The Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What are some functions of the skeletal system?

A

protects vital organs
produces red blood cells
storage areas for calcium and phosphorus salts
attachment sites for muscle, ligaments, tendons
allow flexible body movements
supports the body against gravity

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2
Q

what are 2 examples of how the skeletal system protects vital organs?

A

the skull encases the brain

the ribcage protects the heart and lungs

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3
Q

what type of bones produce blood cells?

A

flat bones

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4
Q

what type of bones allow for flexible body movements?

A

long bones

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5
Q

what type of bones are storage areas form calcium and phosphorus salts?

A

all of them

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6
Q

what is the shape and purpose of long bones?

A

long and thin

designed to support body weight and enable movement

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7
Q

what is the shape and purpose of flat bones?

A

flat

for the roof of the skull to protect the brain

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8
Q

what is the shape of short bones?

A

small and cube-shaped

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9
Q

what is the shape of irregular bones?

A

varied in structure and have ridges or irregular surfaces

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10
Q

what is the shape and purpose of sesamoid bones?

A

small and round

to reinforce tendons

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11
Q

what are the 5 types of bones?

A
long
flat
short
irregular
sesamoid
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12
Q

what are some examples of long bones?

A
Humerus
Ulna
Radius
Tibia
Fibula
Metacarpals
Metatarsals
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13
Q

Humerus, Ulna, Radius, Tibia, Fibula, Metacarpals, Metatarsals are examples of what type of bone?

A

long

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14
Q

what are some example of short bones?

A

carpals

tarsals

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15
Q

carpals and tarsals are what type of bone?

A

short

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16
Q

what are some examples of irregular bones?

A

vertebrae

pelvic bones

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17
Q

The vertebrae and pelvic bones are what type of bone?

A

irregular

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18
Q

what is an example of a sesamoid bone?

A

patella

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19
Q

the patella is what type of bone?

A

sesamoid

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20
Q

what are 3 words for openings in bone to allow for nerves, blood supply, or a passageway?

A

foramen
canal
fissure

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21
Q

what is a word for a hollow chamber in bone, usually filled with air?

A

sinus

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22
Q

what are 2 words for elevations in bone?

A

process

ramus

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23
Q

what are 6 words for processes/projections for tendon or ligament attachment?

A
trochanter
tuberosity
tubercle
crest
line
spine
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24
Q

what are 5 words for processes designed for articulation with adjacent bones?

