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Anatomy & Physiology I > The Skeletal System > Flashcards

The Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What are some functions of the skeletal system?

A

protects vital organs
produces red blood cells
storage areas for calcium and phosphorus salts
attachment sites for muscle, ligaments, tendons
allow flexible body movements
supports the body against gravity

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2
Q

what are 2 examples of how the skeletal system protects vital organs?

A

the skull encases the brain

the ribcage protects the heart and lungs

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3
Q

what type of bones produce blood cells?

A

flat bones

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4
Q

what type of bones allow for flexible body movements?

A

long bones

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5
Q

what type of bones are storage areas form calcium and phosphorus salts?

A

all of them

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6
Q

what is the shape and purpose of long bones?

A

long and thin

designed to support body weight and enable movement

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7
Q

what is the shape and purpose of flat bones?

A

flat

for the roof of the skull to protect the brain

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8
Q

what is the shape of short bones?

A

small and cube-shaped

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9
Q

what is the shape of irregular bones?

A

varied in structure and have ridges or irregular surfaces

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10
Q

what is the shape and purpose of sesamoid bones?

A

small and round

to reinforce tendons

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11
Q

what are the 5 types of bones?

A 
long
flat
short
irregular
sesamoid
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12
Q

what are some examples of long bones?

A 
Humerus
Ulna
Radius
Tibia
Fibula
Metacarpals
Metatarsals
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13
Q

Humerus, Ulna, Radius, Tibia, Fibula, Metacarpals, Metatarsals are examples of what type of bone?

A

long

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14
Q

what are some example of short bones?

A

carpals

tarsals

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15
Q

carpals and tarsals are what type of bone?

A

short

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16
Q

what are some examples of irregular bones?

A

vertebrae

pelvic bones

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17
Q

The vertebrae and pelvic bones are what type of bone?

A

irregular

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18
Q

what is an example of a sesamoid bone?

A

patella

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19
Q

the patella is what type of bone?

A

sesamoid

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20
Q

what are 3 words for openings in bone to allow for nerves, blood supply, or a passageway?

A

foramen
canal
fissure

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21
Q

what is a word for a hollow chamber in bone, usually filled with air?

A

sinus

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22
Q

what are 2 words for elevations in bone?

A

process

ramus

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23
Q

what are 6 words for processes/projections for tendon or ligament attachment?

A 
trochanter
tuberosity
tubercle
crest
line
spine
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24
Q

what are 5 words for processes designed for articulation with adjacent bones?

A 
head
neck
condyle
trochlea
facet
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25
Q

what are 2 words for depressions in bone?

A

fossa

sulcus

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26
Q

what are foramen, canal, fissure?

A

openings in bone to allow for nerves, blood supply, or a passageway

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27
Q

what are sinuses in bone?

A

hollow chamber in bone, usually filled with air

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28
Q

what are process, ramus?

A

elevations in bone

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29
Q

what are trochanter, tuberosity, tubercle, crest, line, spine?

A

processes or projections for tendon or ligament attachment

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30
Q

what are head, neck, condyle, trochlea, facet?

A

processes designed for articulation with adjacent bones

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31
Q

what are fossa, sulcus?

A

depression in bone

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32
Q

what are 2 functions of bone landmarks?

A

Allowing for tendons to attach

Indicate where nerves and blood vessels run alongside the bone, or penetrate the bone

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33
Q

what does the axial skeleton consist of?

A 
Skull
Vertebral column
Sternum
Laryngeal skeleton
Thoracic cage (ribcage)
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34
Q

how many bones are in the skull (both cranium and face)?

A

22

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35
Q

how many bones are in the cranium?

A

8

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36
Q

how many facial bones are there?

A

14

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37
Q

what are the cranial bones, and how many of each?

A 
1 frontal
2 parietal
1 occipital
2 temporal
1 sphenoid
1 ethmoid
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38
Q

which cranial bones are largely inside the skull?

A

sphenoid

ethmoid

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39
Q

which bone has an opening leading to the middle ear?

A

temporal

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40
Q

which bone contains the foramen magnum?

