In the stomach, which enzyme and which secreted substance denature and partially break down food?

A
  • Pepsin

* Hydrochloric acid

95
Q

In the stomach, what are the two things lipids are broken down into?

A
  • Mologlycerides

* Fatty acids

96
Q

What is the name for the finger-like projections in the small intestine?

97
Q

In the small intestine, how many villi are there (roughly) per square centimetre?

98
Q

Approximately how long is the small intestine?

99
Q

What is the purpose of the villi in the small intestine?

A

To increase surface area, which aids in absorption

100
Q

By how much do the villi in the small intestine increase its surface area?

A

Around 600-fold

101
Q

What are the secretions which enter the GI tract?

A
  • Saliva
  • Gastric digestive secretions
  • Gastric mucus secretions
  • Bile from the liver
  • Pancreatic secretions
102
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine?

A
  • Duodenum
  • Jejunum
  • Ileum
103
Q

What is the luminal surface (in the small intestine)?

A

The surface facing the lumen of the GI tract

104
Q

In biology, what is a lumen?

A

The inside space of a tubular structure, such as an artery or intestine

105
Q

In the small intestine, what is the surface of each villus folded in to?

A

Small, finger-like projections calls microvilli

106
Q

What is the name for the microvilli layer (within the small intestine)?

A

The brush border

107
Q

Roughly what is the size of the surface area of the human small intestine?

A

Approximately 300 sq m

108
Q

What is the sphincter of Oddi?

A

A muscle that opens and closes to allow bile and pancreatic juice to flow between the pancreas and the small intestine

109
Q

What are the names for the cells which the pancreas produces?

A
  • Exocrine cells

* Endocrine cells

110
Q

What is the distinguishing feature of all exocrine cells?

A

They release their fluids via ducts, onto an epithelial surface

111
Q

What is an example of an exocrine secretion?

112
Q

Where do the secretions from endocrine cells go?

A

Directly into the bloodstream

113
Q

What is pepsinogen?

A

A protein digesting enzyme (proteolytic)

114
Q

What is the active form of pepsinogen?

115
Q

What type of ions are produced by the exocrine cells of the pancreas?
For what purpose?

A
  • Bicarbonate ions

* They neutralise the hydrogen ions in the chyme and neutralise the acidity of the contents of the duodenum

116
Q

Is pepsin released as an active or inactive precursor?

117
Q

What is the name of the enzyme which activates the digestive enzymes in the duodenum?

A

Enterokinase

118
Q

Where is enterokinase located?

A

The brush border of the intestinal mucosa

119
Q

What is the pancreatic enzyme which is activated by enterokinase?

A

Trypsinogen

120
Q

What is the active form of trypsinogen?

121
Q

What is unusual about enterokinase?

A

It is not free in the lumen, but is restricted to the brush border

122
Q

What are the main pancreatic enzymes?

A
  • Trypsin
  • Chymotrypsin
  • Elastase
  • Carboxypeptidase
  • Pancreatic amylase
  • Pancreatic lipase
  • DNA/RNA
123
Q

What is the function of trypsin, chymotrypsin and elastase?

A

To break peptide bonds in proteins in order to form peptide fragments

124
Q

What is the function of carboxypeptidase?

A

To remove terminal amino acids from the carboxyl end of the chain

125
Q

What is the function of pancreatic amylase?

A

To split polysaccharides into disaccharides and short chains of glucose units (dextrins)

126
Q

What is the function of pancreatic lipase?

A

To split two fatty acids from each tryglyceride molecule in order to form free fatty acids and monoglyceride

127
Q

What is the largest gland in the body?

128
Q

What does the liver produce and secrete?

Where does this secretion go?

A
  • Bile

* The duodenum

129
Q

What is bile?

A

An aqueous mixture of:

  • Bicarbonate ions
  • Phospholipids
  • Cholesterol/cholesterol-derived products (bile salts)
  • Waste products such as bilirubin
130
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

A yellow/brown molecule which is derived from the catabolism of aged red blood cells which have reached the end of their useful life

131
Q

Where in the body is bile stored in between meals?

A

The gall bladder

132
Q

What are bile salts involved in the digestion of?

A

Lipids

Fats

133
Q

How do bile salts break up the globules of lipids?

A

Emulsification

134
Q

How would you describe the enzymatic action of lipases?

A

They act on triglycerides by splitting it into monoglyceride and two fatty acids

135
Q

What are micelles?

A

Lipid molecules that arrange themselves in a spherical form in aqueous solutions

136
Q

What is the shortest section of the small intestine?
What is the longest?
How long are they?

A
  • Duodenum - 25cm

* Ileum - 3 metres

137
Q

In which part of the intestine does most of digestion occur?

A

The small intestine

138
Q

The formation of a peptide bond liberates a molecule of what, an is an example of what type of reaction?

A
  • Water

* Condensation reaction

139
Q

The cleavage of a peptide bond consumes a molecule of what?

140
Q

What does carboxypeptidase release from peptide chains?

