Test Questions 2 Flashcards
A teacher finds out that if she yells at a disruptive boy in class, he will calm down for a few minutes. Over
time, her yelling becomes louder and more frequent. Which of the following statements best describes, in
behavioral terms, what is happening in this situation?
A
The teacher’s yelling is serving as positive reinforcement for the boy, which is why he is becoming more and
more disruptive over time.
B
The teacher’s yelling is serving as positive punishment, but the boy is becoming habituated over time.
C
The teacher’s yelling is probably serving as negative punishment for her, because she likely finds the situation to
be aversive; however, it is serving as positive punishment for the boy, because he seems to enjoy being yelled at.
D
The teacher’s yelling is serving as positive reinforcement for herself, as she seems to enjoy yelling.
The Correct Answer is “B”
In behavioral terms, the term “positive” means that a stimulus is applied (not, as implied by choice C, that the
stimulus is pleasurable or enjoyable). In this case, the stimulus being applied is the teacher’s yelling. And
punishment means that the stimulus has the effect of reducing a behavior. In this case, the yelling has the effect
of temporarily reducing the boy’s disruptiveness, so it is punishment. The question illustrates a disadvantage of
punishment – the recipient becomes habituated (which just means he or she gets used to it) and it is necessary to
keep increasing the intensity of the punishment for it to be effective.
According to the research findings of Patterson and his colleagues, parents of aggressive children typically
use discipline which is:
A
consistent, but accompanied by humiliating verbal messages
B
consistent, but often followed by affection which sends mixed messages to the child
C
inconsistent, and often not associated with the child’s behavior
D
inconsistent, but which particularly ignores the child’s aggressive behaviors
The Correct Answer is “C”
Patterson found that parents of aggressive children often use harsh physical punishment which is applied
inconsistently and often not connected to the child’s behavior. Contrary to choice D, these parents tend to
reinforce aggressive behavior in their children with attention or approval.
3. Delirium may occur due to intoxication with all of the following substances except A cocaine. B cannabis. C caffeine. D LSD.
c
An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that
A
the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate.
B
a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable.
C
a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the
relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
D
a MANOVA involves simpler mathematical calculations.
The Correct Answer is “A”
When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each
dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the
latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null
hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I
error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I
error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.
Children diagnosed with a Learning Disorder are most likely to receive a co-diagnosis of: A Major Depressive Disorder B Tourette's Syndrome C Mental Retardation D Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
The Correct Answer is “D”
ADHD is the most frequent comorbid disorder, with about 20 to 25% of children with a Learning Disorder also
having ADHD.
Compared to decentralized networks, centralized networks
A
are less effective but more accepted by employees.
B
are more effective when the task is complex.
C
are more effective when the task is easy.
Dare more effective and more accepted by employees.
The Correct Answer is “C”
In a centralized communication network, all communication goes through one person (usually the person in
charge). This type of network is most effective when the problem or task is easy; i.e., it does not require a lot of
communication among workers to be resolved or accomplished. We can rule out A and D not only because these
networks are not automatically more or less effective than decentralized networks (again, it depends on the
nature of the task), but also because it is usually the leader, not the employees, who prefers a centralized
network.
Linehan's dialectical behavior therapy shows promise in the treatment of borderline patients. It involves a combination of treatment modalities that include A inpatient therapy. B social skills training. C family therapy. D psychotropic medication.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Dialectical behavior therapy or DBT consists of outpatient individual therapy, social skills training and follow-up telephone consultations. It also discourages the expression of overt inappropriate affect. Its combination of social skills training (usually done in group therapy settings) and outpatient individual psychotherapy has been found to decrease hospitalization and suicide attempt rates (M. Linehan and C.A. Kehrer, Borderline Personality Disorder, in D.H. Barlow, Clinical Handbook of Psychological Disorders: A Step-by-Step Treatment Manual, New York, Guilford, 1993).