A

occipital

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41
Q

what is the foramen magnum?

A

hole through which the spinal cord passes to become the brainstem

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42
Q

which bone completes the sides of the skull and forms the floors and walls of the eye sockets

A

sphenoid

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43
Q

which bone is in front of the sphenoid, and forms part of the orbital wall and nasal septum?

A

ethmoid

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44
Q

what are fontanelles?

A

membranous regions that join undeveloped bones in infants (soft spots).
Allow the skull to compress during childbirth and expand for the rapidly growing infant brain.
Begin to close around 2 months but may last up to 2 years

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45
Q

what are membranous regions that join undeveloped bones in infants (soft spots)?

A

fontanelles

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46
Q

what are sinuses?

A

air spaces lined with mucous membrane, within the cranial bones

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47
Q

what are air spaces lined with mucous membrane, within the cranial bones?

A

sinuses

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48
Q

what do sinuses do?

A

Reduce the weight of the skull

Give a resonant sound to the voice

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49
Q

what do the mastoid sinuses do?

A

drain into the middle ear

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50
Q

which sinuses drain into the middle ear?

A

mastoid sinuses

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51
Q

what is inflammation of the mastoid sinuses that can lead to deafness?

A

mastoiditis

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52
Q

what is mastoiditis?

A

inflammation of the mastoid sinuses that can lead to deafness

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53
Q

what is sinusitis?

A

sinus infection when soft tissues within the sinuses become inflamed from a virus, bacteria, or allergy

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54
Q

what is a sinus infection when soft tissues within the sinuses become inflamed from a virus, bacteria, or allergy?

A

sinusitis

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55
Q

what are foramina of the skull?

A

allow for passage of blood vessels, nerves, and the spinal cord

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56
Q

what is the carotid canal?

A

opening of the temporal bones for the internal carotid artery

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57
Q

what is the opening of the temporal bones for the internal carotid artery?

A

carotid canal

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58
Q

what is the external acoustic meatus?

A

located within the temporal bone, is for transmission of sound

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59
Q

what foramen is located within the temporal bone, is for transmission of sound?

A

external acoustic meatus

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60
Q

what are the facial bones and how many are there of each?

A 
1 mandible
1 vomer
2 maxillae
2 zygomatic 
2 nasal
2 palatine
2 lacrimal
2 inferior nasal conchae
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61
Q

what is the only movable portion of the skull?

A

mandible

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62
Q

what is the mandible?

A

the jaw

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63
Q

what is the jaw bone?

A

mandible

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64
Q

what is the vomer?

A

joins with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid to form the nasal septum

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65
Q

what joins with the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid to form the nasal septum?

A

vomer

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66
Q

what are the maxillae?

A

form the front of the hard palate and contain the infraorbital foramen

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67
Q

what form the front of the hard palate and contain the infraorbital foramen?

A

maxillae

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68
Q

what are the zygomatic bones?

A

cheekbone prominences

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69
Q

which bones are the cheekbone prominences?

A

zygomatic bones

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70
Q

which bones form the bridge of the nose?

A

nasal bones

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71
Q

what are the nasal bones?

A

they form the bridge of the nose

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72
Q

what are the palatine bones?

A

form the back of the hard palate and floor of the nasal cavity

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73
Q

which bones form the back of the hard palate and floor of the nasal cavity?

A

palatine bones

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74
Q

what are the lacrimal bones?

A

thin, scale-like bones between the ethmoid and maxillary bones

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75
Q

which bones are thin, scale-like bones between the ethmoid and maxillary bones?

A

lacrimal bones

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76
Q

where are the inferior nasal conchae?

A

under the middle conchae

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77
Q

how are the middle and superior conchae formed?

A

formed within the grooves of the ethmoid bone

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78
Q

which conchae are formed within the grooves of the ethmoid bone?

A

middle and superior conchae

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79
Q

how many bones are in the vertebral column?

A

26

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80
Q

how many curvatures are there in the spine, and what are their names?

A 
4
cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral
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81
Q

how many cervical vertebrae are there and how are they denoted?

A

7

C1-C7

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82
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae are there and how are they denoted?