A
head
neck
condyle
trochlea
facet
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25
what are 2 words for depressions in bone?
fossa | sulcus
26
what are foramen, canal, fissure?
openings in bone to allow for nerves, blood supply, or a passageway
27
what are sinuses in bone?
hollow chamber in bone, usually filled with air
28
what are process, ramus?
elevations in bone
29
what are trochanter, tuberosity, tubercle, crest, line, spine?
processes or projections for tendon or ligament attachment
30
what are head, neck, condyle, trochlea, facet?
processes designed for articulation with adjacent bones
31
what are fossa, sulcus?
depression in bone
32
what are 2 functions of bone landmarks?
Allowing for tendons to attach | Indicate where nerves and blood vessels run alongside the bone, or penetrate the bone
33
what does the axial skeleton consist of?
``` Skull Vertebral column Sternum Laryngeal skeleton Thoracic cage (ribcage) ```
34
how many bones are in the skull (both cranium and face)?
22
35
how many bones are in the cranium?
8
36
how many facial bones are there?
14
37
what are the cranial bones, and how many of each?
``` 1 frontal 2 parietal 1 occipital 2 temporal 1 sphenoid 1 ethmoid ```
38
which cranial bones are largely inside the skull?
sphenoid | ethmoid
39
which bone has an opening leading to the middle ear?
temporal
40
which bone contains the foramen magnum?
occipital
41
what is the foramen magnum?
hole through which the spinal cord passes to become the brainstem
42
which bone completes the sides of the skull and forms the floors and walls of the eye sockets
sphenoid
43
which bone is in front of the sphenoid, and forms part of the orbital wall and nasal septum?
ethmoid
44
what are fontanelles?
membranous regions that join undeveloped bones in infants (soft spots). Allow the skull to compress during childbirth and expand for the rapidly growing infant brain. Begin to close around 2 months but may last up to 2 years
45
what are membranous regions that join undeveloped bones in infants (soft spots)?
fontanelles
46
what are sinuses?
air spaces lined with mucous membrane, within the cranial bones
47
what are air spaces lined with mucous membrane, within the cranial bones?
sinuses
48
what do sinuses do?
Reduce the weight of the skull | Give a resonant sound to the voice
49
what do the mastoid sinuses do?
drain into the middle ear
50
which sinuses drain into the middle ear?
mastoid sinuses
51
what is inflammation of the mastoid sinuses that can lead to deafness?
mastoiditis
52
what is mastoiditis?
inflammation of the mastoid sinuses that can lead to deafness
53
what is sinusitis?
sinus infection when soft tissues within the sinuses become inflamed from a virus, bacteria, or allergy
54
what is a sinus infection when soft tissues within the sinuses become inflamed from a virus, bacteria, or allergy?
sinusitis
55
what are foramina of the skull?
allow for passage of blood vessels, nerves, and the spinal cord
56
what is the carotid canal?
opening of the temporal bones for the internal carotid artery
57
what is the opening of the temporal bones for the internal carotid artery?
carotid canal
58
what is the external acoustic meatus?
located within the temporal bone, is for transmission of sound
59
what foramen is located within the temporal bone, is for transmission of sound?
external acoustic meatus
60
what are the facial bones and how many are there of each?
``` 1 mandible 1 vomer 2 maxillae 2 zygomatic 2 nasal 2 palatine 2 lacrimal 2 inferior nasal conchae ```
61
what is the only movable portion of the skull?
mandible
62
what is the mandible?
the jaw
63
what is the jaw bone?
mandible
64
what is the vomer?
joins with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid to form the nasal septum
65
what joins with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid to form the nasal septum?
vomer
66
what are the maxillae?
form the front of the hard palate and contain the infraorbital foramen
67
what form the front of the hard palate and contain the infraorbital foramen?
maxillae
68
what are the zygomatic bones?
cheekbone prominences
69
which bones are the cheekbone prominences?
zygomatic bones
70
which bones form the bridge of the nose?
nasal bones
71
what are the nasal bones?
they form the bridge of the nose
72
what are the palatine bones?
form the back of the hard palate and floor of the nasal cavity
73
which bones form the back of the hard palate and floor of the nasal cavity?
palatine bones
74
what are the lacrimal bones?
thin, scale-like bones between the ethmoid and maxillary bones
75
which bones are thin, scale-like bones between the ethmoid and maxillary bones?
lacrimal bones
76
where are the inferior nasal conchae?
under the middle conchae
77
how are the middle and superior conchae formed?
formed within the grooves of the ethmoid bone
78
which conchae are formed within the grooves of the ethmoid bone?
middle and superior conchae
79
how many bones are in the vertebral column?
26
80
how many curvatures are there in the spine, and what are their names?
``` 4 cervical thoracic lumbar sacral ```
81
how many cervical vertebrae are there and how are they denoted?
7 | C1-C7
82
how many thoracic vertebrae are there and how are they denoted?
12 | T1-T12
83
how many lumbar vertebrae are there and how are they denoted?
5 | L1-L5
84
