The Lung Flashcards

1
Q

respiratory system embryology

A

Outgrowth from the ventral wall of the foregut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lobar bronchi lined with what and do what

A

Columnar calibrated epithelium with abundant subepithelial glands that produce mucus, which impedes the entry of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tell my about the lungs double arterial supply

A

Pulmonary arteries from the heart carry de oxygenated blood to the alveoli
Bronchial arteries from the aorta carry oxygenated blood to the parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lining of the respiratory tract

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells

Neuroendocrine cells are present that release several factors
-serotonin 5HT, calcitonin, gastrin releasing peptide (bombesin)

Mucus secreting goblet cells and submucosal glands are dispersed through the walls of the trachea and bronchi, but not the bronchioles and distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Exception: what are the vocal cords lined by

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Alveolar epithelium

A

Continuous layer of two cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Alveolar epithelium type I

A

95%

Flattened and plate like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rounded type II pneumocytes alveolar epithelium

A

Synthesize surfactant

Repair alveolar epithelium by giving rise to type I—stem cel like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia

A

Defective lung development due to abnormalities that compress the lung or impede normal expansion in utero (diaphragmatic hernia or oligohydramnios)

Diminished weight, volume, and acinar number for body weight and gestational age

If severe, can be fatal in the early neonatal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Foregut cysts

A

Due to abnormal detachment of primitive foregut

Most often in hilum or middle mediastinum

Bronchogenic (most common), esophageal, or enteric—depending ont he wall structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bronchogenic cysts

A

Most commmon and is rarely connected to the tracheobronchial tree

Lined with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with glands, cartilage and smooth muscle in the wall

Usually found incidentally of there is compression of nearby structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pulmonary sequesteration lung tissue

A

Lacks any connection to the airway system

Has abnormal vascular supply arising from the aorta or its branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Extra lobar sequesteration

A

Lack connection to the airway system and are external to the lung

Has own pleura

Generally come to attention as mass lesions in infants

Often associated with other congenital anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Intra lobar sequesteration

A

Occur within the lung parenchyma
Does not have its own pleura

Lack connection to the airway system

Occur in older children due to recurrent localized infection or bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neonatal RDS

A

Most common where a layer of hyaline proteinaceous material int he peripheral airspace’s of infants who have the condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Other causes of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

Excessive sedation of mom, fetal head delivery during birth, aspiration of blood or amniotic fluid, or intrauterine hypoxia fromthe umbilical cord around the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does neonatal respiratory distress present

A

Preterm with appropriate weight, may need assistance breathing during the first few minutes, then normal, then problems in 30 min, cyanosis in a few hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lungs RSD

A

Fine rales in lung fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CXR RSD

A

Uniform minute reticulogranular densities that look like ground glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prognosis neonatal RSD

A

Infant will typically be able to survive if the therapy is able to keep them alive for the first few days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who gets neonatal RSD

A

Males, maternal diabetes, delivery by C section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pathogensisof RDS

A

Immaturity of th lungs is the most important thing for RDS to develop

Happens to 60% of infants bone less than 28 weeks

Fundamental problem is a lack of surfactant and thus too much surface tension int he alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Surfactant composition

A

Defense proteins: SP-A and SP-D

Surfactant proteins : SP-B, SP-C and surfactant lipids
-can measure these in an amniocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Surfactant genes

A

SFTPB, SFTBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Surfactant defiency issue

A

Infants need the surfactant to properly inhale with less effort, but if they don’t have any then each progressive breath the lungs collapse a little more

This problem of stiff atelectatic lungs is compounded by a soft thoracic wallet hat is pulled in as the diaphragm descends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Progressive atelectasis and reduced lung compliance->

A

Protein rich, fibrin rich exudation into the alveolar spaces with the formation of hyaline membranes

  • fibrin hyaline membranes are barriers to gas exchange->CO2 retention and hypoxemia
  • hypoxemia impairs further surfactant synthesis

Hypoventilation !!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does hypoventilation from RSD lead to

A

Acidosis and pulmonary vasoconstriction (from the relative hypoxia) leading to pulmonary hypoperfusion causing tissue damage and plasma leak into the alveoli

Ultimately there are necrotic cells and fibrin deposition with a hyaline membrane being laid down and exacerbating the problem in a viscous cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Surfactant synthesis

A

Produced by type II pneumocytes

Modulated by cortisol (glucocorticoids most important*), prolactin, thyroxine, and TGFB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Conditions associated with what increase ___ release and lower the risk of developing RDS

A

Intrauterine stress and FGR

Corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Diabetic mom

A

Increased glucose in mother leads to increased insulin in fetuses. Increased insulin in fetus inhibits synthesis of surfactant by way of inhibiting the steroids leading to a greater risk of RDS

  • infants of diabetic mom have higher risk of developing RDS
  • treat with corticosteroid therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How treat infant of diabetic mother

A

Corticosteroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Labor and surfactant

A

Labor increases surfactant synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

C section before onset of labor

A

Increases risk of RDS

C section is less stressful for baby and labor increases surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Morphology RDS

A

Lungs are normal size, solid airless, and reddish purple in color

Alveoli are poorly developed and collapsed—atelectasis

Necrotic cells (including type II pneumocytes) can be seen early and later they are incorporated within eosinophilic hyaline membranes that are also composed of fibrin

NEVER seen in stillborn

Infants that survive more than 48 hours will have reparative changes int he lungs where the alveolar epithelium proliferated under the surface of the membrane and detach into the airspace where is digested by macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clinical features of RDS

A

Clinical course and prognosis depends on the maturity and birth weight of the infant and the promptness of institution of therapy (administration of surfactant: poractant Alfa, bear tang, calfactant)

Best thing to do is delay labor long enough to reach maturity or induce maturation of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Best way to check on lung maturity

A

Sample the phospholipids in the amniotic fluid

  • phosphatidylcholine is important for surfactant
  • measure a lecithin: phosphatidylcholine ratio; want it to be greater than 2:1?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In uncomplicated cases of RDS when get recovery

A

3-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Complications from high concentration of ventilator administered oxygen for prolonged periods for infants with RDS

A

Retrolental fibroplasia

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Retrolental fibrosis(retinopathy of prematurity)

A

Phase I: hyperoxaluria; expression of VEGF is decreased and causing endothelial cell apoptosis

Phase II:VEGF levels rebound after return to relatively hypoxic room air
-induced retinal vessel proliferation (neovascularization) that is characteristic of the retina lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Major abnormality: striking decrease in alveolar septation (manifested as large, simplified alveolar structures) and a dysmorphic capillary configuration
caused by a potentially reversible impairment in the development of alveolar septation at the “saccular stage”
Multiple factors: hyperoxemia, hyperventilation, prematurity, inflammatory cytokines (TNF, IL-1, IL-6, and IL-8), and vascular maldevelopment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Infants who recover from RDS are at an increased risk of

A

PDA, intraventricular hemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Atelectasis (collapse)

A

Incomplete expansion of the lungs (neonatal atelectasis) or collapse of previously inflated lung producing areas of relatively airless pulmonary parenchyma
Can reduce oxygenation and predispose to infection
Reversible (except in contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Resorption atelectasis=obstruction

A

Complete airway obstruction
air is resorbed from the dependent alveoli which then collapse
Mediastinum shifts towards the affected lung because lung volume is diminished
most often caused by excessive secretions (mucus plug) or exudates within smaller bronchi as may occur in bronchial asthma, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, or post-operative setting
Can also be due to aspiration or tumor fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Compressive atelectasis=pleural effusion

A

occur whenever significant volumes of fluid accumulate within the pleural cavity
Transudate (hydrothorax), exudate (pleural effusion), blood (hemothorax), air (pneumothorax), tumor
Effusion from cardiac failure/neoplasm
Blood from aneurysm rupture
Mediastinum shifts away from the affected lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Contraction atelectasis =fibrosis

A

focal or generalized pulmonary or pleural fibrosis prevent full expansion
Mediastinum can shift toward the affected lung if it is ipsilateral, no change if it is bilateral
Irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pulmonary edema

A

leakage of excessive interstitial fluid in alveolar spaces due to:
Increased hydrostatic pressure
Increased capillary permeability
Leads to heavy, wet lungs regardless of etiology
Decreased oxygenation – diffusion barrier is increased –> cyanosis, dyspnea, low O2 sat
Predisposes patient to infection
Therapy and outcome depend on the etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hemodynamic pulmonary edema

A

Engorged alveolar capillaries
due to increased hydrostatic pressure, often a result of left-sided heart failure
Fluid accumulation occurs in basal regions of lower lungs first (dependent edema)
Granular, pink precipitates in the alveolar spaces
Chronically leads to brown, firm lungs (brown induration) due to interstitial fibrosis and hemosiderin laden macrophages (pathognomonic “heart failure cells”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Edema caused by microvascular (alveolar injury

A

due to injury of the alveolar septa
inflammatory exudate that leaks into the interstitial space and, in more severe cases, the alveoli
in most forms of pneumonia, the edema remains localized and is overshadowed by the manifestations of infection
If diffuse/severe can lead to Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Acute lung injury and acute respiratory distress syndrome (diffuse alveolar damage)

A

Ok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema (acute lung injury ALI)

A

Abrupt onset of hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates in the absence of heart failure
Increased pulmonary vascular permeability due to epithelial cell death
ARDS is a manifestation of severe ALI/DAD
ARDS and ALI are associated with inflammation-associated increases in pulmonary vascular permeability, edema, and epithelial cell death
histologically, this is recognized as diffuse alveolar damage (DAD)
due to localized or systemic insult
Sepsis, diffuse pulmonary edema, gastric aspiration, and trauma account for more than 50% of the cases
Worse prognosis in smokers and alcoholics
pathogenesis is a “viscous cycle of increasing inflammation and pulmonary damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ARDS is a manifestation of

A

Severe ALI/DAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ALI/ARDS: endothelial activation

A

There is injury to pneumocyte injury that is recognized by resident macrophages (“dust cells”)
Can also be activated by systemic factors in times of sepsis
Then there is increased endothelial permeability and adhesion molecules
There are also increased production and secretion of procoagulant proteins and chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ALI/ARDS: adhesion and extravasion of neutrophils

A

neutrophils come in and degranulate –> release inflammatory mediators including proteases, reactive oxygen species, and cytokines
macrophage inhibitory factor (MIF) helps to sustain the pro-inflammatory response
result: increased recruitment and adhesion of leukocytes –> more endothelial injury –> local thrombosis
this cycle of inflammation and endothelial damage lies at the heart of ALI/ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ALI/ARDS: accumulation if intraalveolar fluid and formation of hyaline membranes

A

The alveolar caps become leaky and allow the edema to come in
Type II pneumocytes are damaged which results in surfactant-related issues (i.e. gas exchange becomes worse –> shortness of breath)
The protein-rich fluid and dead epithelial cells then forms in hyaline membranes (characteristic of ALI/ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ALI?ARDS: resolution of injury

A

Impeded due to epithelial necrosis and inflammatory damage that impairs edema resorption
Eventually, if the inflammation lessens then the macrophages can clean everything up and heal the damaged areas with fibrogenic factors (i.e. TGF-β and PDGF)
There is then fibrosis of the alveolar walls and bronchiolar stem cell replacement of pneumocytes
Type II Pneumocytes replace the pneumocytes, act as stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

ALI?ARDS: acute morphology

A

Lungs are diffusely firm, red, boggy and heavy (hyperemic and congested?)
Congestion with interstitial and intraalveolar edema, inflammation, fibrin deposition, and diffuse alveolar damage
Lined with hyaline membranes (composed of necrotic epithelial debris and exuded proteins)
morphologically similar to those seen in hyaline membrane diseases of neonates
alveolar hyaline membranes consist of fibrin-rich edema fluid mixed with the cytoplasmic and lipid remnants of necrotic epithelial cells (protein-rich exudate)
Characteristic histologic picture of ARDS is that of hyaline membranes lining alveolar walls. Edema, scattered neutrophils and macrophages, and epithelial necrosis are also present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ALI/ARDS: organizing stage morphology

A

Type II pneumocyte proliferation
Granulation tissue forms in the alveolar walls as a response to the hyaline membranes
most cases: granulation tissue resolves and leaves only minimal functional impairment
can progress to interstitial fibrosis with severe scarring
Superimposed bronchopneumonia can be fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ALI/ARDS: clinical

A

LI/ARDS: Clinical
ALI or ARDS patients are usually already admitted for one of the predisposing conditions (e.g. sepsis, severe head trauma)
Dyspnea and tachypnea are characteristic –> cyanosis, hypoxemia, respiratory failure, and the appearance of diffuse bilateral infiltrates follow
hypoxemia may be refractory to oxygen therapy due to ventilation/perfusion mismatching
Respiratory acidosis can develop (can’t blow off CO2 as effectively –> buildup of CO2 –> acidosis)
Stiff lungs from the lack of surfactant can develop early in the course
Functional abnormalities are not evenly distributed
Poorly aerated regions are still perfused = V/Q mismatch & hypoxemia
Ventilation is occurring, but there in not as much perfusion as expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mortality ALI/ARDS

A

40% secondary to sepsis of multi organ failrue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

ALI/ARDS:treatment

A

Mechanical ventilation while treating the underlying cause
no proven specific treatments – treatment of the underlying cause has improved
Most patients will recover, but many of them can still have physical and cognitive impairment
most deaths are attributable to sepsis or multiorgan failure and, in some cases, direct lung injury
In minority of cases, exudate and diffuse tissue destruction –> scarring, interstitial fibrosis, and chronic pulmonary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Acute interstitial pneumonia (idiopathic (ALI/DAD)

A

Widespread ALI of unknown etiology with a rapidly progressive clinical course
Present with acute respiratory failure within 3 weeks of URI
Imaging/pathology identical to organizing ALI
Average age: 59; No gender preference
33-74% mortality, typically in first 12 months
Morphology is the same as the organizing stage of ALI
Progresses rapidly with most deaths occurring in 1-2 months
Survivors are prone to recurrence and chronic interstitial disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Obstructive and restrictivelung diseases

