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631: Clinical Management of the Musculoskeletal System I > The Nervous System > Flashcards

The Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 layers that encase peripheral from deep to superficial?

A
  • Endoneurium
  • Perineurium
  • Epineurium
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2
Q

Describe the connection between the epineurium and the surrounding connective tissue

A

It is continuous, but the attachment is loose so that nerve trunks are mobile

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3
Q

Function of the spinal cord

A
  • Participates in control of body movements
  • Processing and transmission of sensory information from trunk/limbs
  • Regulation of visceral functions
  • Provides a conduit for two-way communication between brain and body
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4
Q

How long is the spinal cord typically?

A

42-45cm long

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5
Q

The spinal cord is continuous with the _____ superiorly and the _____ inferiorly

A

medulla

conus medullaris

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6
Q

At when spinal level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1 or L2

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7
Q

Posterior root of a spinal nerve contains _____ ganglion.

Anterior root of a spinal nerve contains _____ ganglion.

A

sensory

motor

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8
Q

Between what 2 meningeal layers does CSF flow?

A

Between the arachnoid and the pia mater

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9
Q

How do you test CN I?

A

Have your patient smell various odors with each nostril (vision occluded), such as coffee, lavender, vanilla

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10
Q

How do you test CN II?

A

Test your patient’s visual acuity via the Snellen eye chart 20’ away

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11
Q

How do you test CN III, IV, and VI?

A

Inspects the pupils for symmetry, their response to light, and their ability to track movement in the six fields of gaze (draw imaginary “H”)

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12
Q

How do you test CN V?

A

Have your patient clench their teeth, while you palpate the temporal and masseter muscles.
You can also perform the pinprick test of the three branches of sensory nerves

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13
Q

How do you test CN VII?

A

Inspect the patient’s face at rest, in conversation and in smiling

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14
Q

How do you test CN VIII?

A

Assess your patient’s vestibulospinal reflex by testing the ability of the eyes to follow a moving object
The cochlear component can be tested by rubbing the fingers equidistant from the patient’s ears and assessing the response

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15
Q

How do you test CN IX?

A

Test their gag reflex

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16
Q

How do you test CN X?

A

Take note of any any hoarseness and nasal tones in the patient’s voice. Also ask your patient to open their mouth and say “Aahhh” while you watch the movements of the soft palate and pharynx

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17
Q

How do you test CN XI?

A

Take note of any atrophy or asymmetry in the trapezius muscle.
Also, ask your patient to shrug shoulders

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18
Q

How do you test CN XII?

A

Inspect the tongue as it lies on the floor of the mouth, looking for fasciculation.
Ask your patient to stick out their tongue and move it from side to side, taking note of any asymmetry

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19
Q 
There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves
\_\_ cervical
\_\_ thoracic
\_\_ lumbar
\_\_ sacral
\_\_ coccygeal
A 
8
12
5
5
1
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20
Q

What are the 4 branches of a spinal nerve?

A
  • Primary dorsal
  • Primary ventral
  • Communicating ramus
  • Meningeal or recurrent meningeal
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21
Q

The primary dorsal branch of a spinal nerve has a medial ____ branch and a lateral ____ branch

A

sensory

motor

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22
Q

What does the primary ventral branch off a spinal nerve form?

A

the cervical, brachial, and lumbosacral plexuses

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23
Q

The communicating rami connect what 2 structures?

A

spinal nerves and the sympathetic trunk

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24
Q

What do meningeal (recurrent meningeal) branches do?

A

Carry sensory and vasomotor innervation to the meninges

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25
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

An area of nerve distribution

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26
Q

What is a myotome?

A

A muscle supplied by a single nerve root

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27
Q

What is a sclerotome?

A

bone/fascia supplied by a single nerve root

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28
Q

The cervical plexus is formed by what nerves?

A

The ventral primary divisions of C1-C4

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29
Q

What 3 muscles form the suboccipital triangle?

A
  • Rectus Capitis Posterior Major
  • Obliquus Capitis Superior
  • Obliquus Capitis Inferior
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30
Q

What are the 3 things found in the suboccipital triangle?