If you administer a measure of global job satisfaction to employees at the Acme Corporation, you would expect to find the highest levels of satisfaction among workers aged: A 20 to 25. B 30 to 35. C 40 to 45. D 50 to 55.
The Correct Answer is “D”
The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you’re measuring. However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa.
You are completing a court-ordered evaluation in order to determine the person’s competency to stand trial and during the administration of the MMPI-2 your client jumps out of his seat and shouts “OK, OK, I killed her!” Now you are
A
obligated to include this information in your report; it is a court-ordered report.
B
obligated to include this information; privilege is waived because the mental status is part of the defense.
C
obligated to include this information; privilege is waived because you know have a Tarasoff situation.
D
not obligated to include the confessional information.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Since the question does not indicate that the client has waived consent, the law protects the defendant at this juncture. He is protected by laws that prohibit the use of evaluation data to determine the defendant’s guilt. The best course of action is to not include any incriminating evidence in the competency report, but instead only information relevant to the defendant’s competence (G.B. Melton, Psychological Evaluations for the Court, New York, Guilford, 1987).
Which of the following is least likely to cause secondary impotence? A medication use B alcohol use C diabetes mellitus D old age
The Correct Answer is “D”
Secondary impotence is diagnosed when a man persistently or recurrently fails to attain or maintain an erection even though in the past he has successfully achieved an erection. The erectile reflex is usually unimpaired in older men; therefore, aging alone is not likely to be a cause of impotence. The other responses are common physical causes of secondary impotence
An interpersonal therapist who is working with a client suffering from a prolonged grief reaction would attempt to
A
connect the person’s current grief reaction to losses of significant others in early childhood.
B
help the client understanding how the loss is impacting the current therapeutic relationship.
C
build up a positive relationship with the client and avoid discussing the loss until the termination phase of therapy.
D
modify the client’s maladaptive behaviors under the assumption that psychological change follows behavioral change.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Though “B” is an imprecise description of what an interpersonal therapist would do, it is the best answer available. Interpersonal therapists believe that depression is caused and maintained by disturbances in early life, especially attachment disturbances. Rather than focusing on the past, however, they focus on the connection between the presenting problem and client’s current relationships – including the current relationship with the therapist. Grief reactions are a common focus of interpersonal therapy.
Herbert Simon’s decision-making model suggests that decision makers
A
consider all alternatives and then pick the best one.
B
consider alternatives only until they find one that seems acceptable.
C
consider only those alternatives that have a 50% or better chance of success.
D
rely more on their affective than cognitive reactions when choosing an alternative.
The Correct Answer is “B”
To answer this question, you have to have the name Herbert Simon linked with the bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.
Which of the following structures develops last? A cerebellum B frontal lobe C occipital lobe D temporal lobe
The Correct Answer is “B”
The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking, motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex, located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last area of the brain to develop.
Release of the sex hormones by the gonads depends on signals from the A medulla B amygdala. C thalamus. D hypothalamus.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Once again, the hypothalamus is a “good guess” (and the correct response). One of the functions of the hypothalamus is to control the gonads through its influence on the pituitary gland.
Wernicke’s, Broca’s and conduction aphasia share which of the following difficulties? A repeating what is said B word prosody C reception D expression
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca’s to Wernicke’s area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke’s, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling words. Broca’s aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said.
Which of the following contradicts the predictions of Herzberg’s two-factor theory?
A
Workers say the same work-related factors cause satisfaction and dissatisfaction with work.
B
Workers say they prefer leaders who show a high level of both instrumentality and consideration.
C
Job satisfaction and job performance have a reciprocal relationship.
D
Job enrichment increases satisfaction for both blue- and white-collar workers.
The Correct Answer is “A”
As long as you remembered that Herzberg views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as separate phenomena, you should have been able to pick the right answer to this question. According to Herzberg, the factors that cause dissatisfaction (hygiene factors) are different from those that contribute to satisfaction (motivator factors), which means that a person can be satisfied and dissatisfied at the same time.
Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say:
A
More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better
B
Flexitime was a brillant invention
C
It’s time for a change around here
D
The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool
The Correct Answer is “D”
According to Fiedler’s 1971 contingency theory, a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader’s style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented. Answers A and B could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented. Answer C could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.
What effect do neurotransmitters have on postsynaptic cells?
A
an excitatory effect
B
an inhibitory effect
C
either an excitatory or inhibitory effect
D
the ability to decrease the action potential
The Correct Answer is “C”
Neurotransmitters can have an excitatory or inhibitory effect on postsynaptic cells, either increasing or decreasing the likelihood that an action potential will occur. Some neurotransmitters act as “neuromodulators” that increase or decrease the sensitivity of neurons to the effects of other neurotransmitters.
If data points are widely scattered around a regression line, it would indicate A high heteroscedasticity. B low heteroscedasticity. C low homoscedasticity. D a low correlation coefficient
The Correct Answer is “D”
Simply put, a lot of variance around the regression line indicates that the correlation isn’t too high. Be careful not to confuse this with the idea of heteroscedasticity. This term means that the scatter is uneven at different points of the continuum. For instance, there might be high variability around the regression line at low x (predictor) values, and low variability around the line at high x values. In other words, heteroscedasticity refers to a differential level of scatter, not high scatter.
Recent literature comparing leadership and management has identified several similarities and differences. Which of the following set of characteristics is more critical for today’s leaders than for managers?
A
rational, persistent, and tough-minded
B
problem-solving, persistent, and independent
C
visionary, authoritative, and tough-minded
D
independent, innovative, and flexible
The Correct Answer is “D”
A topic of recent interest in the I/O literature is the difference between leaders and managers. Characteristics that are considered particularly important for leaders include: visionary, creative, flexible, inspiring, courageous, and independent. See G. Capowski, Anatomy of a leader: Where are the leaders of tomorrow?, Management Review, 1994, p. 2.
A primary tenet of rational-emotive therapy is that: A a belief determines behavior. B self-attributions determine behavior. C conditioning determines behavior. D internalized role constructs determine behavior.
The Correct Answer is “A”
RET is basically a cognitively-based theory even though in practice therapists use many modalities. The idea is that beliefs – irrational beliefs – determine our maladaptive behaviors. The belief that you mustn’t make anyone mad at you is an example.
A child diagnosed with Attention -Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder is most likely to also be diagnosed with: A Tourette's Disorder B Conduct Disorder C Enuresis D Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
The Correct Answer is “B”
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is highly comorbid with Conduct Disorder. Between 30% and 50% of children with ADHD also meet the criteria for Conduct Disorder, with the highest comorbidity rates among the two subtypes marked by hyperactivity-impulsivity (Hyperactive-Impulsive and Combined Types). The percentage of patients with Conduct Disorder who also have ADHD is nearly 70%. (T. P. Beauchaine, E. S. Katkin, Z. Strassberg, & J. Snarr. Disinhibitory psychopathology in male adolescents: Discriminating Conduct Disorder from Attention-Deficit/ Hyperactivity Disorder through concurrent assessment of multiple autonomic states. Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 2001, 110(4), 610-624). If you incorrectly selected Tourette’s Disorder (A), you may have been thinking of the reverse relationship. That is, among those with Tourette’s Disorder the comorbidity of ADHD is at least 50%; however, most patients with ADHD do not have Tourette’s Disorder.
Communication-interaction therapy espouses that communication has both a "report" function and a A Principle of equifinality B Command function C Circular model of causality D Paradoxical strategy
The Correct Answer is “B”
Family therapists from the Mental Research Institute in Palo Alto such as Gregory Bateson, Virginia Satir, and Jay Haley described communication as having a “report function” that contains the content or informational aspect of the communication, and the “command function”, that is often conveyed nonverbally and exemplifies the relationship between the communicators. The other choices are other concepts from the Mental Research Institute. “Principles of equifinality” refers to the idea that no matter where the system change occurs, the end result is the same. “Circular model of causality” is a concept in their approach that describes a symptom as both a cause and an effect of dysfunctional communication patterns. “Paradoxical strategies” include prescribing the symptom and relabeling, or changing the label a family attaches to a problem in order to change the meaning.