A

Increased resistance to airflow due to partial or complete obstruction at any level
Decreased maximal flow rates during forced expiration
FEV1 / FVC < 0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

Decreased expansion of the lung parenchyma and decreased total lung capacity
Chest wall disorders (e.g. severe obesity, pleural diseases, kyphoscoliosis, and poliomyelitis)
Chronic interstitial and infiltrative disease (e.g. pneumoconioses and interstitial fibrosis)
Proportionate Decreased in lung capacity and FEV1 –> FEV1 / FVC is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Chest wall disorders

A

Severe obesity, pleural diseases, kyphoscoliosis, and poliomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chronic interstitial and infiltrating disease

A

Pneumoconiosis and infiltrative disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Obstructive lung disease FEV1/FVC

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Restrictive lung disease FEV1/FVC

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Obstructive lung disease examples

A

COPD(emphysema, chronic bronchitis)

Asthma

Bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

Anatomical site-bronchus

Major pathological changes-mucous gland hyperplasia, hypersecretion

Etiology:tobacco smoke, air pollutants

Signs and symptoms :fought sputum production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

An atomic site: bronchi

Major pathology changes: airway dilation and scarring

Etiology: persistent or severe necrotizing infections

Signs and symptoms: cough, pursuant sputum, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Asthma

A

Anatomic site: bronchus

Major pathological changes: smooth msucle hyperplasia, excess mucus, inflammation

Etiology: immunologic or unknown; drug induced

Signs and symptoms: episodic wheezing, cough, dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Emphysema

A

Anatomic site: acinus

Major pathological changes: airspace enlargement, wall destruction->blebs

Etiology: tobacco smoke: highly

Signs and symptoms: dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Small airway disease(variant of chronic bronchiolitis)

A

Can be seen with any form of obstructive disease or as an isolated finding: contributes to obstruction both in emphysema and chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Reversible bronchitis

A

Asthma == reversible bronchospasm
chronic bronchitis and emphysema == irreversible bronchospasm
*Generally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

COPD

A

C ommonly includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis
Increased risk: Cigarette smoking, female, African American, environmental/occupational pollutants, airway hyperresponsiveness, genetic polymorphisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Emphysema

A

I rreversible enlargement of airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles
Alveolar wall destruction without obvious fibrosis, except in the small airways
Classified by anatomic distribution within the lobule – centriacinar, panacinar, paraseptal, and irregular
lobule == cluster of acini (terminal respiratory units)
*only the first two cause clinically significant airflow obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Centriacinar (centrilobular emphysema)

A

Destruction and enlargement of the central or proximal parts of the acini, formed by respiratory bronchioles, sparing distal alveoli
Emphysematous and normal airspaces exist within the same acinus and lobule
Predominantly upper lobes and apices
When severe, the distal acini may be involved (difficult to distinguish against panacinar emphysema)
Heavy smokers and often associated with chronic bronchitis (COPD)
Most common form of emphysema 95% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Where is centriacinar emphysema, who gets it

A

Upper lobes and spices

Smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Most common form of emphysema

A

Centriacinar emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Panacinar (panlobular) emphysema

A

Uniform destruction and enlargement of the entire acini from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal blind alveoli
Common in the lower zones and anterior margins of the lung
Most severe at the lung bases
Associated with α1-antitrypsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Distal acinar emphysema

A

Proximal acinus is normal; distal acinus is predominantly affected
Prominent near the pleura, along septa and lobules and occurs adjacent to fibrosis/scarring/atelectasis
More severe in the upper half of the lungs
Multiple, continuous, enlarged airspaces that may sometimes form cyst-like structures – “blebs”
Commonly the underlying lesion in spontaneous pneumothorax in the young

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Airspace enlargement with fibrosis (irregular emphysema)

A

Acinus is irregularly involved

Invariable associated with scaring

Clinically insignificant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pathogenesis of emphysema

A

parenchymal destruction == emphysema

airway disease == bronchiolitis and chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Emphysema pathogenesis L inflammatory mediators

A

Increased levels in the affected areas – leukotriene B4, IL-8, TBF, and others
Released by resident epithelial cells and macrophages
Attract inflammatory cells from circulation (chemotaxis)
Amplify inflammation (cytokines)
Induce structural changes (GFs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Emphysema pathogenesis : protease antiprotease balance

A

connective tissue is broken down by enzymes released from the inflammatory and epithelial cells
Loss of elastic tissue = respiratory bronchiole collapse during expiration causing functional obstruction
Deficiency of antiproteases (may be genetic) is common in patients with emphysema
α1-antitrypsin == anti-protease; deficiency upsets the balance –> panlobular emphysema
trypsin is a protease; anti-trypsin is an anti-protease – don’t get fucked up on words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Emphysema pathogenesis: oxidative stress

A

Oxidants are produced by tobacco smoke, from alveolar damage, and from inflammatory cells
NFR2 inactivation: significantly increased sensitivity to tobacco smoke
NFR2 is a sensor for oxidants in alveolar epithelial cells
Activated by intracellular oxidants to upregulate genes that protect from oxidant damage
NFR2 == transcription factor that upregulates expression of multiple genes that protect cells from oxidant damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Emphysema pathogenesis : infection

A

Thought to exacerbate the associated inflammation and chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A1 antitrypsin (anti-protease) and emphysema

A

Found in 1% of all patients
anti-protease: protects against proteases, especially elastase (released by neutrophils)
Much more likely to cause emphysema, especially if the patient smokes
Encoded on the Pi locus of chromosome 14
patients with the Z allele have decreased serum levels and 80% of homozygotes (piZZ) will develop symptomatic panacinar emphysema which is even more accelerated and severe if the patient smokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor and emphysema

A

Some genetic variants of the receptor can lead to an increased risk for the disease
Makes smoking more addictive and thus increases the risk of the disease
smoke more and smoking is even worse for you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Physiology emphysema

A

small airways are normally held open by the elastic recoil of the lung parenchyma
loss of elastic tissue in the walls of alveoli that surround respiratory bronchioles reduces radial traction and thus causes the respiratory bronchioles to collapse during expiration –> functional airflow obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Smoking and airway changes, found even in young smokers

A

goblet cell hyperplasia and mucus plugging of the lumen
inflammatory infiltrates in bronchial walls – neutrophils, macrophages, B-cells, and T-cells
bronchiolar wall thickening due to fibrosis and smooth muscle hypertrophy –> increased airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Emphysema morphology

A

Diffuse disease: voluminous lungs that overlap the heart
Alveolar wall rupture can produce huge airspaces (blebs and bullae) that are more commonly found in the upper 2/3 of the lungs that compresses the bronchioles and vasculature
Alveolar spaces are enlarged and separated by thin septa with only focal centriacinar fibrosis
The Pores of Kohn are large and look to be clubbed shape and protrude blindly into the alveolar spaces
Septal capillaries are compressed and bloodless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

CLINCIALLY emphysema

A

Dyspnea, wheezing, cough begin to occur when 1/3 of pulmonary parenchyma is lost
Cough and expectorant are very variable and depend on the level of the associated bronchitis
Severe weight loss (confused with occult cancer)
Barrel chested, dyspneic, hunched over, breathes through pursed lips
impaired expiratory airflow (best measured through spirometry) is the key to diagnosis
‘Pink puffers’ well oxygenated at rest due to overventilation
chronic bronchitis == blue bloaters
emphysema == pink puffers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Prognosis emphysema

A

Development of cor pulmonale is a poor prognostic factor
Death due to:
Coronary Artery Disease
Respiratory Failure
Right Heart Failure
Massive collapse of lungs 2° to pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Treat emphysema

A

Smoking cessation
O2 therapy
Long acting bronchodilators (tiotropiums and ipratropium) with inhaled corticosteroids
physical therapy
Bullectomy
Lung volume reduction surgery (select patients)
Lung transplant (select patients)
α1-antitrypsin replacement therapy is currently being evaluated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Other forms of emphysema

A

Associated with lung overinflation or focal emphysematous change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Compensatory hyperinflation emphysema

A

Dilation of alveoli in response to loss of lung parenchyma elsewhere
hyper-expansion of residual lung parenchyma following surgical removal of diseased lung or lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Obstructive overinflation emphysema

A

Foreign body (tumor, foreign object) creates a subtotal obstruction – the lung expands because air is trapped
Congenital Lobar Overinflation in infants due to hypoplasia of bronchial cartilage
sometimes associated with other congenital cardiac and lung abnormalities
Overinflation in Obstructive Lesions
Ball-valve phenomenon which admits air on inspiration but traps it on expiration
Collaterals introduce air behind the obstruction
pores of Kohn
canals of Lambert (bronchioalveolar connections)
Can be life-threatening as the affected lung can compress the remaining lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Bulbous emphysema

A

Large sub-pleural bullae or blebs that can occur with any type of emphysema
Bullae: spaces of air that are greater than 1cm
Occurs near the apex
Often near old tuberculous scarring
Rupture can cause pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Interstitial emphysema

A

Entry of air into connective tissue of the lung, mediastinum, or subcutaneous tissue
In most cases is due to alveolar tears in pulmonary emphysema allowing air to enter the stroma of the lungs, but can also be due to chest wound or fractured rib
rapid increases in pressure within the alveolar sacs (e.g. coughing with bronchiolar obstruction)
premature infants on positive pressure ventilation are most at risk
Artificially ventilated adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

Persistent cough with sputum production for at least three months in at least two consecutive years in the absence of other identifiable causes
Can accelerate decline in lung function, cause cor pulmonale and HF or atypical metaplasia of respiratory epithelium (fertile grounds for cancerous transformation)
Common in smokers and smog-laden cities
COPD spectrum == emphysema to chronic bronchitis
most patients have features of both
associate Reid Index with Chronic Bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Pathogenesis chronic bronchitis

A

Predominantly due to chronic irritation from inhaled substances/irritants such as tobacco smoke (90% of patients also smoke) and also dust from grain, silica, or cotton
earliest feature == hypersecretion of mucus in the large airways
associated with hypertrophy of the submucosal glands in the trachea and bronchi
With time there is increased numbers of goblet cells in the smaller airways too
Chronic inflammation leads to fibrosis and obstruction of the small airways
Exacerbated by 2° infections
Smoking inhibits cilia to prevent the clearing of mucous and thus increased risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Morphology chronic bronchitis

A

Hyperemia (excessive blood vessels)
Edema of lung mucous membranes
mild chronic inflammation of the airways (predominantly lymphocytes) and enlargement of the mucus-secreting glands of the trachea and bronchi – characteristic features of chronic bronchitis
Mucinous secretions filling airways
Mucous gland hyperplasia
hyperplasia == increase in size
Reid Index == ratio of the thickness of the mucous gland layer to the thickness of the wall between the epithelium and the cartilage
Normally is .4 or 40%; increased in chronic bronchitis in proportion to the severity and duration
associate Reid Index with chronic bronchitis – just the glandular component
don’t use the Reid Index for asthma
Bronchiolar inflammation, fibrosis, and gland hyperplasia leads to airway obstruction
Bronchial epithelium may exhibit squamous metaplasia + dysplasia
There is marked narrowing of bronchioles caused by mucus plugging, inflammation, and fibrosis
Severe: bronchiolitis obliterans (fibrosis causes obliteration of the lumen in severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Clinical chronic bronchitis

A

y
Persistent cough productive of sparse sputum for at least three consecutive months in at least two consecutive years
eventually, dyspnea on exertion develops
hypercapnia (retain CO2), hypoxemia and mild cyanosis over time – “blue bloaters”
chronic bronchitis == blue bloaters
emphysema == pink puffers
Can lead to cor pulmonale and heart failure
Death is possible from further impairment of respiratory function due to superimposed acute infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Asthma

A

disorder of the conducting airways
episodic reversible bronchospasm due to smooth muscle hyperreactivity, inflammation of the bronchial walls, and increased mucus production
Leads to cough, wheeze, chest tightness, and breathlessness, especially at night and in the morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Classes of asthma

A

Atopic (most common0

Nonatopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Atopic asthma

A

Classic IgE-mediated (Type I) hypersensitivity reaction triggered by environmental allergens (e.g. pollen, food) that is synergistically triggered by other proinflammatory things in the environment and viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Early onset allergic asthma

A

Associated with TH2 helper T cell mediated inflammation and responds well to treatment with corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Genetic atopic asthma

A

Family history common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Skin test atopic asthma

A

Immediate wheal and far reaction to the antigen they are sensitized to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Serum test atopic asthma

A

Levels of allergen sensitization shown by RAST which can detect the presence of IgE antibodies that are specific for individual allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Nonatopic asthma

A

No evidence of allergen sensitization
Negative skin test
Genetic involvement less common
viral respiratory infections are common triggers, as well as inhaled air pollutants (smoking, sulfur dioxide, ozone, and nitrogen dioxide == smog) that can cause chronic airway inflammation and hyperreactivity
ozone has no pathologic effects; it is only an irritant
Can even be caused by cold or exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Drug induced asthma (triad asthma)

A

Aspirin sensitive asthma == uncommon; occurs in individuals with recurrent rhinitis and nasal polyps
exquisitely sensitive to small doses of aspirin and other NSAIDs
asthmatic attacks + urticaria (hives)
Inhibition of COX pathway –> decreased PGE2 –> increase in pro-inflammatory leukotrienes
NSAIDs
More likely to occur in individuals with recurrent rhinitis and nasal polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Occupational asthma

A

Minute quantities of chemicals induces signs and symptoms after repeated exposure
Varying underlying mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Asthmatic bronchitis

A

Seen in smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Early phase atopic asthma