A
  • Vertebral Artery
  • Suboccipital nerve
  • Suboccipital Venous Plexus
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31
Q

What does the small occipital nerve supply?

A

Skin of the lateral occipital portion of the scalp, upper median part of the auricle, and the area over the mastoid process

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32
Q

What does the great auricular nerve supply?

A

sensation to the ear and the face

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33
Q

What does the cervical cutaneous nerve supply?

A

skin over the anterior portion of the neck

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34
Q

What do the supraclavicular branches supply?

A

skin over the clavicle and the upper deltoid and pectoral regions

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35
Q

What does the phrenic nerve supply?

A

Motor supply to the diaphragm

Sensory supply to the pericardium, diaphragm, and part of the costal and mediastinal pleurae

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36
Q

The brachial plexus is formed by what nerves?

A

C5-T1

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37
Q

What is a common clinical presentation of a radial nerve lesion?

A

wrist drop

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38
Q

What is a common clinical presentation of a median nerve lesion?

A

Ape-hand deformity

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39
Q

What is a common clinical presentation of an ulnar nerve lesion?

A

Claw hand (bishop’s sign)

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40
Q

Intercostal nerves are from T_ - T_

A

T2 - T11

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41
Q

What do the intercostal nerves supply?

A

the thoracic and abdominal walls

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42
Q

The lumbar plexus is formed by what nerves?

A

(T12) L1-L4

S-I-I-G-L-O-F-L

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43
Q

The sacral plexus is formed by what nerves?

A

L4, L5 and S1-S4

S-I-P-P-S

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44
Q

What does the pudendal plexus supply?

A

the coccygeus, levator ani and sphincter ani externus muscles

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45
Q

What does the coccygeal plexus supply?

A

skin in the region of the coccyx

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46
Q

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for the innervation of what 3 things?

A
  • Smooth muscle
  • Cardiac muscle
  • Glands of the body
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47
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the ANS?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

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48
Q

Neuromuscular control involves the integration of motor learning and control by way of what motor systems?

A
  • Corticospinal tract
  • Rubrospinal tract
  • Vestibulospinal tract
  • Reticulospinal tract
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49
Q

What is the corticospinal tract involved in?

A

skilled voluntary movement

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50
Q

What is the rubrospinal tract involved in?

A

Rapid, coordinated movement of the limb

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51
Q

What is the vestibulospinal tract involved in?

A

Integration of information from the vestibular system to control eye movement, head/neck movement, and postural reactions for balance

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52
Q

What is the reticulospinal tract involved in?

A

Movement planning, initiation of proper stability in posture and proximal limb to allow movement distally

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53
Q

What is open-loop neuromuscular control?

A

Actions that do not require sensory information to be performed (signing your name for example)

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54
Q

What is closed-loop neuromuscular control?

A

Actions that require sensory information for modification

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55
Q

What are the 2 types of closed-loop neuromuscular control and examples of each

A
  • Reactionary: feedback (the thermostat in your home)

- Anticipatory: feedforward (the anticipation that you may need a new car and purchase one before your car breaks down)

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56
Q

What does proprioceptive involve?

A

Integration of sensory input concerning static joint position, joint movement, velocity of movement, and the force of muscular contraction from the skin, muscles and joints

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57
Q

What are the 4 primary types of joint receptors?

A
  • Pacinian corpuscles
  • Ruffini endings
  • Golgi tendon organ (GTO)
  • Bare nerve endings
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58
Q

What do Pacinian corpuscles sense?

A

joint compression and increased hydrostatic pressure of the joint

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59
Q

What do Ruffini endings sense?

A

postural changes

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60
Q

What do Golgi tendon organs sense?

A

large amounts of tension

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61
Q

What do bare nerve endings sense?

A

mechanical deformation or tension

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62
Q

What is Kinesthesia?

A

the sense of movement of the body or one of the segments

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63
Q

Kinesthetic information travels up which motor pathway?