A

12

T1-T12

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83
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae are there and how are they denoted?

A

5

L1-L5

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84
Q

which type of vertebrae have the smallest bodies?

A

cervical

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85
Q

which type of vertebrae have medium sized bodies?

A

thoracic

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86
Q

which type of vertebrae have the largest bodies?

A

lumbar

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87
Q

which vertebrae have a bifid tip that splits into 2 parts posteriorly?

A

cervical (except C1)

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88
Q

which vertebrae have a long, spinous process that does not split, and it points down?

A

thoracic

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89
Q

which vertebrae have a shorter spinous process that is broader and points posteriorly?

A

lumbar

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90
Q

which vertebrae have facets for rib articulations?

A

thoracic

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91
Q

which vertebrae have transverse processes that also have costal facets for rib articulations?

A

thoracic (except T11 and T12)

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92
Q

which vertebrae have the largest vertebral foramen compared to their size?

A

cervical

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93
Q

which vertebrae have the smallest vertebral foramen, which are triangular?

A

lumbar

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94
Q

how many bones are fused to make the sacrum?

A

5

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95
Q

which part of the vertebral column consists of 5 fused bones at the base of the spine?

A

sacrum

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96
Q

which part of the vertebral column consists of 4-5 fused vertebrae, which begins to fuse by age 25?

A

coccyx

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97
Q

which part of the vertebrae allow adjacent vertebrae to articulate with each other?

A

articular facets

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98
Q

what are articular facets?

A

allow adjacent vertebrae to articulate with each other

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99
Q

where is the spinous process?

A

on the dorsal side, can be palpated as bony projections along the midline of the neck and back

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100
Q

which part of the vertebrae is on the dorsal side, and can be palpated as bony projections along the midline of the neck and back?

A

spinous processes

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101
Q

where is the vertebral body?

A

on the anterior side, has the most surface area

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102
Q

which part of the vertebrae is on the anterior side, and has the most surface area?

A

vertebral body

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103
Q

how many pairs of ribs are there?

A

12

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104
Q

which ribs connect directly to the sternum?

A

ribs 1-7

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105
Q

which ribs connect indirectly to the sternum via shafts of cartilage?

A

ribs 8-10

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106
Q

which ribs are floating ribs and why?

A

ribs 11-12, because they do not attach to the sternum

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107
Q

what are the 3 parts of the sternum?

A

manubrium
body
xiphoid process

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108
Q

what is the appendicular skeleton?

A

bones within the pectoral and pelvic girdles and the attached limbs

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109
Q

what are the pectoral girdle and upper limbs specialized for?

A

flexibility and range of motion

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110
Q

which part of the scapula projects from the scapular spine and can be seen from both anterior and posterior views. Connects to the clavicle anteriorly?

A

acromion process

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111
Q

what is the acromion process and what does it attach to?

A

projects from the scapular spine and can be seen from both anterior and posterior views. Connects to the clavicle anteriorly

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112
Q

what is the glenoid cavity?

A

where the head of the humerus articulates with the scapula

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113
Q

where does the head of the humerus articulate with the scapula?

A

glenoid cavity

114
Q

what projects anteriorly from the scapula, allowing for muscular attachment?

A

coracoid process

115
Q

what is the coracoid process?

A

projects anteriorly from the scapula, allowing for muscular attachment

116
Q

why is the gleno-humeral joint prone to dislocation?

A

Since the cavity is shallow and smaller than the head of the humerus, rotator cuff muscles and other ligaments must help support. The shoulder allows movement in almost any direction, but provides little stability

117
Q

what is the capitulum of the humerus?

A

articulates with a small portion of the radius

118
Q

which part of the humerus articulates with a small portion of the radius?

A

capitulum

119
Q

which part of the humerus articulates with the ulna?

A

trochlea

120
Q

what is the trochlea of the humerus?

A

articulates with the ulna

121
Q

what are the epicondyles of the humerus?

A

bony knobs on the underside

122
Q

how many carpal bones are there?