A

TH2 hyperreactivity leads to:
IL-4: production of IgE – “5Always and 4Ever”
IL-5: activates eosinophils
IL-13: stimulates bronchial submucosal glands to secrete mucous and B-cells to make more IgE
Antigen binding to IgE coated mast cells causes primary and secondary mediator release that cause:
T-lymphocytes and epithelial cells secrete chemokines that recruit more T-lymphocytes and eosinophils and exacerbate the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Early phase atopic asthma

A

Bronchoconstriction triggered by direct stimulation of subepithelial vagal (parasympathetic) receptors through both central and local reflexes
increased mucus production
variable degrees of vasodilation
increased vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Late phase atopic asthma (hours

A

dominated by the recruitment of leukocytes, notably eosinophils, neutrophils, and more T-cells
Persistent bronchospasm and edema
Leukocytic infiltration
Epithelial damage and loss
Repeated bouts lead to airway remodeling – asthma == airway remodeling
Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial smooth muscle and mucus glands
Increased vascularity
Increased deposition of subepithelial collagen
TH2 is the dominant cell type
TH17 T-cells are also present and they are the ones that recruit neutrophils
down regulation of IL-17 == cold abscesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Mediators whose role in asthmatic bronchospasm is clearly supported by. Pharmacological intervention

A

Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Leukotrients C4, D4, E4

A

Prolonged bronchoconstriction, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Stimulation of muscarinic receptors causing airway smooth muscle constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Mediators found in asthmatic bronchospasm, but not significant targets of pharmaceutical intervention

A
Histamine
PGD2
PAF
Cytokines and chemokines
^might prove important in certain types of chronic or non allergic asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Histamine:

A

Bronchoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

PGD2

A

Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Asthma genetics

A

Patients with atopic asthma are more likely to have other allergic disorders like allergic rhinitis and eczema
Implicated genes can affect 1° or 2° immune responses, tissue remodeling or the patients response to therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Gene cluster involving IL3, IL4 IL5 IL9 IL13 and IL4R, on chromosome 5q

A

Polymorphism in the IL13 gene have the strongest and most consistent association with asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Genetics asthma

A
IL4R
HLA class II

ADAM33 leads to bronchial smooth muscle and fibroblast proliferation

B2-adrenergic receptor (airway reactivity)

YKL-40: increased levels of the China tase-like glycoproteins is directly correlated with disease severity , airway remodeling, and decreased pulmonary function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Environmental factors

A

City Living – there are many airborne pollutants that may initiate the TH2 response; city life limits the exposure of very young children to certain antigens
infections themselves are not a cause of asthma
young children with aeroallergen sensitization who develop lower respiratory tract viral infections (rhinovirus type C, respiratory syncytial virus) have 10-30x increased risk of developing persistent and/or severe asthma
viral and bacterial infections are associated with acute exacerbations of the disease
airway remodeling = structural changes in the bronchial wall brought on as a result of repeated bouts of allergen exposure and immune reactions; irreversible component
hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial smooth muscle
epithelial injury
increased airway vascularity
increased subepithelial mucus gland hypertrophy
deposition of subepithelial collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Asthma morphology

A

The following is especially found in patients with status asthmaticus
Overinflated lungs with patchy atelectasis
Mucus plugging of airways that also contains shed epithelium
Whorled mucus plugs (Curschmann spirals)
Microscopic lung edema, with eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden crystals (eosinophilic protein galectin-10)
Airway remodeling == irreversible component; this is seen in asthma
Thickening of airway wall
Subbasement membrane fibrosis (deposited I and III collagen)
Increased vascularity
Bronchial wall smooth muscle and mucosal gland hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Clinical course asthma

A
Attacks can be hours long
Chest tightness
Prolonged expiration
Peripheral blood eosinophilia
Wheezing
Dyspnea
Cough
**atopic dermatitis**: rash on flexural surfaces
asthma == eosinophils, IL-5, Curschmann spirals, Charcot-Leyden crystals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Status asthmaticus

A

Severe form of asthma where the paroxysm persists for days and weeks

Airflow obstruction may be so severe it causes cyanosis or death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Asthma and puberty

A

About half of the cases will remit, but lots of cases will return in adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Destruction of smooth muscle and elastic tissue by chronic necrotizing infections that leads to permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles
becoming less common due to infection control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Etiology bronchiectasis

A

Congenital or hereditary conditions like cystic fibrosis and primary ciliary dyskinesia
Infection(s), including *necrotizing pneumonia caused by bacteria, viruses, and fungi
Bronchial obstruction, due to tumor, foreign body, or mucus impaction
bronchiectasis is localized to the obstructed lung segment
Chronic inflammatory states: RA, lupus, IBD, COPD, post-lung/bone marrow transplant
25-50% of cases are idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Pathogenesis bronchiectasis

A

Obstruction and infection are both necessary but can occur in either order
Bronchial obstruction impairs normal clearing mechanisms
secretions pool distal to the obstruction and can lead to secondary infection and inflammation
Severe infections can lead to inflammation accompanied by necrosis, fibrosis, and eventually airway dilation
The smaller airways can become obliterated: bronchiolitis obliterans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Abnormal function or loss of an epithelial chloride channel (CFTR) on chromosome 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

CFTR transports Cl

A

Sweat glands: from the surface into the cell

Other epithelia: from the cell to the lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

CFTR ENaC

A

CFTR inhibits ENaC which is found on epithelial cell apical surfaces (except on sweat glands) and thus in CF it is overactive taking up water and Na+ ions from the mucus in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What does dehydration of the airway mucus lead to in CF

A

T he dehydration of the airway mucus leads to decreased ciliary activity and an inability for the body to clear mucous and microbes –> airway obstruction, predispose to (necrotizing) infection –> bronchiectasis
primary defect in ion transport –> defective mucociliary action and airway obstruction by thick secretions
chronic bacterial infections are common –> widespread damage to airway walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Bacterial pathogenesis CF

A

Staphylococcus aureus, haemophilus influenzae, and burkholderia capacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa CF

A

Can produce a mucosa capsule (alginate)->protective biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

Autosomal recessive
Defect in ciliary motor proteins (dynein) –> retention of secretions –> recurrent infection –> bronchiectasis
Half of patients also have Kartagener Syndrome: situs inversus or partial lateralizing abnormality, bronchiectasis, and sinusitis
Males usually infertile due to sperm dysmotility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary asperigillosis

A

Occurs in patients with asthma and cystic fibrosis who develop periods of exacerbation and remission which can lead to proximal bronchiectasis and fibrotic lung disease
Hypersensitivity to the fungus aspergillus fumigatus
Activation of TH2 helper T cells that recruit eosinophils and other leukocytes
Elevated IgE serum antibodies to the fungus
Characterized by formation of mucous plugs and intense airway inflammation with eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Bronchiectasis morphology

A

Most severe changes in the peripheral lower lobes
Affects the more distal bronchi and bronchioles, especially the vertical ones
Can affect just a single lung segment if caused by tumors or aspiration of a foreign body
Airways may be dilated up to 4x the normal size
Appear cystic and filled with mucopurulent secretions
In severe cases there can be inflammatory exudation within the walls of the airways that is associated with desquamation of the lining epithelium and lots of ulceration
For the rest of the tissue there may be pseudo stratification of the columnar cells or squamous metaplasia
Sometimes the necrosis can lead to abscesses
If chronic, there can be severe fibrosis and obliteration of the lumens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Bronchiectasis common pathogens

A

Staphylococcus (clusters), streptococcus (chains), enterics (gram negatives), anaerobic and microaerophilic pathogens (especially in pediatric populations), Haemophilus influenzae (vaccine), and pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Bronchiectasis clincial course

A

signs and symptoms are often episodic and precipitated by URI
Persistent, severe cough
May be associated with morning or positional changes draining collected pus/secretions into the bronchi
Fever, orthopnea, dyspnea, and cyanosis
Abundant purulent sputum that is foul smelling and sometimes bloody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Complications bronchiectasis

A

Cor pulmonale

Brain abscess

Amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Restrictive lung disorders

A

Chronic interstitial and infiltrative diseases

  • pneumoconiosis
  • interstitial fibrosis of unknown etiology

Chest wall disorders
-neuromuscular diseases (poliomyelitis, severe obesity, pleural diseases, kyphoscoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Chronic interstitial pulmonary disease

A

signs and symptoms are often episodic and precipitated by URI
Persistent, severe cough
May be associated with morning or positional changes draining collected pus/secretions into the bronchi
Fever, orthopnea, dyspnea, and cyanosis
Abundant purulent sputum that is foul smelling and sometimes bloody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What happens in chronic interstitial pulmonary disease

A

L ong term development of cor pulmonale and 2° pulmonary HTN
May be difficult to distinguish in late stages because all result in scarring and gross destruction of the lung
End-Stage, or Honeycomb Lung
CXR: bilateral lesions that take the form of small nodules, irregular lines, or ground glass shadows that all indicate interstitial fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Fibrosing diseases

A

Ok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis -MUC5B

A

Clinicopathologic syndrome of unknown cause with progressive interstitial pulmonary fibrosis and respiratory failure
Appears to occur in patients who are genetically susceptible to aberrant repair of recurrent alveolar epithelial cell injuries due to environmental exposures
Profibrotic response
Histologically, usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) must be distinguished from other causes
UIP == nonspecific pattern of fibrosis shared with connective tissue diseases, chronic hypersensitivity pneumonia, and asbestosis
prototypic of restrictive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Risk factors for IPF

A

Environmental factors: Cigarette smoking, viruses, persistent GERD, metal fumes, wood dust, farming, hairdressers, and stone-polishing
Genetic factors:
MUC5B: Increased mucin secretion that increases susceptibility to downstream fibrosis
this accounts for 1/3 of cases
problems in creating surfactant –> unfolded protein response –> harms type II pneumocytes
Telomerase: loss-of-function (i.e. autosomal recessive) mutations in TERT and TERC
Age > 50 (this is an older person disease

154
Q

Morphology IPF

A

histological pattern of fibrosis is referred to as usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP)
this can usually be found on its characteristic appearance in CT scans
Lower lobe predominance
Patchy interstitial fibrosis (frim rubbery white areas) in sub-pleural and interlobular septal distribution
Heterogenous lesions of different ages
Earliest lesions contain lots of fibroblastic proliferation (fibroblastic foci)
With time areas become more collagenous and less cellular
Dense fibrosis and cystic spaces lined with hyperplastic type II pneumocytes or bronchiolar epithelium (end-stage lung, or honeycomb lung)
May see signs of pulmonary artery hypertensive changes and diffuse alveolar damage (DAD == ARDS

155
Q

Clinical IPF

A

55-75 years old at presentation with variable deterioration
Gradually progressive DOE and dry cough
Late: hypoxemia, cyanosis and clubbing despite anti-inflammatories and anti-proliferatives
Median survival: 3 years after diagnosis
Lung transplant is only definitive therapy

156
Q

Only definitive treatment IPF

A

Lung transplant

157
Q

Non specific interstitial pneumonia

A

Diffusely fibrosing disease of unknown etiology

lung biopsies lack the diagnostic features of any of the other well-characterized interstitial diseases

158
Q

Morphology nonspecific interstitial pneumonia

A

Cellular pattern
Mild/moderate chronic interstitial inflammation with lymphocytes and a few plasma cells
Uniform or patchy distribution
Fibrosing pattern
Diffuse or patchy interstitial fibrotic lesions of the same stage (vs other UIP)
fibroblastic foci, honeycombing, hyaline membranes and granulomas are absent

159
Q

Clinical nonspecific interstitial pneumonia

A

patients have chronic dyspnea and cough for several months
patients have a much better prognosis vs other interstitial pneumonias
Nonsmoking females in 6th decade
CT: bilateral, symmetric, predominantly lower lobe reticular opacities
Cellular pattern patients tend to be younger than those with fibrosing and have a better prognosis

160
Q

Crypto genie organizing pneumonia

A

formerly known as: (bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP)
Unknown etiology
Cough, dyspnea
Patchy subpleural or peribronchial consolidation on CXR
*Masson Bodies: polypoid plugs of loose organizing connective tissue within alveolar ducts, alveoli, and often bronchioles
Lesions are all of the same age
No interstitial fibrosis or honeycombing, the lung architecture is normal
patients may recover spontaneously, but most require six months of steroids
Identical morphologic changes with infections/inflammatory lung injury
organizing pneumonia with intra-alveolar fibrosis is most often seen as a response to infections or inflammatory injury of the lungs

161
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis on the lung (caplan syndrome=RA and pneumonicosis)

A

30-40% of patients have pulmonary involvement in one of five ways
Chronic pleuritis (+/- effusion)
Diffuse interstitial pneumonitis and fibrosis
Intrapulmonary rheumatoid nodules
Follicular bronchiolitis
Pulmonary HTN

162
Q

Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) on the lung

A

Diffuse interstitial fibrosis (nonspecific interstitial pattern more common than usual interstitial pattern) and pleural involvement occurs in this systemic autoimmune disease
anti-DNA topoisomerase antibodies

163
Q

Systemic lupus erythematous

A

Patchy, transient parenchymal infiltrates or occasionally severe lupus pneumonitis, as well as pleurisy and pleural effusions may occur
anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith antibodies

164
Q

Chronic interstitial lung disease

A

diffuse interstitial fibrosis of the lung –> restrictive lung diseases
decreased lung compliance and decreased forced vital capacity, proportionally –> Normal FEV:FVC ratio

165
Q

Pneumoconiosis=fibrosing patterna

A

Definition
Non-neoplastic lung reaction to inhalation of mineral dusts, organic and inorganic particulates, and chemical fumes/vapors encountered in the workplace
result from well-defined occupational exposure to specific airborne agents as well as ambient air pollution, especially in urban environments (carbon dust from internal combustion engines)
Genetic predisposition is likely because only a small percentage of exposed people develop occupational respiratory disease