which type of vertebrae have the smallest bodies?
cervical
85
which type of vertebrae have medium sized bodies?
thoracic
86
which type of vertebrae have the largest bodies?
lumbar
87
which vertebrae have a bifid tip that splits into 2 parts posteriorly?
cervical (except C1)
88
which vertebrae have a long, spinous process that does not split, and it points down?
thoracic
89
which vertebrae have a shorter spinous process that is broader and points posteriorly?
lumbar
90
which vertebrae have facets for rib articulations?
thoracic
91
which vertebrae have transverse processes that also have costal facets for rib articulations?
thoracic (except T11 and T12)
92
which vertebrae have the largest vertebral foramen compared to their size?
cervical
93
which vertebrae have the smallest vertebral foramen, which are triangular?
lumbar
94
how many bones are fused to make the sacrum?
5
95
which part of the vertebral column consists of 5 fused bones at the base of the spine?
sacrum
96
which part of the vertebral column consists of 4-5 fused vertebrae, which begins to fuse by age 25?
coccyx
97
which part of the vertebrae allow adjacent vertebrae to articulate with each other?
articular facets
98
what are articular facets?
allow adjacent vertebrae to articulate with each other
99
where is the spinous process?
on the dorsal side, can be palpated as bony projections along the midline of the neck and back
100
which part of the vertebrae is on the dorsal side, and can be palpated as bony projections along the midline of the neck and back?
spinous processes
101
where is the vertebral body?
on the anterior side, has the most surface area
102
which part of the vertebrae is on the anterior side, and has the most surface area?
vertebral body
103
how many pairs of ribs are there?
12
104
which ribs connect directly to the sternum?
ribs 1-7
105
which ribs connect indirectly to the sternum via shafts of cartilage?
ribs 8-10
106
which ribs are floating ribs and why?
ribs 11-12, because they do not attach to the sternum
107
what are the 3 parts of the sternum?
manubrium body xiphoid process
108
what is the appendicular skeleton?
bones within the pectoral and pelvic girdles and the attached limbs
109
what are the pectoral girdle and upper limbs specialized for?
flexibility and range of motion
110
which part of the scapula projects from the scapular spine and can be seen from both anterior and posterior views. Connects to the clavicle anteriorly?
acromion process
111
what is the acromion process and what does it attach to?
projects from the scapular spine and can be seen from both anterior and posterior views. Connects to the clavicle anteriorly
112
what is the glenoid cavity?
where the head of the humerus articulates with the scapula
113
where does the head of the humerus articulate with the scapula?
glenoid cavity
114
what projects anteriorly from the scapula, allowing for muscular attachment?
coracoid process
115
what is the coracoid process?
projects anteriorly from the scapula, allowing for muscular attachment
116
why is the gleno-humeral joint prone to dislocation?
Since the cavity is shallow and smaller than the head of the humerus, rotator cuff muscles and other ligaments must help support. The shoulder allows movement in almost any direction, but provides little stability
117
what is the capitulum of the humerus?
articulates with a small portion of the radius
118
which part of the humerus articulates with a small portion of the radius?
capitulum
119
which part of the humerus articulates with the ulna?
trochlea
120
what is the trochlea of the humerus?
articulates with the ulna
121
what are the epicondyles of the humerus?
bony knobs on the underside
122
how many carpal bones are there?
8
123
name the proximal row of carpal bones, from lateral to medial
scaphoid lunate triquetral pisiform
124
name the distal row of carpal bones, from lateral to medial
trapezium trapezoid capitate hamate
125
which bones make up the palm?
metacarpals
126
how many metacarpals are there, and how are they numbered?
5 1st is the thumb 5th is the pinky
127
what bones make up the fingers?
phalanges
128
how many phalanges are in the fingers and how are they broken down?
``` 14 2nd-5th phalanges have proximal, intermediate, and distal 1st phalanx (thumb) only has proximal and distal ```
129
what are the 2 main bones that make up the pelvic girdle?
coxal bones
130
what are 2 other terms for coxal bones?
ossa coxae | innominate bones
131
what are the coxal bones anchored to, and how?
the sacrum posteriorly with a network of ligaments
132
what 3 fused bones are the coxal bones formed by?
ilium ischium pubis
133
what is the ilium?
most superior, can be palpated on the lateral sides of the hips
134
which pelvic bone is the most superior, can be palpated on the lateral sides of the hips?
ilium
135
what is the ischium?
posterior, known as the "sits bones"
136
which pelvic bone is posterior, known as the "sits bones"?
ischium
137
what is the pubis?
forms the center anteriorly and is connected by the pubic symphysis
138
which pelvic bone forms the center anteriorly and is connected by the pubic symphysis?
pubis
139
what does ASIS stand for?
anterior superior iliac spine
140
what does AIIS stand for?
anterior inferior iliac spine
141
what are 2 pelvic differences between males and females and why?