A

8

123
Q

name the proximal row of carpal bones, from lateral to medial

A

scaphoid
lunate
triquetral
pisiform

124
Q

name the distal row of carpal bones, from lateral to medial

A

trapezium
trapezoid
capitate
hamate

125
Q

which bones make up the palm?

A

metacarpals

126
Q

how many metacarpals are there, and how are they numbered?

A

5
1st is the thumb
5th is the pinky

127
Q

what bones make up the fingers?

A

phalanges

128
Q

how many phalanges are in the fingers and how are they broken down?

A 
14
2nd-5th phalanges have proximal, intermediate, and distal
1st phalanx (thumb) only has proximal and distal
129
Q

what are the 2 main bones that make up the pelvic girdle?

A

coxal bones

130
Q

what are 2 other terms for coxal bones?

A

ossa coxae

innominate bones

131
Q

what are the coxal bones anchored to, and how?

A

the sacrum posteriorly with a network of ligaments

132
Q

what 3 fused bones are the coxal bones formed by?

A

ilium
ischium
pubis

133
Q

what is the ilium?

A

most superior, can be palpated on the lateral sides of the hips

134
Q

which pelvic bone is the most superior, can be palpated on the lateral sides of the hips?

A

ilium

135
Q

what is the ischium?

A

posterior, known as the “sits bones”

136
Q

which pelvic bone is posterior, known as the “sits bones”?

A

ischium

137
Q

what is the pubis?

A

forms the center anteriorly and is connected by the pubic symphysis

138
Q

which pelvic bone forms the center anteriorly and is connected by the pubic symphysis?

A

pubis

139
Q

what does ASIS stand for?

A

anterior superior iliac spine

140
Q

what does AIIS stand for?

A

anterior inferior iliac spine

141
Q

what are 2 pelvic differences between males and females and why?

A

Females have a wider pubic arch
Females have a more ovular pubic brim (aka pelvic outlet, aka pelvic brim)
This helps with childbirth

142
Q

what are the pubis connected by?

A

pubic symphysis

143
Q

what does the pubic symphysis do?

A

connects the pubis

144
Q

what is the longest, largest single bone in the body?

A

femur

145
Q

what is the hip joint called?

A

acetabulum

146
Q

what is the acetabulum

A

hip joint

147
Q

what bone sits anteriorly to the femur?

A

patella

148
Q

what 2 bony prominences can be felt on the sides of the ankle?

A

medial and lateral malleolus

149
Q

which bone ends with the medial malleolus?

A

tibia

150
Q

which bone ends with the lateral malleolus?

A

fibula

151
Q

how many ankle bones are there?

A

7

152
Q

name the ankle bones

A 
medial cuneiform
intermediate cuneiform
lateral cuneiform
navicular
cuboid
talus
calcaneus
153
Q

what provides a springy base for the foot?

A

longitudinal arches and transverse arches

154
Q

how many metatarsals and how are they numbered?

A

5
1st is the big toe
5th is the pinky toe

155
Q

how many phalanges are there in the foot and how are they broken down?

A

14
2nd-5th phalanges have proximal, middle, and distal
1st phalanx only has proximal and distal

156
Q

what is another term for the big toe?

A

hallux

157
Q

what is the hallux?

A

the big toe

158
Q

what is the medullary cavity?

A

center that is filled with bone marrow

159
Q

what is the center of the bone that is filled with bone marrow?

A

medullary cavity

160
Q

what does yellow marrow do and where is it found?

A

fat storage tissue found mainly in long bones

161
Q

what does red marrow do and where is it found?

A

produces red blood cells, found mainly in short and flat bones

162
Q

what kind of marrow do newborns have and what happens later?

A

Newborns have all red bone marrow and over time it is converted to yellow in long bones

163
Q

what is the diaphysis?

A

center length of the bone

164
Q

what is the center length of the bone called?

A

diaphysis

165
Q

what is spongy bone?

A

surrounds the medullary cavity, and is thickest at the ends of the bone
Contains numerous bony bars and plates separated by irregular spaces
Lighter than compact bone, but still designed for strength

166
Q

what is compact bone?

A

solid outer layer of the bone

Contains many osteons

167
Q

what are osteons?