A

spinocerebellar tract

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64
Q

What are the 2 types of learning? What are the difference between the 2?

A
  • Declarative learning involves just learning of the facts

- Procedural learning is dependent on practice, association, adaptation, habituation and sensitization

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65
Q

What are the 3 types of motor tasks? Explain each

A
  • Discrete: movement with a recognizable beginning and end
  • Serial: series of discrete movements that are combined in a sequence
  • Continuous: repetitive, uninterrupted movements that have no distinct beginning and ending
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66
Q

What are the 3 stages of motor learning? Explain each

A
  • Cognitive: initial introduction; requires great concentration; variable performance filled with errors
  • Associative: performing and refining skills; conscious decision making; concentration; less rushed
  • Autonomous: efficient and nearly automatic performance
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67
Q

What are the 5 types of practices? Explain each

A
  • Part: task is broken down into parts and each part is practiced
  • Whole: entire task is performed from beginning to end; not practiced in separate components
  • Blocked: performed repeatedly under the same conditions; predictable order
  • Random: variation of the same task are performed in an unpredictable order
  • Random blocked: variations of the same task are performed in random order, but each variation is performed more than once
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68
Q

Massed vs. Distributed Practice

A
  • Massed involves participation in a long bout of practice with less time spent in rest breaks
  • Distributed involves participation in a series of practices throughout the day
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69
Q

Second only to practice, ____ is considered the most important variable that influences learning.

A

feedback

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70
Q

Intrinsic vs. Extrinsic feedback

A

Intrinsic feedback is a natural part of the task that can take the form of a sensory cue inherent in the execution of the motor task.
Extrinsic feedback is supplemental feedback that is not normally an inherent part of the task in which the type, the timing, and the frequency can be controlled.

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71
Q

Knowledge of results vs. knowledge of performance

A

Knowledge of results includes immediate, post-task, extrinsic feedback about the outcome of the task
Knowledge of performance includes feedback given about the quality of the performance of the task

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72
Q

When is knowledge of results best utilized?

A

In instances when individuals are unable to generate feedback about the outcome of the task for themselves, or when the information may serve as a motivational tool

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73
Q

When is knowledge of performance best utilized?

A

This type of motor feedback better facilitates motor skill learning

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74
Q

Feedback about performance can be provided at various times throughout the task, what are these 2?

A
  • Continuous
  • Intermittent
  • Immediate
  • Delayed
  • Summary
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75
Q

Open vs. Closed Skill Acquisition

A

Open skill acquisition involves temporal and spatial factors in an unpredictable environment
Closed skill acquisition involves spatial factors only in a predictable environment

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76
Q

Give an example of an open and closed skill in sports

A

Closed: shooting a FT into a static target
Open: throwing and TD pass to a moving target

77
Q

What is balance?

A

A complex motor control task involving the detection and integration of sensory information to assess the position and motion of the body in space and execution of appropriate musculoskeletal responses to control body position with its stability limits and environment/task

78
Q

What is posture?

A

the relationship of the various parts of the body with respect to one another, the environment, and to gravity

79
Q

Balance results from an integration of what 3 components?

A
  • Sensory processing via the nervous system
  • Musculoskeletal contributions such as postural alignment, joint integrity, muscle performance, and mechanoreceptor sensation
  • Contextual effects that interact with the nervous and musculoskeletal systems (i.e. closed/open environment, support surface, lighting, gravity, inertial forces, characteristics of the task)
80
Q

When is an individual’s balance greatest?

A

When the body’s center of gravity is maintained over its base of support

81
Q

What are the 3 types of balance control?

A
  • Static Balance
  • Dynamic Balance
  • Autonomic Postural Reactions
82
Q

Normal anteroposterior sway in adults is__ degrees

A

12

83
Q

What are the 5 strategies designed to adjust the body’s COG so that it is maintained with the BOS

A
  • ankle strategy
  • weight shifting strategy
  • suspension strategy
  • hip strategy
  • stepping strategy
84
Q

What do anticipatory postural adjustments respond to?