Females have a wider pubic arch Females have a more ovular pubic brim (aka pelvic outlet, aka pelvic brim) This helps with childbirth
142
what are the pubis connected by?
pubic symphysis
143
what does the pubic symphysis do?
connects the pubis
144
what is the longest, largest single bone in the body?
femur
145
what is the hip joint called?
acetabulum
146
what is the acetabulum
hip joint
147
what bone sits anteriorly to the femur?
patella
148
what 2 bony prominences can be felt on the sides of the ankle?
medial and lateral malleolus
149
which bone ends with the medial malleolus?
tibia
150
which bone ends with the lateral malleolus?
fibula
151
how many ankle bones are there?
7
152
name the ankle bones
``` medial cuneiform intermediate cuneiform lateral cuneiform navicular cuboid talus calcaneus ```
153
what provides a springy base for the foot?
longitudinal arches and transverse arches
154
how many metatarsals and how are they numbered?
5 1st is the big toe 5th is the pinky toe
155
how many phalanges are there in the foot and how are they broken down?
14 2nd-5th phalanges have proximal, middle, and distal 1st phalanx only has proximal and distal
156
what is another term for the big toe?
hallux
157
what is the hallux?
the big toe
158
what is the medullary cavity?
center that is filled with bone marrow
159
what is the center of the bone that is filled with bone marrow?
medullary cavity
160
what does yellow marrow do and where is it found?
fat storage tissue found mainly in long bones
161
what does red marrow do and where is it found?
produces red blood cells, found mainly in short and flat bones
162
what kind of marrow do newborns have and what happens later?
Newborns have all red bone marrow and over time it is converted to yellow in long bones
163
what is the diaphysis?
center length of the bone
164
what is the center length of the bone called?
diaphysis
165
what is spongy bone?
surrounds the medullary cavity, and is thickest at the ends of the bone Contains numerous bony bars and plates separated by irregular spaces Lighter than compact bone, but still designed for strength
166
what is compact bone?
solid outer layer of the bone | Contains many osteons
167
what are osteons?
tissue formed by osteocytes and lacunae
168
what is another term for osteons?
haversian systems
169
what are osteocytes?
bone cells
170
what are lacunae?
chamber that are arranged in concentric circles around center canals that contain blood vessels and nerves
171
what are chambers that are arranged in concentric circles around center canals that contain blood vessels and nerves?
lacunae
172
what are bone cells called?
osteocytes
173
what is the matrix made of that separates the lacunae?
protein fibers of collagens, and mineral deposits - mainly calcium and phosphorus salts
174
what are the ends of each long bone called?
proximal and distal epiphysis
175
what are the proximal and distal epiphysis?
the ends of each long bone
176
what is articular cartilage?
cushions joints and enables them to move freely. Found specifically at joint articulations
177
what cushions joints and enables them to move freely. Found specifically at joint articulations?
articular cartilage
178
what is regular cartilage and how is it different from articular cartilage?
another type of connective tissue, but with a flexible matrix.
179
why can the thickness of bone change?
bone is continually broken down and rebuilt physical use hormone balance
180
what are osteoclasts?
bone absorbing cells that break down bone, remove worn cells, and deposit calcium in the blood
181
what are bone absorbing cells that break down bone, remove worn cells, and deposit calcium in the blood?
osteoclasts
182
what are osteoblasts?
repair the destruction caused by the osteoclasts. They take calcium from the blood to form new bone. Eventually some of these cells get caught in the matrices they create and become osteocytes.
183
what is ossification?
when cartilaginous models are converted to bones when calcium salts are deposited in the matrix
184
what is it called when cartilaginous models are converted to bones when calcium salts are deposited in the matrix?
ossification
185
what are the 2 steps in ossification?
First by precursor cartilaginous cells | Later by osteoblasts
186
what is endochondral ossification?
ossification of long bones from hyaline cartilage
187
what are the steps of endochondral ossification?
Begins at the primary ossification center at the middle of the bone Once the cartilage cells begin to die, blood cells start to penetrate the bone to deliver osteoblasts, forming the medullary cavity Secondary centers later form at the ends of the bones A cartilaginous disk remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center. This area is called the growth plate During puberty, the disks become completely ossified and the bones stops growing
188
what controls the rate of growth in endochondral ossification?
growth hormones and sex hormones
189
what is the growth plate?
the cartilaginous disk that remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center
190
what is intramembranous ossification?
formation of flat bones from connective tissue
191
what is formation of flat bones from connective tissue?
intramembranous ossification
192
what are the steps of intramembranous ossification?