166
Q

Pathogenesis pneumoconiosis

A

depends on:
amount of dust retained in the airway and lung (concentration, exposure)
cigarette smoking impairs mucociliary clearance and significantly increases the accumulation of dust in the lungs + adds more shit
tobacco smoke worsens the effects of all inhaled mineral dusts, especially asbestos
Size, shape, particle buoyancy
1-5μm reach terminal alveoli and settle in lining (small particles are worse than large particles)
Physiochemical reactivity (toxicity) and particle solubility
small and highly soluble: rapid onset lung damage and acute lung injury
large and less soluble: more likely to resist dissolution, persist for years, and evoke fibrosing collagenous pneumoconioses (e.g. silicosis)
possible additional effects of other irritants (e.g. concomitant tobacco smoking)
The particles may also be taken up by the epithelial cells or cross through and interact directly with macrophages and fibroblasts
Particles may enter the lymphatics to initiate immune response or cause auto-immune

167
Q

Coal workers pneumoconiosis

A

Spectrum of disease due to inhalation of coal particles and other forms of carbon dust
Asymptomatic anthracosis
simple coal workers pneumoconiosis: little to no pulmonary dysfunction
complicated coal workers’ pneumoconiosis aka progressive massive fibrosis (PMF)
lung function is compromised
Can develop emphysema and chronic bronchitis independent of smoking
Presence of silica in the coal dust leads to worse and progressive disease
favors progressive disease

168
Q

Morphology coal workers pneumoconiosis

A

Anthracosis
macrophage take up inhaled carbon dust and accumulate in interstitial tissue
Black pigmented lesions formed by coal laden macrophages accumulate in the connective tissue along the pleural lymphatics or in organized lymphoid tissue along the bronchi or in the lung hilum
Simple Coal Workers Pneumoconiosis
1-2mm coal macules with carbon-laden macrophages or slightly larger coal nodules that also contain a delineated network of collagen fibers
concentrated in the upper lobes and upper zones of the lower lobes
primarily adjacent to respiratory bronchioles (site of initial dust accumulation)
With time there can be dilation of adjacent alveoli that gives rise to centrilobular emphysema
Complicated Coal Workers Pneumoconiosis (CCWP)
also known as Progressive Massive Fibrosis
occurs on a background of simple disease; requires years to develop
multiple, intensely blackened scars 1 cm or larger consisting of dense collagen and pigment
center of the lesion is often necrotic, most likely due to local ischemia

169
Q

Clinical coal workers pneumoconiosis

A

Generally benign, as mild forms have little effect on lung function
CCWP may develop causing increased pulmonary dysfunction
Pulmonary HTN
Cor pulmonale
CCWP can continue to worsen, even if exposure is eliminated
Does not raise susceptibility of tuberculosis or cancer (in the absence of smoking)
domestic indoor use of “smoky coal” (bituminous) for cooking and heating is associated with an increased risk of lung cancer death for both women and men

170
Q

Silicosis

A

Definition
Common lung disease due to inhalation of pro-inflammatory crystalline silicone dioxide
slowly progressing, nodular, fibrosing pneumoconiosis that takes decades
Increased risk in African Americans
acute silicosis: characterized by the accumulation of abundant lipoproteinaceous material within alveoli
etiology == heavy exposure over months to a few years
Most prevalent chronic occupational disease in the world

171
Q

Silicosis pathogenesis

A

crystalline forms of silica (quartz, cristobalite, and tridymite) are much more fibrogenic than amorphous
phagocytosed silica crystals activate the inflammasome –> oxidants, cytokines (IL-1 and IL-18), and GFs –> fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition
Slowly growing collagenous scars – takes decades to develop
Coalesce: progressive massive fibrosis

172
Q

Morphology silicosis

A

Nodules are pale or black from coal dust in the beginning
Become larger, more diffuse with progression forming large areas of massive fibrosis (scars) that contains a central area of whorled collagen surrounded by dust laden macrophages
histologic hallmark lesion characterized by a central area of whorled collagen fibers with a more peripheral zone of dust-laden macrophages
Some may have central softening and cavitation from superimposed tuberculosis or ischemia
Initial collagenous nodules in upper lung or hilar lymph nodes
Thin sheets of calcification can happen around the lymph nodes (called egg shell calcification on CXR)
calcium surrounding a zone lacking calcification
silicosis == egg shell calcifications
Polarized light: (weakly) birefringent silica particles

173
Q

Silicosis clinical

A

CXR with fine nodularity in upper lungs
pulmonary function tests are either normal or moderately affected early in the course
SOB develops later in course with progressive massive fibrosis (most patients do not develop SOB)
Continues to worsen even if exposure is eliminated
Increased susceptibility to tuberculosis
Onset is variable but usually slow and insidious (10-30 years after exposure), but can rarely be rapid with intense exposure
2x increased risk for lung cancer

174
Q

Asbestos

A

Family of proinflammatory crystalline hydrated silicates associated with pulmonary fibrosis, carcinoma, mesothelioma and other cancers
Think of shipyard workers, construction, demolition (ceiling insulation

175
Q

Asbestos related illness

A

Localized fibrous plaques or diffuse pleural fibrosis
Pleural effusions (recurrent)
Parenchymal interstitial fibrosis (asbestosis)
Lung carcinoma
Mesothelioma: malignant tumor derived from the lining cells of pleural surfaces
Laryngeal, ovarian, extrapulmonary neoplasms
Increased risk of autoimmune or cardiovascular disease

176
Q

Forms of asbestos

A

Amphiboles

Serpentine

177
Q

Amphiboles asbestos

A

More pathogenic form due to their aerodynamic properties and solubility

Once trapped, gradually leach due to solubility

178
Q

Serpentine asbestos

A

Less pathogenic form due to flexible curled shape

More likely to become impacted in the upper respiratory passages and subsequently removed by mucocillary elevator

179
Q

Less pathogenic serpentine(chrysotile) accounts for what percent of asbestos used in injury

A

90%

180
Q

Pathogenesis asbestos

A

both amphiboles and serpentines are fibrogenic, and increasing doses are associated with a higher incidence of asbestos-related disease (follows a dose-response curve)
asbestos can also act as a tumor initiator and promoter – unlike other inorganic dusts
asbestos fibers activate the inflammasome and stimulate the release of proinflammatory factors and fibrogenic mediators
Alveolar macrophages ingest the inhaled fibers and produce mediators when activated
Fibers act as tumor initiators and promoters
Oncogenic effects may be due to free-radical generation
Tumorgenicity due to adsorption of potentially toxic substances on the fibers
Initial injury occurs at the branch points of small airways and ducts

181
Q

Morphology asbestos

A

Morphology
Asbestosis: indistinguishable from diffuse interstitial fibrosis (honeycomb pattern) except for the presence of asbestos bodies
In contrast to coal workers’ and silicosis, asbestosis begins in the lower lungs and works its way up. The scarring can cause pulmonary HTN and cor pulmonale
Asbestos Bodies: pathognomonic, golden brown, fusiform or beaded rods ‘dumbbell shaped’ with translucent center and consist of asbestos fibers coated with iron-containing proteinaceous material
Prussian Blue stain stains iron (saw this in GI with Wilson’s disease)
Arise via ingestion of asbestos fibers by macrophages
Rarely single bodies can be found in healthy people
aka Ferruginous Bodies
Pleural plaques: well circumscribed plaques of dense collagen, no asbestos bodies, occur with exposure
Most common manifestation of asbestos exposure
Found on the anterior and posterolateral aspects of the parietal pleura and over the domes of the diaphragm
Number and size of the plaques does not correlate with the level or time since exposure
Rarely pleural effusions or visceral pleural fibrosis may occur and bind the lung to the thoracic wall
localized pleural plaques are asymptomatic

182
Q

Clincial asbestos

A

Clinically
Dyspnea may occur as the first signs and symptoms 20-30 years after exposure
cough associated with production of sputum is likely due to smoking rather than asbestosis
CXR: irregular linear densities seen bilaterally in lower lobes (plaques)
disease can be static or progress
Honeycomb pattern with advanced pneumoconiosis
Increased risk of lung cancer if also smoke cigarettes
Grim prognosis with concurrent pulmonary/pleural malignancy

183
Q

Drug induced lung disease

A

Drug Induced Lung Disease
Cytotoxic drugs used in cancer therapy (e.g. bleomycin): pulmonary damage and fibrosis as a result of direct toxicity and by stimulating the influx of inflammatory cells into the alveoli
Amiodarone: preferentially concentrated in the lung –> pneumonitis
ACEI: cough (“very common”)
IV drug use → pulmonary infection
particulate matter in IV drugs –> wedge in the pulmonary microvasculature –> granulomas and fibrosis

184
Q

Radiation pneumonitis

A

well-known complication of therapeutic radiation of thoracic tumors (lung, esophageal, breast, mediastinal)
Acute: Occurs 1-6 months post exposure
lymphocytic alveolitis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Fever, Dyspnea not proportional to area radiated
Pleural effusion
Infiltrates in an area of previous irradiation
treatment: steroids

185
Q

Chronic radiation pneumonitis

A

c: occurs if treatment does not take care of the acute
pulmonary fibrosis
Sequelae of the repair process of the damaged cells
Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD) –> ARDS
Severe atypia of hyperplastic type II cells and fibroblasts
Epithelial cell atypia and foam cells in vessel walls

186
Q

Sarcoidosis

A

efinition
multi-system granulomatous disease of unknown etiology that can involve several organs and tissues
Lung involvement or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy in 90% of cases
Diagnosis of exclusion
non-caseating granulomas in various tissues from no identifiable cause
only TB leads to caseating granulomas

187
Q

Who gets sarcoidosis

A

Most common in patients < 40
US: common in the south
10x more likely in African Americans, rare in Chinese and Southeast Asians
More common in females

188
Q

Pathogenesis sarcoidosis

A

Accumulation of oligoclonal activated CD4+ T cells (5-15:1 CD4 to CD8)
Increased TH1 cytokine production (IL2, IFN-γ) causing T cell expansion and macrophage activation
Increased TNF, IL-8, and macrophage inflammatory protein 1α –> granuloma formation
Bronchoalveolar TNF level is a marker for disease activity
Cutaneous anergy to common skin test antigens (tuberculin, candida)
Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia

189
Q

Genetic factors sarcoidosis

A

HLA-A1, HLA-BB (class I)

190
Q

Morphology sarcoidosis

A

well-formed, non-necrotizing granulomas with tightly clustered epithelioid macrophages and giant cells
Granulomas may become enclosed within fibrous rims or may eventually be replaced by hyaline fibrous scars
Can coalesce and make small, non-cavitated, noncaseating nodules, located mostly along the lymphatics around bronchi and blood vessels
high frequency of granulomas in the bronchial submucosa accounts for the high diagnostic yield of bronchoscopic biopsies
Schaumann bodies: Laminated, calcified proteinaceous concretions
characteristic of granulomatous disease, not pathognomonic
Asteroid bodies: Stellate inclusions within giant cells
characteristic of granulomatous disease, not pathognomonic
The lesions are likely to heal in the lungs and there are often various stages of fibrosis or hyalinization present

191
Q

Lymph nodes sarcoidosis

A

I nvolved in almost all cases, especially the hilar and mediastinal nodes
Enlarged, discrete, and sometimes calcified
Tonsils can be affected too

192
Q

Spleen and liver sarcoidosis

A

S cattered granulomas, especially around the portal triads

193
Q

Bone marrow sarcoidosis

A

Lesions with phalangeal predilection
Small circumscribed areas of bone resorption within the marrow creating a diffuse reticulated pattern with widening of the shafts or new bone on the outer surfaces

194
Q

Skin sarcoidosis

A

Discrete subcutaneous nodules or erythematous scaling plaques

195
Q

URI sarcoidosis

A

Mucus membrane lesions

196
Q

Eye sarcoidosis

A

Iridocyclitis: may lead to corneal opacities, glaucoma, and total loss of vision
Decreased lacrimation from inflammation

197
Q

Mikulicz syndrome

A

Bilateral sarcoidosis of the major salivary glands (parotid, submaxilllary, sublingual)

Sounds like mucus? So therefore saliva

198
Q

Muscle sarcoidosis

A

May be asymptomatic

Myopathy: weakness, aches, tenderness, fatigue

199
Q

Other locations for granulomas in bod (sarcoidosis0

A

Heart, kidney, CNS, endocrine glands (espicially pituitary)

200
Q

Clincial sarcoidosis

A

linically
May be collateral finding, or patient may present with respiratory abnormalities or constitutional signs and symptoms (i.e. fever, fatigue, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats)
Diagnosed via biopsy: non-caseating granulomas
rule out other diagnosis based on cultures and stains – sarcoidosis == diagnosis of exclusion
Unpredictable course
65-70% recover with minimal or no residual manifestations
20% have permanent loss of some lung function or some permanent visual impairment
10-15% some die of cardiac or central nervous system damage; most succumb to progressive pulmonary fibrosis and cor pulmonale

201
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Spectrum of immunologically-mediated interstitial disorders due to inhaled organic antigens
Primarily affect the alveoli – extrinsic alveolar alveolitis

202
Q

Types of hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

F armers lung: actinomycetes spores in hay (thermophilic bacteria)
Pigeon breeders lung: proteins from bird feathers or excreta
Humidifier/AC lung: bacteria in heated H2O reservoir

203
Q

Immune reaction hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Acute phase: proinflammatory chemokines (macrophage nflammatory protein 1a, IL-8)
Increased CD4+ and CD8+ T lymphocytes
Antibodies to causative agent in serum
Complement and immunoglobulins in vessel walls

204
Q

Morphology hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Interstitial pneumonitis and interstitial fibrosis of the bronchioles
Noncaseating granulomas in 2/3 of patients == T-cell mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivity reactions
Early cessation of exposure can prevent progression to serious chronic fibrosis and honeycomb lung
Intra-alveolar infiltrate

205
Q

Clinical hypersensitive pneumonitis

A

Variable clinical presentation
Acutely: recurring fever, dyspnea, cough, leukocytosis 4-6 hours after exposure that may last for days
CXR: micronodular interstitial infiltrates
Pulmonary Function Tests indicate restrictive lung disease (FEV1:FVC ratio is normal)
Progressive exposure: respiratory failure, dyspnea, cyanosis and decrease in total lung capacity and compliance