A

Internal perturbations such as voluntary movements of the body in advance of the actual perturbation

85
Q

What initiates an anticipatory reaction?

A

the subject

86
Q

What do compensatory postural adjustments respond to?

A

actual perturbations of balance that occur because of suboptimal efficacy of the anticipatory components

87
Q

What initiates a compensatory reaction?

A

sensory feedback triggering signals

88
Q

What is the most common determinant for a patient to seek intervention?

A

pain

89
Q

Describe acute pain

A

Acute pain is the normal predicted physiological response to an adverse chemical, thermal or mechanical stimulus associated with surgery, trauma or acute illness

90
Q

Acute pain is typically ____ in nature

A

chemical

91
Q

What are the structures most sensitive to chemical irritation in order of sensitivity?

A
  • Periosteum and joint capsule
  • Subchondral bone, tendon and ligament
  • Muscle and cortical bone
  • Synovium and articular cartilage
92
Q

Describe chronic pain

A

Chronic pain is typically more aggravating than worrying and lasts more than 6 months

93
Q

5 characteristics of chronic pain

A
  • Has been experienced before
  • Mild to moderate in intensity
  • Limited duration (although it can persist)
  • Pain site does not cause alarm
  • There are no alarming associated symptoms
94
Q

Patients with chronic pain may be more prone to what?

A

depression and disrupted personal relationship

95
Q

The symptoms of chronic pain typically behave in a mechanical fashion, what does this mean?

A

They are provoked by activity or repeated movements and reduced with rest or movement in the opposite direction

96
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

an increased response to noxious stimulus

97
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Pain in response to a previously innocuous stimulus

98
Q

What is referred pain?

A

Pain at a site adjacent to or at a distance from the site of injury

99
Q

What type of neuron transmits pain?

A

nociceptive neurons

100
Q

Nociceptors are non-______ in nature

A

Non-adapting, meaning they will continue to fire for as long as the stimulus is present

101
Q

What are the 3 ways in which nociceptive stimulation can occur?

A

Via mechanical deformation, excessive heat/cold or presence of chemical irritation

102
Q

Transmission of pain to the CNS can occur via what 2 distinct pathways?

A
  • Fast-conducting A delta fibers

- Slow-conducting C fibers

103
Q

Which pain pathways are myelinated and which are not?

A

Fast-conducting A delta fibers are myelinated and slow-conducting C fibers are not

104
Q

Fast-conducting A delta fibers evoke what kind of pain?

A

rapid, sharp, lancinating pain

105
Q

Slow-conducting C fibers evoke what kind of pain?

A

slow, dull, crawling pain

106
Q

Pain signals from visceral and somatic tissues do one of what 3 things?

A
  • Synapse with interneurons that synapse directly with motor nerves and produce reflex movements
  • Synapse with autonomic fibers from the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems and produce autonomic reflexes
  • Synapse with interneurons that travel to the higher centers in the brain
107
Q

Central pathways for processing nociceptive information begin at the level of the ____ horn of the spinal cord

A

dorsal

108
Q

The fast signals of the C fibers terminate in laminae _ and _ of the dorsal horn

A

I and V

109
Q

Once these fast signals of the C fibers terminate in laminae I and V of the dorsal horn what do they do?

A

They excite neurons that send long fibers to the opposite side of the cord and then upward to the brain in the lateral division of the anterior-lateral sensory pathway (lateral spinothalamic tract)

110
Q

The slow signals of the C fibers terminate in laminae _ and _ of the dorsal horn

A

II and III

111
Q

Once these slow signals of the C fibers terminate in laminae II and III of the dorsal horn what do they do?

A

They pass through another short fiber neuron to terminate in lamina V. Here, the neuron gives off a long axon, most of which joins with the fast signal axons to cross the spinal cord and travel up the same spinal tract to the brain

112
Q

What percentage of pain fibers terminate in the reticular formation of the medulla, pons, and mesencephalon?

A

75-90%

113
Q

What are the interneuronal networks in the dorsal horn responsible for?