Begins with mesenchymal cells differentiating into osteoblasts at specific points within the connective tissue of the embryo Osteoblasts begin to secrete bone tissue, eventually becoming osteocytes once enough tissue is secreted
193
what are the 5 types of bone fractures?
``` closed open greenstick comminuted impacted ```
194
what is a closed fracture?
bone breaks but remains within the skin
195
what is another term for a closed fracture?
simple
196
what fracture results when bone breaks but remains within the skin?
closed
197
what is an open fracture?
bone breaks and part of the shaft breaks out of the skin
198
what is another term for an open fracture?
compound
199
what type of fracture results when bone breaks and part of the shaft breaks out of the skin?
compound
200
what is a greenstick fracture?
bone bends and breaks, but not all the way across. | Common in children because bone tissue is still developing and soft
201
what fracture results when bone bends and breaks, but not all the way across. Common in children because bone tissue is still developing and soft?
greenstick
202
what is a comminuted fracture?
bone is broken into more than 2 segments. Typically repaired surgically
203
what type of fracture results when bone is broken into more than 2 segments. Typically repaired surgically?
comminuted
204
what is an impacted fracture?
one end of the shaft is pushed into the other part of the bone
205
what type of fracture results when one end of the shaft is pushed into the other part of the bone?
impacted
206
what is rheumatoid arthritis?
synovial membrane becomes inflamed and thickens. | Degenerative, makes the joint almost immovable and painful
207
what disease causes synovial membrane to become inflamed and thicken. Degenerative, makes the joint almost immovable and painful?
rheumatoid arthritis
208
what is osteoarthritis?
old-age arthritis. The articular cartilage at the ends of the bones disintegrates. The 2 bones then become rough and irregular, causing pain. Common in joints that received the most use
209
what is old-age arthritis. The articular cartilage at the ends of the bones disintegrates. The 2 bones then become rough and irregular, causing pain. Common in joints that received the most use?
osteoarthritis
210
what is osteoporosis?
bone tissue disease where the tissue degenerates faster than it is replaced. Bones become weak and brittle, and more prone to fracture
211
what is a bone tissue disease where the tissue degenerates faster than it is replaced. Bones become weak and brittle, and more prone to fracture?
osteoporosis
212
what are the 3 types of joints?
fibrous cartilaginous synovial
213
which type of joint is immovable?
fibrous
214
which type of joint is slightly movable?
cartilaginous
215
which type of joint is freely movable?
synovial
216
what is an example of a fibrous joint?
the ones between the cranial bones
217
what is an example of a cartilaginous joint?
the ones between the vertebrae
218
what are ligaments?
fibrous connective tissue that binds bones together
219
what are fibrous connective tissue that binds bones together?
ligaments
220
what is a joint capsule?
the capsule created by ligaments
221
what lines the joint capsule?
synovial membrane
222
what does the synovial membrane do?
create synovial fluid
223
what are 4 types of synovial joints?
hinge ball-and-socket saddle pivot
224
what are hinge joints?
largely permit movement in one direction only, like knees and elbows
225
what type of joints largely permit movement in one direction only, like knees and elbows?
hinge
226
what are ball-and-socket joints?
allow movement in all planes, as well as rotational movement, like hips and shoulders
227
what joints allow movement in all planes, as well as rotational movement, like hips and shoulders?
ball-and-socket
228
what are saddle joints?
like the thumb, allow it to cross over the palm
229
what joints are like the thumb, allow it to cross over the palm?
saddle
230
what are pivot joints?
allow for rotational movement, like n the cervical spine (C1 and C2)
231
what joints allow for rotational movement, like n the cervical spine (C1 and C2)?
pivot
232
which ligament joins the clavicle to the manubrium of the sternum?
sternoclavicular
233
what does the sternoclavicular ligament do?
joins the clavicle to the manubrium of the sternum
234
which ligament joins the clavicle to the acromion process of the scapula?
acromioclavicular
235
what does the acromioclavicular ligament do?
joins the clavicle to the acromion process of the scapula
236
which ligament joins the coracoid process of the scapula to the clavicle?
coracoclavicular
237
what does the coracoclavicular ligament do?
joins the coracoid process of the scapula to the clavicle
238
which ligament joins the coracoid process to the acromion of the scapula
coracoacromial
239
what does the coracoacromial ligament do?
joins the coracoid process to the acromion of the scapula
240
which ligament is an articular capsule that surrounds the head of the humerus and anchors it to the scapula?
capsular
241
what does the capsular ligament do?
an articular capsule that surrounds the head of the humerus and anchors it to the scapula
242
which ligament joins the head of the humerus to the coracoid process of the scapula?
coracohumeral
243
what does the coracohumeral ligament do?
joins the head of the humerus to the coracoid process of the scapula