A

tissue formed by osteocytes and lacunae

168
Q

what is another term for osteons?

A

haversian systems

169
Q

what are osteocytes?

A

bone cells

170
Q

what are lacunae?

A

chamber that are arranged in concentric circles around center canals that contain blood vessels and nerves

171
Q

what are chambers that are arranged in concentric circles around center canals that contain blood vessels and nerves?

A

lacunae

172
Q

what are bone cells called?

A

osteocytes

173
Q

what is the matrix made of that separates the lacunae?

A

protein fibers of collagens, and mineral deposits - mainly calcium and phosphorus salts

174
Q

what are the ends of each long bone called?

A

proximal and distal epiphysis

175
Q

what are the proximal and distal epiphysis?

A

the ends of each long bone

176
Q

what is articular cartilage?

A

cushions joints and enables them to move freely. Found specifically at joint articulations

177
Q

what cushions joints and enables them to move freely. Found specifically at joint articulations?

A

articular cartilage

178
Q

what is regular cartilage and how is it different from articular cartilage?

A

another type of connective tissue, but with a flexible matrix.

179
Q

why can the thickness of bone change?

A

bone is continually broken down and rebuilt
physical use
hormone balance

180
Q

what are osteoclasts?

A

bone absorbing cells that break down bone, remove worn cells, and deposit calcium in the blood

181
Q

what are bone absorbing cells that break down bone, remove worn cells, and deposit calcium in the blood?

A

osteoclasts

182
Q

what are osteoblasts?

A

repair the destruction caused by the osteoclasts.
They take calcium from the blood to form new bone.
Eventually some of these cells get caught in the matrices they create and become osteocytes.

183
Q

what is ossification?

A

when cartilaginous models are converted to bones when calcium salts are deposited in the matrix

184
Q

what is it called when cartilaginous models are converted to bones when calcium salts are deposited in the matrix?

A

ossification

185
Q

what are the 2 steps in ossification?

A

First by precursor cartilaginous cells

Later by osteoblasts

186
Q

what is endochondral ossification?

A

ossification of long bones from hyaline cartilage

187
Q

what are the steps of endochondral ossification?

A

Begins at the primary ossification center at the middle of the bone
Once the cartilage cells begin to die, blood cells start to penetrate the bone to deliver osteoblasts, forming the medullary cavity
Secondary centers later form at the ends of the bones
A cartilaginous disk remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center. This area is called the growth plate
During puberty, the disks become completely ossified and the bones stops growing

188
Q

what controls the rate of growth in endochondral ossification?

A

growth hormones and sex hormones

189
Q

what is the growth plate?

A

the cartilaginous disk that remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center

190
Q

what is intramembranous ossification?

A

formation of flat bones from connective tissue

191
Q

what is formation of flat bones from connective tissue?

A

intramembranous ossification

192
Q

what are the steps of intramembranous ossification?

A

Begins with mesenchymal cells differentiating into osteoblasts at specific points within the connective tissue of the embryo
Osteoblasts begin to secrete bone tissue, eventually becoming osteocytes once enough tissue is secreted

193
Q

what are the 5 types of bone fractures?

A 
closed
open
greenstick
comminuted
impacted
194
Q

what is a closed fracture?

A

bone breaks but remains within the skin

195
Q

what is another term for a closed fracture?

A

simple

196
Q

what fracture results when bone breaks but remains within the skin?

A

closed

197
Q

what is an open fracture?

A

bone breaks and part of the shaft breaks out of the skin

198
Q

what is another term for an open fracture?

A

compound

199
Q

what type of fracture results when bone breaks and part of the shaft breaks out of the skin?

A

compound

200
Q

what is a greenstick fracture?

A

bone bends and breaks, but not all the way across.

Common in children because bone tissue is still developing and soft

201
Q

what fracture results when bone bends and breaks, but not all the way across. Common in children because bone tissue is still developing and soft?

A

greenstick

202
Q

what is a comminuted fracture?

A

bone is broken into more than 2 segments. Typically repaired surgically

203
Q

what type of fracture results when bone is broken into more than 2 segments. Typically repaired surgically?