206
Q

Pulmonary eosinophilia

A

Increased IL-5 levels attract eosinophils
“5Always and 4Ever” except 5 also attracts eosinophils…
Relatively rare

207
Q

Acute eosinophilic pneumonia with respiratory failure

A

Unknown etiology
Rapid onset fever, dyspnea and hypoxemic respiratory failure
CXR: diffuse infiltrates
Broncheolar lavage > 25% eosinophils
Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD) == histologic feature of ARDS
Prompt response to corticosteroids

208
Q

Secondary eosinophilia

A
Induced by
Infection (parasitic, fungal, bacterial)
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Drug allergies
Association with asthma, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis or Churg-Strauss Syndrome (vasculitis, asthma, MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA
209
Q

Idiopathic chronic eosinophilic pneumonia

A

Unknown etiology
diagnosis of exclusion
Focal lung consolidation with extensive lymphocyte and eosinophil infiltration into the walls and the alveolar spaces
Cough, fever, night sweats, dyspnea, weight loss
Steroid responsive

210
Q

Smoking related interstitial disease

A

Ok

211
Q

Desquamative interstitial pneumonia ==DIP (past or present smoker disease)

A

Large, patchy collections of “Smoker’s Macrophages” in alveoli of a current or former smoker

212
Q

DIP morphology

A

Smoker’s Macrophage: lots of cytoplasm with dusty brown pigment and granular iron; lamellar bodies composed of surfactant inside phagocytic vacuoles
Alveolar septa are thickened by a sparse inflammatory infiltrate of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and a few eosinophils
Alveolar septa are lined by plump, cuboidal pneumocytes
If there is any interstitial fibrosis, it is mild
Emphysema is typically present

213
Q

Clincial DIP

A

4-5th decade, no gender preference
Insidious onset of dyspnea + dry cough over weeks to months
Digit clubbing
Pulmonary Function Tests: mild restrictive disease with moderate reduction in diffusing capacity
Excellent response to steroids and smoking cessation

214
Q

Respiratory bronchiolitis associated interstitial lung disease

A

Gradual dyspnea and cough of current smokers in their 4th - 5th decade
Peribronchiolar inflammation and fibrosis

215
Q

Morphology respiratory bronchiolitis associated interstitial lung disease

A

Patchy bronchiolar accumulations of “Smoker’s Macrophages” in 1st and 2nd order respiratory bronchioles
Can also be found in the alveolar ducts
Mild peribronchiolar fibrosis is seen that expands the contiguous alveolar septa
Centrilobular emphysema is common, but not severe
Desquamative interstitial pneumonia is often found in different parts of the same lung

216
Q

Clinical respiratory bronchiolitis associated interstitial UAG disease

A

Insidious onset of dyspnea + dry cough over weeks to months

Smoking cessation = improvement

217
Q

Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

R are disease of young adult smokers
Most cases resolve with smoking cessation – suggests that the lesions are a reactive inflammatory process
Focal collections of Langerhans cells (and eosinophils)
Langerhans Cells – immature resident dendritic cells
Airway destruction and alveolar damage leads to irregular cystic spaces
CXR: cystic and nodular abnormalities
Positive for S100, CD1a, CD207 (langerin), and are negative for CD68
Langerhans cells may acquire a BRAF mutation that can lead to a neoplastic process that requires lung transplant

218
Q

Pulmonary alveolar proteinis (PAP)

A

Rare entity characterized by surfactant accumulation in alveoli and bronchioles
Defects related to GM-CSF or pulmonary macrophage dysfunction
Accumulation of surfactant in intraalveolar and bronchiolar spaces
CXR: bilateral patchy, asymmetric pulmonary o

219
Q

Types of pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A

Autoimmune
Secondary
Hereditary

220
Q

Autoimmune pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A

Autoantibodies against GMCSF cause a functional deficiency, impairing surfactant clearance by macrophages
Primarily occurs in adults
90% of all PAP cases
No familial predisposition

221
Q

Secondary pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A

Uncommon
Associated with many diseases that may impair macrophage maturation or function causing inadequate clearance of surfactant from alveolar spaces
May follow exposure to irritating dusts/chemicals or in immunocompromised patients

222
Q

Hereditary pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A

Occurs in neonates and is rapidly fatal
Mutations of GMCSF production or signaling
Extremely rare

223
Q

Morphology pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A

Morphologically
Alveoli are filled with granular pink precipitate composed of surfactant proteins
Also contain cholesterol clefts
Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) positive – PAP is PAS positive
Consolidation of large areas of the lungs with minimal inflammation
Marked Increased in size and weight of the lungs
Surfactant lamellae in type II pneumocytes are

224
Q

Clincial Pap

A

Cough with abundant sputum containing chunks of gelatinous material – pathognomonic
Signs and symptoms may last years with febrile illness
High risk for development of 2° infection
Progressive dyspnea, cyanosis, and respiratory insufficiency may occur
May also be benign with resolution of lesions
Treatment: whole lung lavage regardless of underlying defect and GMCSF therapy

225
Q

Surfactant dysfunction disorders

A

Ok

226
Q

Surfactant dysfunction disorder mutation

A

Collection of mutations that leads to problems with surfactant

227
Q

ATP binding cassette protein member 3 (ABCA3)

A

Autosomal recessive, presents in 1st months with rapidly progressive respiratory failure leading to death
Sometimes found in older kids and adults that have chronic interstitial lung disease
Small lamellar bodies with electron dense cores are diagnostic
Most commonly mutated surfactant gene

228
Q

Surfactant protein B

A

Autosomal recessive, infant is full term but rapidly develops progressive respiratory distress shortly following birth; death at 3-6 months
Lack of surfactant protein B

229
Q

Surfactant protein c

A

Autosomal dominant with variable penetrance and clinical course
Second most common mutation
Lack of surfactant protein C

230
Q

Morphology surfactant dysfunction disorder mutations

A

Variable amount of intra-alveolar granular material, type II pneumocyte hyperplasia, interstitial fibrosis, and alveolar simplification
Abnormalities in lamellar bodies in type II pneumocytes

231
Q

Diseases of vascular origin

A

Ok

232
Q

Large vessel pulmonary thrombosis

A

Rare

Develop in presence of pulmonary HTN, pulmonary atherosclerosis, and heart failure

233
Q

Pulmonary embolism : who and what

A

Common in bedridden patients or those with predisposing hypercoagulability
occur in 30% of severe burns, trauma, or fracture patients
occur in 10% of patient who die acutely in hospitals
DVT responsible for 95% of cases

234
Q

Pulmonary embolism:pathogenesis

A

Occur in patient predisposed to clotting
Cardiac disease, cancer, prolonged immobilization, hip fracture, hypercoagulability (factor V Leiden), oral contraceptives/pregnancy, obesity, IV lines
Response depends on extent of obstruction, size of occluded vessel, number of emboli, CV status and release of vasoactive factors from platelets at thrombosis site
Leads to respiratory compromise and/or hemodynamic compromise

235
Q

Morphology pulmonary embolism

A

Morphology
If the emboli are small enough to travel to the peripheral vessels, then it can cause hemorrhage if there is still adequate blood flow to the area or infarct if the patient has compromised cardiovascular function
Most of the time the infarcts occur to the lower lobes and there are multiple lesions
The infarcts take on a wedge with the apex pointing towards the hilum where the embolus is lodged
Look for lines of Zahn on autopsy to know if it post-mortem vs. ante-mortem
lines of Zahn present == ante-mortem
Septic infarcts: if there are pathogens in the embolus then it will cause there to be neutrophils present

236
Q

Pulmonary embolism: appearance of the infarct over time

A

pulmonary infarct is classically hemorrhagic and appears red-blue in early stages with the apposed pleural surface covered by a fibrinous exudate – overlying fibrinous pleuritis –> pleural friction rub
The RBCs begin to lyse within 48 hours and leads to infarct to become paler and red-brown as hemosiderin is produced
Eventually there is fibrous replacement that begins at the margins as a gray-white peripheral zone and is eventually converted into a contracted scar

237
Q

Clincial pulmonary embolism : large

A

Large Pulmonary Embolus
Instantaneous death due to electromechanical dissociation: EKG has rhythm but no blood is entering pulmonary circulation so there is no pulse
If the patient lives, then they may appear as though they are having an MI with severe chest pain, dyspnea, and shock

238
Q

Clincial pulmonary embolism: Small

A

S mall-medium Pulmonary Emboli

Can have similar effects as large emboli but are more likely to be clinically silent

239
Q

Clincial pulmonary embolism

A

Present as transient chest pain, hemoptysis, cough, fever
May eventually have fibrinous pleuritis that can produce a friction rub
CXR: there may be a wedge shaped infiltrate 12-36h after the infarct
DVTs are diagnosed by duplex ultrasound
If enough occur and heal to cause contraction, there can be pulmonary HTN and cor pulmonale

240
Q

Prophylactic treatment pulmonary embolism

A

Important prophylactic therapy in patients who have had PE to prevent recurrence
anti-coagulation therapy to prevent future clots; fibrinolytic therapy to break apart current clots
If not possible patient should receive an IVC filter to prevent clots from reaching the lungs

241
Q

Pulmonary HTN

A

Mean pulmonary artery pressure>25mmHg at rest

242
Q

Five WHO classifications pulmonary HTN

A

Five WHO Classifications
pulmonary arterial hypertension – diverse collection of disorders that all primarily impact small pulmonary muscular arteries
pulmonary hypertension secondary to left-heart failure
pulmonary hypertension stemming from lung parenchymal disease or hypoxemia
chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension
pulmonary hypertension of multifactorial basis

243
Q

Cause of pulmonary HTN

A

e due to:
Chronic obstructive or interstitial disease (group 3)
Antecedent congenital or acquired heart disease (group 2)
e.g. mitral stenosis
Recurrent thromboemboli (group 4)
Autoimmune disease (group 1)
e.g. systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
Obstructive sleep apnea (group 3) –> pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale
associated with obesity and hypoxemia
Idiopathic or familial
up to 80% of idiopathic pulmonary HTN has a genetic basis (autosomal dominant

244
Q

Familial pulmonary HTN

A

Bone Morphogenetic Protein Receptor Type 2 (BMPR2): inhibits proliferation, favoring apoptosis
first mutation to be discovered in familial pulmonary HTN
inactivating mutations are found in 75% of familial cases and 25% of sporadic cases
other mutations that converge on the BMPR2 pathway have also been found
Mutations lead to vascular smooth muscle hyperplasia and increased vascular resistance
Environmental influence or maybe 2-hit is needed to cause diseas

245
Q

Secondary pulmonary HTN

A

Endothelial dysfunction leads to
Increased vascular tone
Promotes thrombosis
Increased production of cytokines that promote smooth muscle cell proliferation and/or matrix synthesis

246
Q

Morphology pulmonary HTN

A

Pul monary HTN: Morphology
pulmonary artery atherosclerosis
Medial hypertrophy of pulmonary muscular and elastic arteries, especially the arterioles and small arteries
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Plexiform lesions: Tufts within capillary channels produce a vascular plexus that spans the lumens of dilated, thin-walled, small arteries that may go outside the vessel
Found with 1° pulmonary HTN, HIV (both group 1) and congenital CV anomalies (L2R shunts) (group 2)
Numerous organized thrombi (indicate PE

247
Q

Clinical pulmonary HTN

A

Idiopathic is most common in women 20-40 years old
Evident only with advanced disease
Progresses to severe respiratory insufficiency and decompensated cor pulmonale (+/- superimposed thromboembolism, pneumonia)
Death from decompensated cor pulmonale, often with superimposed thromboembolism and pneumonia, usually ensues within 2-5 years in 80% of patients
Treatment: vasodilation and lung transplantation

248
Q

Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage syndromes

A

use Pulmonary Hemorrhage Syndromes
Goodpasture syndrome: lung and kidney disease, anti-BM antibodies
Wegener’s polyangiitis with granulomatosis == lung and kidney disease, but with PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA
Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
Vasculitis-associated hemorrhage
found in conditions such as hypersensitivity angiitis, Wegener granulomatosis (polyangiitis with granulomatosis), and systemic lupus erythematosus

249
Q

Goodpasture syndrome

A

Autoantibodies against the non-collagenous domain of collagen IV α3 chain (anti-Basement Membrane)
Basement membrane destruction in renal glomeruli and pulmonary alveoli
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis + necrotizing hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis
Teens to late 20s, especially males
Common in active smokers

250
Q

Good pasture risk factors

A

Smoking, dry cleaning, viral infection

HLA-DRB1*1501 and *1502

251
Q

Morphology good pasture

A

Heavy lungs with areas of red-brown consolidation
Lungs with focal alveolar wall necrosis
Intraalveolar hemorrhage + hemosiderin laden macrophages
Later: fibrous thickening of the septae, hypertrophy of type II pneumocytes, and organization of blood in the alveolar spaces
Immunofluorescence shows linear Ig depositions along septal basement membranes – renal throwback

252
Q

Clincial good pasture

A

Hemoptysis with focal pulmonary consolidations on CXR (necrotizing interstitial pneumonitis)
also hematuria from the rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
Most common cause of death: uremia
Treatment: plasmapheresis + immunosuppression therapy should ameliorate lung hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis
will emergently perform plasmapheresis in the middle of the night

253
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis

A
Etiology unknown
disease of children
Intermittent diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
Present with cough + hemoptysis
similar to Goodpasture syndrome but there are no anti-basement membrane antibodies detected in serum 
Treatment: long-term immunosuppression
Favorable response
Long term patients may develop other immune disorders
254
Q

Polyangitis with granulomatosis (Wagner’s)

A

PR3-ANCA/ c-ANCA (pr-thrEE cEE; C is the 3rd letter of the alphabet)
Autoimmune disease
Present with hemoptysis
most often involves the upper respiratory tract and/or lungs
transbronchial lung biopsy might provide the only tissue available for diagnosis
Capillaritis – this is a vasculitis, after all
Scattered, poorly formed granulomas (sarcoidosis has well defined granulomas)
granulomas with variable necrosis