244
what are the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Teres minor Subscapularis
245
which 3 ligaments hold the pelvis to the sacrum?
iliolumbar anterior sacroiliac posterior sacroiliac
246
what does the iliolumbar ligament do?
holds the pelvis to the sacrum
247
what does the anterior sacroiliac ligament do?
holds the pelvis to the sacrum
248
what does the posterior sacroiliac ligament do?
holds the pelvis to the sacrum
249
what holds the ASIS of the ilium to the pubic bone?
ilioinguinal
250
what does the ilioinguinal ligament do?
holds the ASIS of the ilium to the pubic bone
251
what attaches the femur to the ilium?
iliofemoral
252
what does the iliofemoral ligament do?
attaches the femur to the ilium
253
what connects the sacrum to each side of the uterus in females?
uterosacral
254
what does the uterosacral ligament do?
connects the sacrum to each side of the uterus in females
255
what are menisci?
crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage that give added stability for the femur to articulate with the tibia
256
what are crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage that give added stability for the femur to articulate with the tibia?
menisci
257
what are bursae?
fluid-filled sacs that ease friction between tendons, ligaments, and bones
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what are fluid-filled sacs that ease friction between tendons, ligaments, and bones?
bursae
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how many bursae are in the knee?
13
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what is inflammation of the bursae called?
bursitis
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what does the patellar ligament do | ?
connects the patella to the tibia
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what ligament connects the patella to the tibia?
patellar
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what ligament is on the tibial side, stabilizes the side of the knee?
medial collateral ligament (MCL)
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what is the medial collateral ligament?
on the tibial side, stabilizes the side of the knee
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what ligament is on the fibular side, stabilizes the side of the knee?
lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
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what does the lateral collateral ligament do?
on the fibular side, stabilizes the side of the knee
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what ligaments are on the interior of the knee joint?
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) | posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
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where is the anterior cruciate ligament?
on the interior of the knee joint
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where is the posterior cruciate ligament?
on the interior of the knee joint
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what ligaments connect the anterior vertebral bodies?
anterior longitudinal ligament
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what does the anterior longitudinal ligament do?
connect the anterior vertebral bodies
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what ligament connects the posterior vertebral bodies?
posterior longitudinal ligament
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what does the posterior longitudinal ligament do?
connects the posterior vertebral bodies
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what ligaments connect the spinous process of 2 adjacent vertebrae?
interspinous ligaments
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what do interspinous ligaments do?
connect the spinous process of 2 adjacent vertebrae
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which ligaments connect the posterior portion of the spinous processes?
supraspinous ligaments
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what do supraspinous ligaments do?
connect the posterior portion of the spinous processes
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what do intervertebral discs do?
pad the vertebrae, preventing them from grinding against one another. They also absorb shock and allow motion that lets us bend forward, backward, and side to side without the vertebrae touching
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what is a herniated disc?
If the posterior longitudinal ligament becomes weakened, the center portion of the disc may bulge into the vertebral foramen, called a herniated disc. Pain results when this presses against the spinal cord or spinal nerves.
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what are 3 possible outcomes of a herniated disc?
The body may heal over time The disc can be removed surgically. This would entail fusing vertebrae together, which permanently limits flexibility PT can help strengthen the muscles of the spine, which can restore spinal alignment
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What is the line along the midline of the sacrum called?
Median sacral crest
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What structure connects the radius and ulna, and the tibia and fibula, along their shafts?
Interosseous membrane