A

comminuted

204
Q

what is an impacted fracture?

A

one end of the shaft is pushed into the other part of the bone

205
Q

what type of fracture results when one end of the shaft is pushed into the other part of the bone?

A

impacted

206
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

synovial membrane becomes inflamed and thickens.

Degenerative, makes the joint almost immovable and painful

207
Q

what disease causes synovial membrane to become inflamed and thicken. Degenerative, makes the joint almost immovable and painful?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

208
Q

what is osteoarthritis?

A

old-age arthritis. The articular cartilage at the ends of the bones disintegrates. The 2 bones then become rough and irregular, causing pain. Common in joints that received the most use

209
Q

what is old-age arthritis. The articular cartilage at the ends of the bones disintegrates. The 2 bones then become rough and irregular, causing pain. Common in joints that received the most use?

A

osteoarthritis

210
Q

what is osteoporosis?

A

bone tissue disease where the tissue degenerates faster than it is replaced. Bones become weak and brittle, and more prone to fracture

211
Q

what is a bone tissue disease where the tissue degenerates faster than it is replaced. Bones become weak and brittle, and more prone to fracture?

A

osteoporosis

212
Q

what are the 3 types of joints?

A

fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial

213
Q

which type of joint is immovable?

A

fibrous

214
Q

which type of joint is slightly movable?

A

cartilaginous

215
Q

which type of joint is freely movable?

A

synovial

216
Q

what is an example of a fibrous joint?

A

the ones between the cranial bones

217
Q

what is an example of a cartilaginous joint?

A

the ones between the vertebrae

218
Q

what are ligaments?

A

fibrous connective tissue that binds bones together

219
Q

what are fibrous connective tissue that binds bones together?

A

ligaments

220
Q

what is a joint capsule?

A

the capsule created by ligaments

221
Q

what lines the joint capsule?

A

synovial membrane

222
Q

what does the synovial membrane do?

A

create synovial fluid

223
Q

what are 4 types of synovial joints?

A

hinge
ball-and-socket
saddle
pivot

224
Q

what are hinge joints?

A

largely permit movement in one direction only, like knees and elbows

225
Q

what type of joints largely permit movement in one direction only, like knees and elbows?

A

hinge

226
Q

what are ball-and-socket joints?

A

allow movement in all planes, as well as rotational movement, like hips and shoulders

227
Q

what joints allow movement in all planes, as well as rotational movement, like hips and shoulders?

A

ball-and-socket

228
Q

what are saddle joints?

A

like the thumb, allow it to cross over the palm

229
Q

what joints are like the thumb, allow it to cross over the palm?

A

saddle

230
Q

what are pivot joints?

A

allow for rotational movement, like n the cervical spine (C1 and C2)

231
Q

what joints allow for rotational movement, like n the cervical spine (C1 and C2)?

A

pivot

232
Q

which ligament joins the clavicle to the manubrium of the sternum?

A

sternoclavicular

233
Q

what does the sternoclavicular ligament do?

A

joins the clavicle to the manubrium of the sternum

234
Q

which ligament joins the clavicle to the acromion process of the scapula?

A

acromioclavicular

235
Q

what does the acromioclavicular ligament do?

A

joins the clavicle to the acromion process of the scapula

236
Q

which ligament joins the coracoid process of the scapula to the clavicle?

A

coracoclavicular

237
Q

what does the coracoclavicular ligament do?

A

joins the coracoid process of the scapula to the clavicle

238
Q

which ligament joins the coracoid process to the acromion of the scapula

A

coracoacromial

239
Q

what does the coracoacromial ligament do?

A

joins the coracoid process to the acromion of the scapula

240
Q

which ligament is an articular capsule that surrounds the head of the humerus and anchors it to the scapula?

A

capsular

241
Q

what does the capsular ligament do?

A

an articular capsule that surrounds the head of the humerus and anchors it to the scapula

242
Q

which ligament joins the head of the humerus to the coracoid process of the scapula?

A

coracohumeral

243
Q

what does the coracohumeral ligament do?