A

the transmission of nociceptive information to the neurons that project to the brain, and modulation of that information

114
Q

What do the small number of fast fibers that bypass the brainstem and go directly to the cerebral cortex do?

A

these recognize and localize pain but do not analyze it

115
Q

Which laminae of the dorsal horn is the area for convergence, summation, and projection and in effect will determine whether the pain signal is relayed upward to the brain?

A

Lamina V

116
Q

What types of things can influence pain perception?

A

the physical effects of pain, motor activity, and emotional state

117
Q

Although the pain intensity and the functional response to symptoms are subjective, patterns of pain response to stimulation of the pain generator are quite _____.

A

objective

118
Q

What 4 things can generate referred pain?

A
  • Convergence of sensory input from separate parts of the body to the same dorsal horn neuron via primary sensory fibers
  • Secondary pain resulting from Myofascial trigger point
  • Sympathetic activity elicited by a spinal reflex
  • Pain-generating substances
119
Q

What are the 5 classifications for referred pain/symptoms?

A
  • Viscerogenic
  • Vasculogenic
  • Neurogenic
  • Psychogenic
  • Spondylogenic
120
Q

Describe viscerogenic symptoms

A

These symptoms can be referred from any viscera in the trunk or abdomen

121
Q

What are the 5 clinical characteristics of viscerogenic symptoms?

A
  • Not evoked from all viscera
  • Not always linked to visceral injury
  • Diffuse and poorly localized
  • Referred to other locations
  • Often accompanied by autonomic reflexes such as nausea and vomiting
122
Q

When should you suspect a visceral source of symptoms?

A

if the symptoms are not altered with movement or position changes

123
Q

Vasculogenic symptoms result from what?

A

from venous congestion or arterial deprivation to the musculoskeletal areas

124
Q

Neurogenic causes and symptoms may include what 4 things?

A
  • tumor compressing and irritating a neural structure or the spinal cord or the meninges
  • spinal nerve root irritation
  • peripheral nerve entrapment
  • neuritis
125
Q

Emotional overtones in the presence of pain are thought to result from what?

A
  • inhibition of the pain control mechanisms of the CNS from such causes as grief
  • side effects of medications
  • fear of reinjury
126
Q

The term _____ is used to define the abnormal illness behaviors exhibited by patients who have depression, ,emotional disturbances, or anxiety states

A

nonorganic

127
Q

The presence of 3 of the 5 Waddell signs has been correlated with disability. What are these 5 signs?

A
  • Superficial or nonanatomic tenderness to light touch that is widespread and refers pain to other areas
  • Simulation tests that test to see if patients report pain while performing a particular movement when it shouldn’t
  • Distraction tests check a positive finding elicited during the examination on the distracted patient
  • Regional Disturbances in which sensory or motor disturbances have no neurological basis
  • Overreaction in that the patient exhibits disproportionate verbalization, muscle tension, tremors, and grimacing during the exam
128
Q

Spondylogenic symptoms may include what 4 things?

A
  • severe and unrelenting pain
  • fever
  • bone tenderness
  • unexplained weight loss
129
Q

Interneurons in the ____ ______ function like a gate in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord to modulate sensory input

A

substantia gelatinosa

130
Q

The gate closes by _____ C fiber input or _____ A fiber or mechanoreceptor input.

A

decreasing

increasing

131
Q

Pain can also be gated by a descending inhibitory pathway from the brain via a mechanism called what?

A

central biasing

132
Q

What is encephalin?

A

A pentapeptide that produces presynaptic inhibition of the incoming pain signals to lamina I-V, thereby blocking pain signals in their entry point into the cord

133
Q

What is the negative-feedback loop in the cortex called?

A

The Corticofugal System

134
Q

What does excessive stimulation of the corticofugal system result in?

A

a signal being transmitted down from the cortex to the dorsal horn of the level from which the input arose. This response produces lateral or recurrent inhibition of the cells adjacent to the stimulated cell, thereby preventing the spread of the signal

135
Q

Where is the LMN located?