255
Q

Pulmonary infections: local defense compromise

A
Loss or suppression of the cough reflex
Injury to the mucociliary apparatus
Accumulation of secretions
Interference with phagocytosis or bactericidal actions of alveolar macrophages
Pulmonary congestion and edema
256
Q

Pyogenic bacterial infections

A

Incidence increases when defects in innate or humoral immunity are present
May also be due to MyD88 germline mutation
MyD88 == adaptor for several TLRs that are important for activation of NFκB

257
Q

Intracellular microbe infection

A

Defects in cell mediated immunity can lead to this type of infection
Includes mycobacteria, herpes, and pneumocystis jiroveci
pneumocystis jiroveci == low virulence

258
Q

Most common cause of death with pulmonary infections

A

Most common cause of deaths in influenza epidemics == superimposed bacterial pneumonia

259
Q

Community acquired pneumonia

A

Co mmunity Acquired Acute Pneumonia
Lung infection in otherwise healthy individuals acquired from the normal environment
Bacterial or viral
Bacterial Infection
Increased CRP and procalcitonin levels – these are acute phase reactants (IL-6)
Often follows a viral URI
Causes alveoli to be filled with inflammatory exudate causing consolidation of pulmonary tissue
Predisposition: age extremes, chronic disease (CHF, COPD, DM), congenital or acquired immunodeficiency, compromised splenic function (Sickle Cell Anemia or Trait)

260
Q

Strep pneumonia

A

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia; distribution of inflammation is lobar
Diagnosis: examine gram stained sputum
Gram +ve, lancet-shaped diplococci; encapsulated
Endogenous flora in 20% of adults, beware of false-positives
isolation of pneumococci from blood cultures is more specific but less sensitive (on 20-30% of patients have positive blood cultures in the early phase of illness)
Vaccines for those at high risk contain capsular polysaccharides from common serotypes

261
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

A

Most common bacterial cause of acute exacerbation of COPD
Pleomorphic, gram -ve
Encapsulated or unencapsulated
six serotypes of encapsulated: A through F (Type B is the most virulent)
capsular polysaccharide b is incorporated in the widely used vaccine

262
Q

Haemophilus influenza can lead to what

A

Pink eye
Lower respiratory infection and suppurative meningitis in children (vaccine)
Older patients: septicemia, endocarditis, pyelonephritis, cholecystitis, and suppurative arthritis

263
Q

Unencapsulated haemophilus influenza (non typeable)

A

Unencapsulated Haemophilus influenzae (aka non-typeable)
Less virulent
Spread along the surface of the upper respiratory tract
Can lead to:
Otitis media
Sinusitis
Bronchopneumonia
Kids are at more risk if they are premature or have cancer

264
Q

HEMOPHIIUS INFLUENZA PNEUMONIA

A

Can follow a viral URI
Pediatric emergency
High mortality rate
Descending laryngotracheobronchitis can lead to airway obstruction
Small bronchi are plugged with dense, fibrin rich exudates with neutrophils
Lobular, patchy consolidation (may become confluent and involve the entire lung lobe

265
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis pneumonia

A

Bacterial pneumonia commonly in the elderly
second most common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbation
Otitis media in children
associate with COPD and upper respiratory infection

266
Q

Three most common causes of otitis medi

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae: gram +ve, lancet shaped diplococci
Haemophilus Influenzae: gram -ve, pleomorphic
grown on chocolate agar (along with Legionella)
Moraxella Catarrhalis:

Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia
2° bacterial pneumonia in children and healthy adults post-viral respiratory illness
children: following measles
children and adults: following influenza
Several complications: Lung abscess, empyema
IV drug users are at increased risk in association with endocarditis
Often hospital acquired pneumonia (nosocomial)
usually secondary to viral respiratory infections

267
Q

Klebsiella pneumonia

A

Most frequent cause of gram (-) bacterial pneumonia
Affects debilitated patients, chronic alcoholics, and malnourished individuals – especially chronic alcoholics
Three A’s: Alcoholics, Aspiration, Abscesses
*thick, mucoid (blood tinged) sputum – “Currant jelly sputum” – Buzzwords for Boards
Organism produces viscid capsular polysaccharide, difficult to expectorate

268
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia
Common cause of nosocomial infection
Invades blood vessels to spread systemically
Common in cystic fibrosis, burn patients, and patients with neutropenia

269
Q

Legionella pneumonia pneumonia

A

egionella pneumophila pneumonia
Causative agent of Legionnaire’s disease and Pontiac fever
Flourishes in artificial aquatic environments (e.g. HVAC systems)
Spreads through aerosolization or aspiration of contaminated water
Severe pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, especially patients who have had organ transplant (50% fatal) – “seen particularly in organ transplant recipients”
Diagnose: culture (gold standard), antigens in urine, or antibodies in sputum
lobar pattern on CXR, pulse-temperature dissociation
lives in amoebas
“like mycobacterium tuberculosis, this is a facultative intracellular parasite (lives in macrophages and free living amoebas)”
grown on chocolate agar; use a silver stain to detect; urine antigens
urine antigens == legionella, streptococcus pneumoniae
can enter a low-metabolic state and survive in a biofilm

270
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia ==walking pneumonia

A

Sporadic infection or as local epidemics in closed communities such as schools, military camps, or prisons
Common in children and young adults
“walking pneumonia”
“cold agglutinants”
“bullous myringitis” – Bullous myringitisis an infection of the tympanic membrane (the eardrum). Small fluid-filled blisters form on the eardrum and cause severe pain.

271
Q

Morphology lobular bronchopneumonia

A

Patchy exudative consolidation of the lung parenchyma
Focal areas of palpable consolidation that are typically bilateral and basal
Well-developed lesions are slightly elevated, dry, granular, grey-red to yellow, and poorly demarcated at the margins
Acute neutrophilic suppurative exudation filling bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli that eventually resolves
CXR: focal opacities

272
Q

Morphology lobar pneumonia

A

Consolidation of a large portion of a lobe or an entire lobe
CXR: whole lobe is radiopaque
streptococcus pneumoniae == most common cause of community-acquired acute pneumonia and the pattern of inflammation is lobar
Four Stages of Inflammation
Congestion: heavy, boggy, red lung; vascular engorgement, alveolar fluid with few neutrophils and lots of bacteria
Red hepatization: massive neutrophilic exudation with RBCs and fibrin that fill the alveolar spaces
red, firm, and airless with a liver like consistency
Grey hepatization: progressive disintegration of red cells and persistence of fibrinosuppurative exudate that leads to a grey-brown color
sequelae of red hepatization
Resolution: progressive enzymatic digestion of exudates –> granular, semifluid debris that is resorbed, ingested by macrophages, expectorated, or organized by fibroblast growing into it. May even extend to the surface as pleuritic

273
Q

Pneumonia complciations

A
Abscess formation (especially from Type 3 pneumococci or klebsiella)
due to tissue destruction and necrosis
Empyema: intrapleural fibrosuppurative reaction
infection spreads into pleural cavity causing fibrinosuppurative reaction
Bacteremic dissemination to heart valves, pericardium, brain, kidneys, spleen, etc. --> endocarditis, meningitis, suppurative arthritis, etc
274
Q

Community acquired bacterial pneumonia clincial

A

Abrupt onset of high fever, shaking chills (rigors), productive cough, and occasional hemoptysis
Pleural involvement: pleuritic chest pain + friction rub
treatment: antibiotics change course of disease within 48-72 hours

275
Q

Community acquired viral pneumonia

A

Alveoli fluid transudation
Upper airways loss of normal mucociliary clearance can predispose to 2° infection
interstitial infiltrates

276
Q

Morphology community acquired viral pneumonia

A

Patchy or lobar areas of congestion without consolidation (atypical)
Interstitial pneumonitis occurs with widened, edematous alveolar walls and mononuclear inflammation
Hyaline membranes = diffuse alveolar damage
Cytopathic changes may occur, including cell death and secondary inflammation

277
Q

Influenza virus

A

Single stranded RNA virus with 8 strands bound by a nucleoprotein that determines the virus type (A, B or C)
Hemagglutinin (H1-3) attach virus to target cells via sialic acid residues on surface polysaccharides
antibodies against hemagglutinin prevent infection
“glue attaches things”
Neuraminidase (N1-2) facilitate release of newly formed virions that are budding from infected cells by cleaving sialic acid residues
antibodies against neuraminidase ameliorate infection (Tamiflu)
“is the other one”
Type A infects humans, pigs, horses, and birds and are the major cause of pandemics and epidemics
Type B and C do not mutate, so childhood infection conveys life-long antibody protection

278
Q

Influenza epidemic

A

due to mutation in hemagluttinin and neuraminidase proteins (antigenic drift constant because viral RNA polymerase lacks proofreading capability) that create new viral strains which elude antibodies produced to prior exposure to other strains
New strains bear some resemblance to prior strains and there is often some resistance to infection in some patients

279
Q

Influenza pandemic

A

Hemagluttinin and neuraminidase genes are replaced due to recombination of influenza virus with animal influenza viruses (antigenic shift)
All individuals are susceptible to the new virus as it is a completely new viral strain

280
Q

Pathogenesis influenza virus

A

Hemagluttinin and neuraminidase genes are replaced due to recombination of influenza virus with animal influenza viruses (antigenic shift)
All individuals are susceptible to the new virus as it is a completely new viral strain
Pathogenesis
Enters pneumocytes, inhibits Na+ channels which leads to electrolyte and water in the alveolar lumen
Death of infected cells via mRNA translation + apoptosis which exacerbates fluid accumulation
Releases “danger signals” activating resident macrophage
Induces release of inflammatory mediators
Nearby pulmonary endothelium is activated allowing neutrophil extravasation into the interstitium
May cause ARDS or lead to 2° bacterial pneumonia
Staphylococcus aureus superimposed on top of influenza infection can cause life-threatening 2° pneumonias

281
Q

H5N1

A

high mortality rate – the virus is deadly
transmission is inefficient – fear is that it will recombine with a highly virulent strain (H1N1, swine flu)
Spread through wild and domestic birds – Avian Flu
Is spread throughout the body, not confined to the lung – systemic
Tropism of the hemagluttinin protein is due to ability to be cleaved by diverse proteases, where most are only cleaved in the lung

282
Q

Human metapneumovirus

A

Paramyxovirus
Associated with upper and lower respiratory infections
Causes bronchiolitis and pneumonia in the young, old, and immunocompromised
clinically indistinguishable from those caused by human respiratory syncytial virus
RSV == #1, MPV == #2 – clinically, they look exactly the same
occurs in early childhood and reinfection is common throughout life
treatment for immunocompromised patients with ribavirin (anti-viral agent)
no current vaccine

283
Q

Severe acute respiratory syndrome

A

Coronavirus that infects the lower respiratory tree and spreads systemically
Appeared suddenly in 2002 in China and has not been seen since 2004
Transmitted through respiratory secretions
Dry cough, malaise, myalgia, and fever
1/3 recover, remainder progress to severe respiratory disease, 10% die
Fatal cases have diffuse alveolar damage + multinucleated giant cells

284
Q

Viral infection: morphology

A

URI with mucosal hyperemia, swelling, lymphomonocytic and plasmacytic infiltration of submucosa, mucus overproduction which may plug sinuses or Eustachian tubes leading to suppurative 2° bacterial infection
Viral tonsillitis is common in kids resulting in hyperplasia within the Waldeyer ring
Lung involvement: red-blue areas with congestion
Interstitial inflammatory reaction involving walls of the alveoli causing wide alveolar septa
If complicated by ARDS, pink hyaline membranes line alveolar walls

285
Q

Viral laryngotracheobronchitis and bronchiolitis

A

Vocal cord swelling and abundant mucus production
Bronchocilliary impairment invites 2° infection
Focal lung atelectasis due to plugging of small airways (obstruction –> resorption atelectasis)
Fibrosis may result if presence of exudates in terminal airways is prolonged and can lead to obliterative bronchiolitis and permanent lung damage
superimposed bacterial infection may cause ulcerative bronchitis and bacterial pneumonia

286
Q

Clincial influenza infection

A

Lung infection can be patchy or extensive
involved areas are red-blue and congested
interstitial inflammatory reaction involving the alveolar wall tissue with edema + lymphocytes and macrophage
Disease extent depends on host immune status, virulence of infecting strain and presence/absence of other complicating factors
Variable progression with headache, fever, muscle aches/pains in legs
Few localizing signs and symptoms, and may masquerade as URI or chest colds
Edema and exudation cause V/Q mismatch causing signs and symptoms out of proportion to scant physical findings
Usually mild and resolve spontaneously

287
Q

Heath care associated pneumonia risk factors

A

Recent hospitalization of 2+ days
Presentation from a nursing home/long term facility
Attending hospital/hemodialysis clinic
Recent IV antibiotic therapy, chemotherapy or wound care
More commonly infected with methicillin resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) and Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Increased mortality vs. community acquired pneumonia

288
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Pulmonary infection acquired in the course of a hospital stay
Increased risk with underlying disease, immunosuppression, prolonged antibiotic therapy, invasive access devices
Very increased risk if patient is on mechanical ventilation (Gram -ve bacilli)
Most commonly caused by:
Gram +ve cocci: Staphylococcus Aureus and Streptococcus Pneumonia
Gram -ve rods: Enterobacteriaceae and Pseudomonas
Gram -ve bacilli: ventilator associated pneumonia

289
Q

Aspiration pneumonia

A
Occurs in markedly debilitated patients with abnormal gag and swallowing reflexes
Pneumonia is chemical + bacterial
Aerobes > anaerobes
Fulminant necrotizing pneumonia
Frequent cause of death
Complication in survivors: lung abscess
Klebsiella
290
Q