A
  • Amino acids from one end

* Aminopeptidase from the other end

141
Q

Are amino acids able to diffuse across the cell membrane?

If not, how do they cross it?

A
  • No, they are hydrophilic

* They are transported by carrier proteins

142
Q

How is the hydrogen ion gradient maintained in the absorptive cells of the gut epithelium?

A

Because hydrogen ions are transported out of the cells into the gut lumen by antiporter proteins

143
Q

How is the hydrogen ion gradient (of the gut) maintained?

A

By secondary active transport

144
Q

What are the end products of protein digestion?

A

Free amino acids

145
Q

If food is chewed thoroughly, how much of ingested protein can be broken down into amino acids and absorbed?

A

Roughly 98%

146
Q

What does the enzyme maltase break down into glucose?

A
  • Maltose (disaccharide)

* Maltotriose (trisaccharide)

147
Q

What are dextrins broken down by?

A

Dextrinase

148
Q

What maintains the sodium ion gradient for the transport of glucose or galactose into the absorptive cells of the gut epithelium?

A

The action of the sodium-potassium pumps on the basal membrane

149
Q

How do monoglycerides and fatty acids cross the cell membrane?

A

They diffuse across it

150
Q

What does the smooth endoplasmic reticulum convert fatty acids and monoglycerides in to?

A

Triglycerides

151
Q

What is a chylomicron?

A

A lipoprotein rich in triglyceride and common in the blood during fat digestion and assimilation

152
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

The process by which extracellular fluids are taken into a cell by the invagination of the cell membrane to form small vesicles

153
Q

Which vitamin must be present to enhance the absorption of calcium?

154
Q

In the human body, iron comes in two forms; what are they?

A
  • Haem

* Iron salts

155
Q

Roughly how much (percentage) of ingested iron salts actually enter the bloodstream?

156
Q

Which vitamin enhances the absorption of iron?

157
Q

In the body, iron exists in two positively charged forms (ferric and ferrous).
What are their charges?

A
  • Ferric FE3+

* Ferrous FE2+

158
Q

Of the two types of iron in the body (ferric/ferrous), which is the form that is absorbed by the gut epithelium?

A

Ferrous iron

159
Q

What is haem iron?

A

Iron which is derived from meat and fish and is mainly bound to proteins

160
Q

What is ferric iron also known as?

A

Non-haem iron

161
Q

How is ferric iron absorbed by the body?

A

An enzyme called ferrireductase converts it to FE2+ (ferrous iron)

162
Q

What is the protein which ferric iron is bound to so that it can be transported in the bloodstream, or stored in tissues?

A

Transferrin

163
Q

How are fat soluble vitamins absorbed?

A

Fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamin D are transported by micelles, together with digested lipids, to the brush border where they then diffuse into the intestinal cell

164
Q

What must vitamin B12 bind to in order to be taken up by the epithelial cells of the ileum?

A

Intrinsic factor

165
Q

What is the purpose of vitamin B12?

A

It promotes enzymatic activity in many biochemical reactions

166
Q

Where is most of the water in the GI tract absorbed?

A

The small intestine

167
Q

What is the paracellular route?

A

A route between cells via very small pores located at the junctions between them

168
Q

What does the large intestine mainly absorb?

A

Water and salts

169
Q

Does the large intestinal mucosa have villi?

170
Q

What is the gut microbiome?

A

The totality of microorganisms, bacteria, viruses, protozoa, and fungi, and their collective genetic material present in the gastrointestinal tract

171
Q

What conditions can be associated with a disturbed gut flora?

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Diabetes
  • Obesity
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Colitis
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Autism
172
Q

What types of flora exist in the body?

A
  • Gastrointestinal tract
  • Genitourinary tract
  • Skin
  • Conjunctiva
  • Nose/nasopharynx
  • Upper respiratory tract
173
Q

Aside from causing disease, what other effects can a disturbed gut flora cause?

A
  • It influences brain development

* Anxiety behaviour

174
Q

What does the term ‘hunger’ refer to?

A

The processes which make eating more likely

175
Q

What does the term ‘satiety’ refer to?

A

The processes which make eating more likely to stop once it has started (to feel full)

176
Q

Which part of the brain regulates many of the homeostatic functions?

A

The hypothalamus

177
Q

What is leptin?

What is its purpose?

A
  • A protein hormon released mainly by adipocytes
  • It acts on the brain to stimulate the satiety centre and inhibit the hunger centre, reduces the desire to eat, promotes a sense of being full
178
Q

What is ghrelin?

What is its purpose?

A
  • A hormone which is released by endocrine cells in the gastric mucosa
  • It promotes feelings of hunger, inhibits feelings of satiety
179
Q

Which part of the brain can be stimulated by food?

What effects can occur?

A
  • The ventral striatum

* Feelings of reward and pleasure

180
Q

Which neurotransmitters are released due to stimulation of the ventral striatum as a result of ingesting food?

181
Q

What happens to the amount of dopamine receptors in an obese person?

A

They decrease

SK299 (15 decks)

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