A

the dorsal and ventral roots, spinal nerve, peripheral nerve, motor neuron junction, and muscle-fiber complex

136
Q

What does the LMN consist of?

A

a cell body located in the anterior gray column and its axon

137
Q

Where can LMN lesions occur?

A

in the cell body or anywhere along the axon

138
Q

What are the clinical signs of a LMN lesion?

A
  • muscle atrophy
  • hypotonus
  • diminished/absent reflex
139
Q

Where is the UMN located?

A

In the white columns of the spinal cord and the cerebral hemispheres

140
Q

What are the characteristics of an UMN lesion?

A
  • Spastic paralysis or paresis
  • Little or no muscle atrophy
  • Hyper-reflexive muscle stretch reflexes in a nonsegmental distribution
  • Presence of pathologic signs and reflexes
141
Q

What are the clinical signs of a UMN lesion?

A
  • Nystagmus
  • Dysphasia
  • Wallenberg syndrome (the result of lateral medullary infarction)
  • Ataxia
  • Spasticity
  • Drop attack (loss of balance with a fall without losing consciousness)
  • Wernicke’s encephalopathy
  • Vertical diplopia (double vision)
  • Dysphonia
  • Hemianopia (loss of half of the visual field)
  • Ptosis (droopy upper eyelid)
  • Miosis (pupils don’t dilate)
  • Horner syndrome
  • Dysarthria
142
Q

What type of maneuver is used to determine if the cause of the patient’s dizziness is a vestibular impairment?

A

Dix-Hallpike maneuver

143
Q

What is a reflex?

A

a subconscious, programmed unit of behavior in which a certain type of stimulus from a receptor automatically leads to the response of an effector

144
Q

Describe a muscle stretch reflex

A

It is the simplest reflexes, depending on just 2 neurons and 1 synapse, which is influenced by the GTO and the muscle spindle receptors

145
Q

What is reflex integrity?

A

the intactness of the neural path involved

146
Q

What are the 6 reflexes regularly tested?

A
  • Biceps
  • Brachioradialis
  • Triceps
  • Quads
  • Extensor digitorum brevis
  • Achilles
147
Q

If a reflex is difficult to elicit, what type of maneuver should you perform?

A

Jendrassik maneuver which is a distraction technique

148
Q

An asymmetrically depressed or absent reflex is suggestive of what?

A

A pathology that is impacting the reflex arc directly (peripheral neuropathy, spinal nerve root compression, or cauda equine syndrome)

149
Q

What is a positive Babinski reflex?

A

great toe extension and abduction of the other toes

150
Q

What is a positive Chaddock reflex?

A

extensor toe sign and abduction with stroking of the lateral foot beneath the lateral malleolus

151
Q

What is a positive Oppenheim reflex?

A

extensor toe sign with stroking of the anteromedial tibial surface

152
Q

What is a positive Schaefer sign?

A

extensor toe sign with a sharp, quick squeeze of the Achilles tendon

153
Q

What is a positive Hoffman sign?

A

adduction and opposition of the thumb and slight flexion of the fingers when the clinician pinches the distal phalanx of middle finger

154
Q

What is a positive test for Clonus?

A

more than three involuntary beats of the ankle/wrist when put into sudden extension or dorsiflexion

155
Q

What is the Lhermitte symptom?

A

Patient experiences an electric, shock-like sensation that radiates down the spinal column into the UE or LE with passive flexion of the neck in the long sitting position

156
Q

Supraspinal reflexes produce movement patterns that can be modulated by what?

A

descending pathways and the cortex

157
Q

What are righting reflexes?

A

Processes that are oriented around supraspinal reflexes in which the main goal is maintain a constant position of the head in relation to a dynamic external environment

158
Q

What are the 5 subcategories of righting reflexes?

A
  • Visual righting reflexes
  • Labyrinthine righting reflexes
  • Neck righting reflexes
  • Body on head righting reflexes
  • Body on body righting reflexes
159
Q

What makes the control of upright posture possible?

A

The interaction between the visual and vestibular systems and with cervical mechanoreceptors

160
Q

What is the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR)?