Micro aspiration

A

Occurs in almost all people, especially in patients with GERD
Results in inconsequential poorly formed non-necrotizing granulomas
Multinucleated foreign body cell reaction
May exacerbate preexisting lung diseases like asthma, interstitial fibrosis, and lung rejection

291
Q

Lung (pulmonary) abscess

A

Local suppurative necrosis of lung tissue

Air fluid levels are very characteristic

292
Q

Lung abscess common pathogens

A

Streptococci, Staphylococcus Aureus, many gram -ve organisms
Commonly mixed infection due to aspiration which means many anaerobic oral cavity organisms (Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Peptococcus *60%)

293
Q

Other causes lung abscess

A

Antecedent primary lung infection from things like Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and type 3 pneumococcus
Septic embolism
Neoplasia obstructing the bronchopulmonary segment
Bacteria spreading from somewhere else in the bod

294
Q

Location of abscess based on cause

A

Aspiration based ones are more common on the right and single
Pneumonia based abscesses are typically located basally and are found in multiple diffusely scattered
Septic based abscesses are multiple and can involve any region of the lung

295
Q

Morphology lung abscess

A

Single or multiple
Microscopic to large cavities
Histology: suppurative destruction of the lung parenchyma within the central area of cavitation
Pus or air depending on available drainage
Chronically may be surrounded by a reactive fibrous wall surrounding large, poorly demarcated, fetid, green-black gangrene

296
Q

Superimposed saprophytic infections are prone to develop within the necrotic debris

A

Ok

297
Q

Clinical pulmonary abscess

A

Presents as cough, fever, chest pain, weight loss, and copious amounts of foul smelling purulent or sanguineous sputum
bronchiectasis and lung abscess == foul smelling sputum
Clubbing of the fingers can develop in a few weeks
Can be complicated by extension into pleural cavity, hemorrhage, septic embolization, 2° amyloidosis
Confirm with CXR
treatment: antimicrobials resolve most cases with a scar

298
Q

Primary cryptogenic lung abscess

A

When there is no discernible basis for the abscess formation

299
Q

Chronic pneumonia

A

Localized inflammation in immunocompetent patients without regional lymph node involvement
Asymptomatic
Limited granulomatous disease
In immunocompromised patients the infection can become disseminated
Fulminant, widespread disease

300
Q

Histoplasmosis capsulatum

A

Intracellular pathogen of phagocytes, endemic to Ohio and Mississippi river valleys (midwest)
Acquired via inhalation of dust with bird/bat excreta (caves)
bird can also –> hypersensitive pneumonitis
Mainly only infects immunocompromised patients
macrophages are the major target of infection

301
Q

Types of infection progression (similar to Tb) in histoplasmosis capsulatum

A

Self-limited, latent, 1° pulmonary involvement which may result in coin lesions on CXR
Chronic, progressive, 2° lung disease localized to the lung apices causing cough, fever, and night sweats
Spread to extrapulmonary sites (e.g. mediastinum, adrenals, liver, meninges)
widely disseminated disease in immunocompromised patients

302
Q

Morphology histoplasma capsulatum

A

Produces granulomas with caseating, coagulative necrosis which undergo fibrosis and concentric calcification (tree-bark appearance) – can eventually lead to bronchiectasis?
Silver stain identifies 3-5 micron cysts of the fungus that can persist for years (and differentiates this fungus from tuberculosis)
Fulminant disseminated histoplasmosis: Immunocompromised patients. Focal accumulations of mononuclear phagocytes filled with fungal yeasts throughout the body, NO granulomas
for fungal infections, stain with silver or PAS
3-5 micrometer pear shaped intracellular yeast

303
Q

Clinical histoplasma capsulatum

A

Look for the antigens in the tissues in the beginning and then antibodies after 2-6 weeks
coin lesion differential: histoplasma, hamartoma, adenocarcinoma

304
Q

Blastomyces dermatiditis

A

Soil dwelling, dimorphic fungus that occurs in central and southeast USA (Florida)
also Canada, Mexico, Middle East, Africa, and India

305
Q

Different forms of blastomyces dermatiditis

A

Pulmonary, disseminated or primary cutaneous (rare)

306
Q

Clincial presentation of pulmonary blastomycosis

A

Usually upper lobe involvement with abrupt productive cough, head ache, chest pain, weight loss, fever, abdominal pain, night sweats, chills, and anorexia
CXR: lobar consolidation, multi-lobar infiltrates, perihilar infiltrates, multiple nodules, miliary infiltrates
Upper lobes are most commonly involved
Typically resolves spontaneously

307
Q

Morphology blastomyces dermatiditis

A

(BBBB) Blastomycosis: broad based budding
Immunocompetent host: suppurative granulomas with persistence of yeast cells due to limited macrophage capabilities to kill this fungus
5- 15 micron yeast cells that divide by broad based budding
Thick double-contoured cell wall with visible nuclei
Involvement of the skin and larynx is associated with marked epithelial hyperplasia, can be mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma
5-15 micrometers yeast with broad based budding

308
Q

Coccidioidomycosis

A
outhwest USA, Mexico deserts (Arizona)
everyone who inhales the spores of Coccidioides immitis becomes infected and develops a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to the fungus
Inhaled spores (arthroconidia) block fusion of the phagosome and lysosome in the macrophage and resist intracellular killing

Inhaled spores (arthroconidia) block fusion of the phagosome and lysosome in the macrophage and resist intracellular killing

309
Q

Clincal coccidiodomycosis

A

Most cases are asymptomatic
San Joaquin Valley Fever complex: 10% of infected people develop lung lesions, fever, cough, pleuritic pains, erythema nodosum, and erythema multiforme
less than 1% of people develop disseminated Coccidioides immitis infection which involves the skin and meninges (Filipinos and African-Americans are at increased risk of disseminated disease

310
Q

Morphology coccidioidomycosis

A

Within macrophages, the fungus is seen as thick-walled, nonbudding spherules 20-60 microns and filled with endospores
Spherule rupture, releasing endospores causes a superimposed pyogenic reaction and may recruit neutrophils
Lesions can be granulomatous or pyogenic or mixed, with the disseminated type favoring more of the pyogenic type
20-60 micrometer nonbudding spherules

311
Q

Pneumonia int he immunocompromised host

A

Opportunistic infections rarely affect normal hosts, but in this setting can cause life-threatening pneumonia
appearance of a pulmonary infiltrate, with or without signs of infection (e.g. fever), is serious in patients whose immune system is suppressed by disease, immunosuppressive therapy for transplant, chemotherapy, or irradiation
Often multiple organisms are involved
Bacteria: Pseudomonas, Legionella, Listeria, mycobacteria
Viruses: CMV, herpes
Fungi: Pneumocystis jiroveci (AIDS defining), Candida, Aspergillus, phycomycetes, Cryptococcus neoformans

312
Q

Pulmonary disease in HIV

A

Serious issues can be caused by the “normal” lower respiratory infection pathogens (Streptococcus pneumonia, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenza, gram -ve rods)
the usual pathogens are among the more serious
bacterial pneumonias in HIV patients are more common, more severe, and more often associated with bacteremia than in those without HIV infection
Pulmonary disease may be due to multiple causes and signs and symptoms can be atypical
Base on the Stage of Disease (HIV/AIDS)
CD4+ > 200 = bacterial and tubercular infection
CD4+ 50-200 = Pneumocystis – AIDS defining illness
CD4+ < 50 = CMV, fungal and Mycobacterium avium

313
Q

Indications for lung transplant

A

Emphysema (pink puffer)
[chronic bronchitis == blue bloater] – not candidate for lung transplant
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis == end stage lung, honeycomb lung
Cystic Fibrosis
1° pulmonary HTN

314
Q

Single or double lung transplant

A

Usually single

315
Q

Infections lung transplant

A

Early are bacterial
ganciclovir prophylaxis and matching of donor-recipient CMV status == reduced frequency and severity of CMV pneumonia (because everyone has CMV but nobody is sick with CMV)
Most common 3-12 months post-operative
Acute rejection: all patients to varying degrees despite immunosuppression
If fungal: due to aspergillus and candida

316
Q

Lung transplant rejection: acute

A

inflammatory infiltrates around small vessels or in the submucosa of airways
Several weeks to months after surgery, but may also present years later
Fever, dyspnea, cough, radiologic infiltrates
Looks like infection, so need biopsy to rule out pathogens
Inflammatory infiltrates

317
Q

Lung transplant chronic rejection

A

Happens to at least 50% of patients after 3-5 years
Cough, dyspnea, and irreversible decrease in lung function due to pulmonary fibrosis
Bronchiolitis obliterans partial or complete occlusion of small airways by fibrosis +/- inflammation; patchy; difficult to treat

318
Q

Tumors of th lung

A

90-95% carcinoma
5% bronchial carcinoid
2-5% mesenchymal and other miscellaneous

319
Q

Lung cancer facts

A

Most frequently diagnosed major cancer in the world
Most common cause of cancer mortality worldwide
Mostly due to tobacco smoke
Commonly occurs between 40-70 years old

320
Q

Types of lung cancer

A

Small cell – TB, TP53, and MYC
Non-small cell
Squamous cell – RB, TP53, p40, hypercalcemia, keratin pearls and intercellular bridges
Adenocarcinomas – EGFR, ALK, ROS, MET, RET, KRAS

321
Q

Tobacco and lung cancer

A

Females have Increased susceptibility to the associated carcinogens
Risk of lung cancer is proportional to the amount and duration of smoking
Cessation decreases risk after 10 years, but not to baseline
Individuals with P450 polymorphisms have a greater risk of lung cancer due to activation of pro-carcinogens
Increased chromosome breakage sensitivity in peripheral blood lymphocytes = 10x risk

322
Q

Industrial hazard lung cancer

A

Asbestos (10-30 year latency, 5x risk, if smoker 55x)
Arsenic
Chromium
Uranium (exposed miners 4x risk, if smoker then 10x risk)
Nickel
Vinyl chloride – hepatic adenocarcinoma
Mustard gas
Ionizing radiation (Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Chernobyl

323
Q

Air pollution lung cancer

A

Add to risk of lung cancer in those who smoke via inflammation and repair

324
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Loss of tumor suppressor genes due to tobacco smoke exposure
Loss of CDKN2A (3p, 9p) = loss of p16 (RB)
Loss of TP53 (17p) *highest frequency of TP53 mutations of all histologic types of lung carcinoma
highly associated with exposure to tobacco smoke and harbors diverse genetic aberrations, many of which are chromosomal deletions involving tumor suppressor loci (two hits needed)
Loss of RB
Amplification of FGFR1
More common in the central/hilar region of the lung
squamous cell carcinoma is more common (20%) than small cell carcinoma (14%)
keratin pearls and intercellular bridges

325
Q

Small cell carcinoma

A
Strongest association with smoking
TP53 loss of function (75-90%)
RB mutations are most likely (~100%) in small cell carcinomas
Chromosome 3p deletion
MYC amplification
Aggressive, high mortality
326
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Gain-of-function of GF receptor signaling pathways
Tyrosine kinases: EGFR, ALK, ROS, MET, RET, KRAS
KRAS mutations are the worst
More common in the peripheral lung
Precursor lesions
Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia (≤ 5mm)
Adenocarcinoma in situ < 3 cm; mucinous, atypical cells

327
Q

Lung cancer in never smokers

A

More common in women
Most are adenocarcinomas
More likely to have EGFR mutation, and almost never have KRAS mutations
TP53 is less common than in those who smoke

328
Q

Precursor lesion lung cancer

A

Squamous dysplasia and CIS
Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
Adenocarcinoma in situ
Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia

329
Q

Tumor classification

A

Via the predominant histologic appearance, though multiple histologies can be present in one tumor
clinical significance is still undetermined
four major histologic subtypes
Adenocarcinoma (38%)
Squamous cell carcinoma (20%)
Small cell carcinoma (14%)
treat with chemotherapy because almost all are metastatic at presentation
Large cell carcinoma (3%)
Other (25%)

330
Q

Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia

A

Single or multiple, small lesion characterized by dysplastic pneumocytes lining alveolar walls that are mildly fibrotic
In the lung adjacent to invasive tissue or away from it

331
Q

Adenocarcinoma in situ

A

Single (favorable) or multiple in the terminal bronchioloalveolar regions
Composed entirely of dysplastic cells growing along preexisting alveolar septae
lepidic?
Excessive dysplasia (more than atypical adenomatous hyperplasia)
Tall, columnar
+/- intracellular mucin (mucinous vs. nonmucinous)
No gender specificity, no association with smoking
Dismal prognosis if diffuse
tumors 3 cm or less in diameter characterized by pure growth along pre-existing structures (lepidic pattern) without stromal invasion
lepidic == rind, skin, or membrane
epithelium are normal, lining cells are abnormal

332
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Most common lung cancer in the absence of smoking
Common in the peripheral lung
Malignant epithelial tumor with glandular differentiation or mucin production
Grow in various patterns
majority express thyroid transcription factor 1 (TTF-1)
Lepidic pattern of spread as tumor cells crawl along pre-existing alveolar septa without stromal invasion
Associated with TTF1 and napsin A
Grow more slowly, but metastasize earlier vs. squamous cell carcinoma

333
Q

Micro-invasive adenocarcinoma

A

Tumors ≤ 3cm with a small invasive component (≤ 5mm)
Associated with scarring and peripheral lepidic growth pattern
Better outcome vs. invasive carcinoma of comparable size

334
Q

Mucinous adenocarcinoma

A

S olitary or multiple nodules
Potentially consolidate an entire lobe with tumor cells resembling lobar pneumonia
less likely to be cured with surgery
Spread aerogenously forming satellite tumors

335
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Commonly in men, strongly associated with smoking
most common lung cancer associated with smoking
because this is more likely than squamous cell cancer (20% vs 14%… not how stats work but OK)
Antedated squamous metaplasia/dysplasia in the bronchial epithelium that transforms to CIS
CIS is cytologically identifiable by sputum or lavage, but undetected on CXR and is asymptomatic
Can grow to obstruct the bronchus causing distal atelectasis and infection
May penetrate the wall of the bronchus and infiltrate peribronchial tissue