A

joins the head of the humerus to the coracoid process of the scapula

244
Q

what are the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

245
Q

which 3 ligaments hold the pelvis to the sacrum?

A

iliolumbar
anterior sacroiliac
posterior sacroiliac

246
Q

what does the iliolumbar ligament do?

A

holds the pelvis to the sacrum

247
Q

what does the anterior sacroiliac ligament do?

A

holds the pelvis to the sacrum

248
Q

what does the posterior sacroiliac ligament do?

A

holds the pelvis to the sacrum

249
Q

what holds the ASIS of the ilium to the pubic bone?

A

ilioinguinal

250
Q

what does the ilioinguinal ligament do?

A

holds the ASIS of the ilium to the pubic bone

251
Q

what attaches the femur to the ilium?

A

iliofemoral

252
Q

what does the iliofemoral ligament do?

A

attaches the femur to the ilium

253
Q

what connects the sacrum to each side of the uterus in females?

A

uterosacral

254
Q

what does the uterosacral ligament do?

A

connects the sacrum to each side of the uterus in females

255
Q

what are menisci?

A

crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage that give added stability for the femur to articulate with the tibia

256
Q

what are crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage that give added stability for the femur to articulate with the tibia?

A

menisci

257
Q

what are bursae?

A

fluid-filled sacs that ease friction between tendons, ligaments, and bones

258
Q

what are fluid-filled sacs that ease friction between tendons, ligaments, and bones?

A

bursae

259
Q

how many bursae are in the knee?

A

13

260
Q

what is inflammation of the bursae called?

A

bursitis

261
Q

what does the patellar ligament do

?

A

connects the patella to the tibia

262
Q

what ligament connects the patella to the tibia?

A

patellar

263
Q

what ligament is on the tibial side, stabilizes the side of the knee?

A

medial collateral ligament (MCL)

264
Q

what is the medial collateral ligament?

A

on the tibial side, stabilizes the side of the knee

265
Q

what ligament is on the fibular side, stabilizes the side of the knee?

A

lateral collateral ligament (LCL)

266
Q

what does the lateral collateral ligament do?

A

on the fibular side, stabilizes the side of the knee

267
Q

what ligaments are on the interior of the knee joint?

A

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

268
Q

where is the anterior cruciate ligament?

A

on the interior of the knee joint

269
Q

where is the posterior cruciate ligament?

A

on the interior of the knee joint

270
Q

what ligaments connect the anterior vertebral bodies?

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

271
Q

what does the anterior longitudinal ligament do?

A

connect the anterior vertebral bodies

272
Q

what ligament connects the posterior vertebral bodies?

A

posterior longitudinal ligament

273
Q

what does the posterior longitudinal ligament do?

A

connects the posterior vertebral bodies

274
Q

what ligaments connect the spinous process of 2 adjacent vertebrae?

A

interspinous ligaments

275
Q

what do interspinous ligaments do?

A

connect the spinous process of 2 adjacent vertebrae

276
Q

which ligaments connect the posterior portion of the spinous processes?

A

supraspinous ligaments

277
Q

what do supraspinous ligaments do?

A

connect the posterior portion of the spinous processes

278
Q

what do intervertebral discs do?

A

pad the vertebrae, preventing them from grinding against one another.
They also absorb shock and allow motion that lets us bend forward, backward, and side to side without the vertebrae touching

279
Q

what is a herniated disc?

A

If the posterior longitudinal ligament becomes weakened, the center portion of the disc may bulge into the vertebral foramen, called a herniated disc. Pain results when this presses against the spinal cord or spinal nerves.

280
Q

what are 3 possible outcomes of a herniated disc?

A

The body may heal over time
The disc can be removed surgically. This would entail fusing vertebrae together, which permanently limits flexibility
PT can help strengthen the muscles of the spine, which can restore spinal alignment

281
Q

What is the line along the midline of the sacrum called?

A

Median sacral crest

282
Q

What structure connects the radius and ulna, and the tibia and fibula, along their shafts?

A

Interosseous membrane

Anatomy & Physiology I (10 decks)

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