A

A reflex that is simulated by movement of the head in space and creates certain eye movements that compensate for head rotations or accelerations (rotational, translational, ocular-counter rolling)

161
Q

What are the 4 ways the VOR is tested?

A
  • Dynamic visual acuity
  • Doll’s head test
  • Head-shaking nystagmus test
  • Head-Thrust test
162
Q

What does the cervico-ocular reflex do?

A

It serves to orient eye movement to changes in neck and trunk position

163
Q

What does the cervicocollic reflex do?

A

It serves to orient the position of the head and the neck in relation to disturbed trunk posture

164
Q

What does the vestibulocollic reflex do?

A

It maintains postural stability by actively stabilizing the head relative to muscles opposite to the direction of cervical spine perturbation

165
Q

What is paresthetica?

A

an abnormal sensation of pins/needles, numbness, tingling, or prickling

166
Q

What is the sensibility hierarchy from least to most complicated level of function?

A
  • the ability to distinguish a single point stimulus from normal background stimulation (detection)
  • the ability to perceive that stimulus A differs from stimulus B (innervation density)
  • the ability to organize tactile stimuli according to degree, texture, etc. (quantification)
  • the ability to identify objects without visual reference (recognition)
167
Q

Where does sensation originate?

A

in the lateral spinothalamic tract

168
Q

What are the 2 components of dermatome tests for sensation?

A

Light touch and Pinprick

169
Q

Where does pain originate?

A

in the lateral spinothalamic tract

170
Q

How do you test pain sensation?

A

Use two test tubes filled with hot and cold water and test to see if they can determine which is which. Temperature can be tested because impulses for temp sensation travel together with pain sensation in the LST

171
Q

Where does pressure originate?

A

In the spinothalamic tract

172
Q

Where do you test pressure?

A

the patient’s muscle belly

173
Q

Where does the sensory threshold originate?

A

in the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract

174
Q

What do sensory threshold tests measure?

A

the intensity of the stimulus necessary to depolarize the cell membrane and produce an action potential – the ability to detect

175
Q

What are the 2 ways in which you can test the sensory threshold?

A
  • Vibration test using tuning fork

- Cutaneous sensibility testing using horse hairs of varying thickness

176
Q

Where does proprioception originate?

A

In the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract

177
Q

Where does kinesthesia originate?

A

In the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract

178
Q

How do you test movement sense (kinesthesia)?

A

Ask the patient to verbally indicate the direction of movement while in motion

179
Q

Where does stereognosis originate?

A

In the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract

180
Q

How do you test stereognosis?

A

Ask the patient to recognize small objects of various shapes and sizes while their vision is occluded

181
Q

Where does Graphesthesia originate?

A

In the dorsal column/medial lemniscal tract

182
Q

How do you test Graphesthesia?

A

Ask the patient to recognize numbers, letters, or designs traced onto the skin while their vision is occluded

183
Q

What is spasticity?

A

a velocity-dependent resistance to passive stretch

184
Q

What are 2 examples of spasticity?

A
  • Clasped-knife phenomenon: during rapid movement, initial high resistance may be followed by a sudden relaxation of the limb
  • Clonus: an exaggeration of the stretch reflex characterized by cyclical, spasmodic alternation of muscle contraction and relaxation in response to sustained stretch of the spastic muscle.
185
Q

What is rigidity?

A

an increased resistance to all motion, rendering body parts stiff and immovable

186
Q

What are 2 examples of rigidity?

A
  • Cogwheel phenomenon: ratchet-like response to passive movement
  • Leadpipe rigidity: constant rigidity throughout the ROM
187
Q

What is dystonia?

A

A hyperkinetic movement disorder characterized by disordered tone and involuntary movements involving large portions of the body which results in twisting and repetitive movements

188
Q

Describe decorticate positioning

A

The UEs are held in flexion and LEs in extension

189
Q

Describe decerebrate positioning

A

UEs and LEs are held in extension

631: Clinical Management of the Musculoskeletal System I (19 decks)

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