336
Q

Histology squamous cell carcinoma

A

‘Cauliflower’ mass
Grey/white, firm neoplastic tissue
If there is hemorrhage or necrosis, they appear as red-yellow mottling and can cavitate
Keratinization (squamous pearls) or intercellular bridges
There is more that is seen in well differentiated tumors and is only focally present in undifferentiated tumors
Increased mitotic activity in poorly differentiated tumors
Closest correlation with smoking
Commonly in the central/hilar region
Associated with p53 and p40 markers
Late metastases
Surrounding tissue is typically dysplastic
Paraneoplastic Syndromes == hypercalcemia

337
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome squamous cell carcinoma

A

Hypercalcemia

338
Q

Small cell carcinoma

A

Highly malignant, metastasizing widely (high grade), almost always fatal
Strongest lung cancer association with smoking
Arises in the major bronchi or in the periphery of the lung – central
There is no known pre-invasive phase
Small cells with scant cytoplasm, ill-defined borders, finely granular nuclear chromatin (salt & pepper) + lack of nucleoli
Nuclear molding is prominent
High mitotic count
Don’t show glandular or squamous organization
Necrosis is common and often extensive
Azzopardi effect: Basophilic staining of vascular walls due to encrustation by DNA from necrotic tumor cells

Cells may originate from neuroendocrine progenitor cells with dense-core neurosecretory granules
Expression of chromogranin, synaptophysin, CD57, hormonal secretion (paraneoplastic)
Lung cancer most commonly associated with ectopic hormone production
BLC2 found on immunohistochemistry
Paraneoplastic Syndromes == SIADH and Cushing (ectopic cortisol)

339
Q

Combined small cell carcinoma

A

Small cell carcinoma is mixed with non small cell histologies

May resemble sarcoma

340
Q

Large cell carcinoma

A

Undifferentiated malignant epithelial tumor lacking cytologic features of other lung cancers
Diagnosis of exclusion
Variant may express neuroendocrine components, but tumor cell size is much larger than small cell carcinoma
Prominent nucleoli

341
Q

Carcinoma spread

A

May extend onto the pleural surface, spread within the pleural cavity or into the pericardium
Most cases (> 50%) metastasize to the bronchial, tracheal and mediastinal lymph nodes
Lymphatic and hematogenous spread occurs
Metastasize early except squamous cell carcinoma
Metastasis may be the first manifestation
50% of metastatic cases involve the adrenals
Other common sites include liver, brain and bone

342
Q

Combined carcinoma

A

Combined carcinoma
Where there are more than 1 type of tumor cell present in the mass
happens in approximately 10% of all lung carcinomas

343
Q

Complications of carcinoma

A

partial obstruction –> focal emphysema
total obstruction –> Atelectasis (resorption kind)
impaired drainage –> Suppurative or ulcerative bronchitis or bronchiectasis
Pulmonary abscesses
Superior vena cava syndrome
Pericarditis
Pleuritis
Invasion of neural structures near trachea → Horner syndrome *Pancoast tumors
Partial Ptosis
Anhidrosis
Miosis (increase in sympathetics, constricted pupil

344
Q

Lung cancer clinical course

A

Cough, weight loss, chest pain, dyspnea
Poor prognosis, especially with metastasis (common to adrenals, brain, liver and bone)
adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma tend to remain localized longer and have a slightly better prognosis than do the undifferentiated cancers, which are usually advanced by the time they are discovered
small cell cancer (oat cell cancer) is virtually always fatal
5 year survival
52% if disease is localized at presentation
22% with regional metastases
4% with distant metastases
Survival is prolonged if targeting adenocarcinoma that have the EGFR mutation – just like breast cancer
Survival is reduced if there is a KRAS mutation (worse prognosis)
Small cell carcinoma: sensitive to radiation and chemotherapy if localized, but most patients present with metastases
Pathoma: “so small the surgeon can’t see it”

345
Q

Lung cancer and paraneoplastic syndromes : small cell carcinoma

A

Small Cell Carcinoma
SIADH: hyponatremia due to inappropriate/excess ADH secretion
Cushing Syndrome: ACTH

346
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes with squamous cell arcinoma

A

Hypercalcemia: parathormone, parathyroid hormone-related peptide, PGE2, cytokines
Hypocalcemia: calcitonin
Gynecomastia: gonadotropins
Carcinoid syndrome: 5HT, bradykinin, MEN1

347
Q

Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

Muscle weakness due to auto-antibodies directed against the neuronal Ca++ channel
better with activity
myasthenia gravis == fatigable ptosis (better with rest)
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (associated with clubbing of the fingers)
Acanthosis nigricans
Peripheral neuropathy (sensory)
Leukemoid reaction
Hypercoagulable states (Trousseau

348
Q

Pancoast tumors

A

Apical Lung Cancer arising from the superior pulmonary sulcus tend to invade neural structures near trachea (cervical sympathetic plexus)
Horner Syndrome: ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis – “PAM is horny”
Ipsilateral severe pain in ulnar nerve distribution

349
Q

Neuroendocrine proliferation’s and tumors

A

Ok

350
Q

Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia

A

Precursor to the development of tumorlets and typical or atypical carcinoids
tumorlet == small, inconsequential (benign), hyperplastic nest of neuroendocrine cells seen in areas of scarring or chronic inflammation
carcinoids may occur in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1
Rare disorder

351
Q

Carcinoid tumors

A

Typical or atypical, low-grade malignant epithelial neoplasms
Epidemiology
< 40 years, no gender specificity
20-40% are nonsmokers

352
Q

Morphology carcinoid tumors

A

May arise centrally or peripherally
Central may protrude into bronchial lumen and are covered by an intact mucosa
Peripheral are solid and nodular
Organoid, trabecular, palisading, ribbon, or rosette-like arrangements of cells separated by a delicate fibrovascular stroma
Cells are regular and have a uniform round nuclei and a moderate amount of eosinophilic cytoplasm
Most are confined to mainstem bronchi
May penetrate bronchial wall, fanning out ‘collar button lesion’

353
Q

Clincial carcinoid tumros

A

Coughing, hemoptysis, impaired drainage, bronchiectasis, emphysema, and atelectasis can all happen secondarily to the growing lesion
Carcinoid syndrome: intermittent attacks of diarrhea, flushing, and cyanosis occurring in 10% of patients
due to tumor secretion of vasoactive amines (5HT)
5 year, 95% survival for typical
5 year, 70% survival for atypical

354
Q

Typica carcinoid tumor

A

Fewer than 2 mitosis/10 high powered fields

355
Q

Atypical carcinoid tumor

A
Increased pleomorphism
Prominent nuclei
Increased mitotic activity
Increased risk of lymphatic invasion
2-10 mitoses/10 high-powered fields and/or foci of necrosis
356
Q

Lung hamartoma

A

Radio-opacity ‘coin lesion’ on routine CXR
coin lesions on CXR == histoplasma, lung hamartoma, adenocarcinoma
Well circumscribed, solitary – low-grade, benign?
Nodules of connective tissue (cartilage, fibrous, fat) intersected by epithelial clefts
Can be cancerous if associated with chromosome problems with 6 or 12

357
Q

Lymphangioleiomyomatosis

A

Young women of childbearing age present with dyspnea or spontaneous pneumothorax
Proliferation of perivascular epithelioid cells with markers of melanocytes and smooth muscle cells
Cystic, emphysema like expansion of terminal airspaces, thickening interstitium and obstruction of lymphatic vessels
lesional epithelioid cells appear to frequently harbor loss of function mutations in the tumor suppressor TSC2, one of the loci linked to tuberous sclerosis
tuberin == negative regulator of mTOR (mutation leads to increased mTOR activity)
mTOR plays a function in regulating metabolism
Slow progression over several decades
Definitive treatment: lung transplantation

358
Q

Inflammatory myofibroblasts tumor

A

Children, no gender preference
Fever, cough, chest pain, hemoptysis
Grey/white, round, well defined single peripheral mass, with calcium deposits
Proliferation of fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, lymphocytes, plasma cells
Peripheral fibrosis
Some have ALK mutation
Treatment with ALK inhibitors have produced response

359
Q

Most common site of metastatic neoplas: lung

A

multiple discrete nodules (cannonball lesions) are scattered throughout all lobes, more being at the periphery

360
Q

Pleura

A

Ok

361
Q

Pleural effusion

A

Normally 15 ml of serous, acellular, clear fluid lubricates the pleural surface
May occur due to
Increased hydrostatic pressure (CHF)
Increased vascular permeability (pneumonia)
Increased negative intrapleural pressure (atelectasis)
Decreased oncotic pressure (nephrotic syndrome)
Decreased lymphatic drainage (carcinomatosis

362
Q

Inflammatory pleural effusion

A

Associated with underlying pulmonary inflammation
tuberculosis, pneumonia, infarct, abscess, systemic disease
Fluid exudate is resorbed with resolution or organization of fibrinous components
Respiratory distress may occur due to fluid accumulation compressing the lung

363
Q

Suppurative pleuritis (empyema)

A

Reflects pleural space infection causing accumulation of pus (yellow, creamy

364
Q

Cause of suppurative pleuritis (empyema)

A

Likely due to bacterial or mycotic seeding via spread from intrapulmonary infection
Less frequently due to lymphatic or hematogenous spread from a distant source
Rarely due to infection below the diaphragm (liver abscess), more common on the right side

365
Q

Morphology suppurative pleuritis

A

Loculated, yellow-green, creamy pus with neutrophils and other leukocytes
chylothorax == milky white
Small, localized volume
Commonly, organizes into dense, tough fibrous adhesions that obliterate the pleural space or envelop the lungs, significantly restricting pulmonary expansion

366
Q

Hemorrhagic pleuritis

A

Sanguineous inflammatory exudates due to bleeding disorders, neoplasm, or rickettsial disease
Look for exfoliated tumor cells
Must differentiate from hemothorax

367
Q

Hydrothorax

A

Noninflammatory pleural effusion within the pleural cavity
Clear, straw-colored fluid
unilateral or bilateral
most common cause is cardiac failure, and thus it is often accompanied by pulmonary congestion and edema
Usually due to heart failure, but also in renal failure and liver cirrhosis

368
Q

Hemothorax

A

Noninflammatory pleural effusion
Blood in the pleural cavity
Fatal complication of ruptured aortic aneurysm or vascular trauma
May occur post-operatively

369
Q

Chylothorax

A

Noninflammatory pleural effusion
Accumulation of milky fluid (often of lymphatic origin)
pus is creamy and yellow
Milky white due to emulsified fats
due to thoracic duct trauma or obstruction causing secondary rupture of major lymphatic ducts, usually malignancies

370
Q

Spontaneous idiopathic pneumothorax

A

Young patients
Rupture of small, peripheral, usually apical sub-pleural blebs
Subsides as air is resorbed
Recurrent attacks may occur and are disabling

371
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

Defect between airways and pleura act as a one way valve
Air enters during inspiration but is not released during expiration
Progressively increasing pleural pressure compresses the contralateral lung and mediastinal structures (possibly fatal)
trachea deviates away from the side of the tension pneumothorax

372
Q

Pleural tumors

A

Usually metastatic tumors from the lung and breast
Leads to serous or serous-sanguineous effusion that contains neoplastic cells
careful cytologic examination of the sediment is of considerable diagnostic value

373
Q

Solitary fibrous tumor

A

Noninvasive, solitary fibrous tumor
Attached to pleural surface via a pedicle – pedunculated?
Small or large

374
Q

Morphology solitary fibrous tumours

A

Solitary fibrous tumor with dense fibrous tissue with occasional cysts filled with viscous fluid
Whorls of reticulin and collagen fibers with interspersed spindle cells resembling fibroblasts
CD34 +ve and Keratin -ve
malignant mesotheliomas show the opposite phenotype
Inversion of chromosome 12 (NAB2 -STAT6 rearrangement)
NAB2-STAT6 –> fusion gene virtually unique to solitary fibrous tumor
hypothesized to be a key driver of tumor development
No relation to asbestos exposure
Resection is curative

375
Q

Malignant mesothelioma ==cytokeratin +ve

A

Uncommon tumor of mesothelioma cells int he visceral or parietal pleura

376
Q

Epidemiology malignant mesothelioma

A

90% of cases are related to asbestos exposure
25-45 year latency
Smoking has no impact (< risk than lung carcinoma)
Asbestos bodies and plaques may be seen

377
Q

Mutations malignant mesothelioma

A

Chromosome 9: CDKN2A/INK4A deletion (tumor suppressor)

Chromosome p16 deletion

378
Q

Morphology malignant mesothelioma

A
Tumor is spread diffusely over the lung surface and fissures to form an encasing soft, gelatinous, gray-pink tumor sheathe
Three Patterns
Epithelioid (60%)
Sarcomatoid (20%)
Biphasic/mixed (20%)
379
Q

Epithelial malignant mesothelioma

A

Epithelium like cells form tubules and papillary projections resembling adenocarcinomas with cuboidal, columnar, or flattened cells
+ve for cytokeratin proteins, calretinin, WT1 (Wilms Tumor), cytokeratin 5/6 and D2-40
opposite of a solitary fibrous mass

380
Q

Sarcomatoid pattern malignant mesothelioma

A

Sarcomatoid Pattern
Malignant, spindle-shaped cells resembling a fibrosarcoma
Lower expression of markers seen in other morphologic patterns
Usually cytokeratin +ve

381
Q

Biphasic/mixed pattern malignant mesothelioma

A

Contains both epitheliooid and sarcomatoid patterns

382
Q

Clinic malignant mesothelioma

A

Chest pain, dyspnea, recurrent pleural effusions
20% with pulmonary asbestosis (fibrosis)
Metastasize to the hilar lymph nodes, lung, liver and other organs
50% 1 year mortality, few survive > 2 years
Can arise in other areas (peritoneum, pericardium, etc.) And if affects the GI tract, can lead to death due to intestinal obstruction or inanition