Depth perception in infants develops in which of the following sequences? A kinetic, pictorial, binocular B pictorial, binocular, kinetic C kinetic, binocular, pictorial D binocular, kinetic, pictorial
The Correct Answer is “C”
Research has indicated that infants develop depth perception in a predictable sequence: kinetic, binocular, and pictorial. Kinetic depth cues are based on movements of objects in the environment or the body. Babies as young as 3 weeks begin perceiving kinetic cues. For example, they will blink their eyes defensively when an object approaches their face and looks as if its going to hit them. Binocular depth perception begins between 2 and 3 months. And pictorial depth cues, which are used by artists to make paintings look three-dimensional, begins to develop at about 7 months of age.
An organization decides to implement changes based on a job characteristics assessment. Which of the following is least likely to be affected? A work quality B motivation C satisfaction D absenteeism
The Correct Answer is “A”
Studies show when jobs are redesigned according to the job characteristics model there are improvements in satisfaction, absenteeism, turnover, and motivation. Work quality is less likely to be affected.
Which of the following is an application of negative punishment? A D.R.O. B overcorrection C Premack Principle D time-out
The Correct Answer is “D”
Negative punishment is used to decrease a behavior by taking away a stimulus. In time-out, undesirable behaviors are reduced by taking away opportunities for positive reinforcement for a specified period of time.
The “fourth force” in psychology has been identified as: A humanistic B psychodynamic C multiculturalism D behavioral
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Multiculturalism has been defined as the fourth force in psychology, one which complements the behavioral, psychodynamic and humanistic explanations of human behavior. This “fourth force” originated within the civil rights and social movements of the 1960s. Pedersen (1991) defined multiculturalism as “a wide range of multiple groups without grading, comparing, or ranking them as better or worse than one another and without denying the very distinct and complementary or even contradictory perspectives that each group brings with it.” Others advocate a narrower definition of multiculturalism, with attention to the racial/ethnic minority groups within a culture. Multicultural counseling often includes issues of race, ethnicity, culture, social class, sexual orientation, gender, physical ability, age, and religious preference. (See: Pedersen, Paul B. (1991). Multiculturalism as a fourth force in counseling. Journal of Counseling and Development, 70, 6-12.)
Tricyclic antidepressants, as compared to MAO inhibitors,
A
are more effective in the treatment of the vegetative symptoms of depression.
B
are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.
C
are less effective in the treatment of panic disorder.
D
are associated with a greater range of dangerous side effects.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The tricyclic antidepressants include imipramine, clomimpramine, and amitriptyline. In the treatment of depression, they are most effective in relieving vegetative symptoms such as appetitive, sleep, and motor disturbances. By contrast, the MAO inhibitors are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.
29. If a job selection test has lower validity for Hispanics as compared to White or African-Americans, you could say that ethnicity is acting as a: A confounding variable B criterion contaminator C discriminant variable D moderator variable
The Correct Answer is “D”
A moderator variable is any variable which moderates, or influences, the relationship between two other variables. If the validity of a job selection test is different for different ethnic groups (i.e. there is differential validity), then ethnicity would be considered a moderator variable since it is influencing the relationship between the test (predictor) and actual job performance (the criterion). A confounding variable (A) is a variable in a research study which is not of interest to the researcher, but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Criterion contamination (B) is the artificial inflation of validity which can occur when raters subjectively score ratees on a criterion measure after they have been informed how the ratees scored on the predictor.
According to research on parenting styles, which of the following describes the parents who are most likely to raise very aggressive children?
A
attentive parents who are very controlling of their children’s behavior
B
parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and are very controlling of their children’s behavior
C
loving parents with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children’s behavior
D
parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and have a laissez-faire attitude toward their children’s behavior
The Correct Answer is “D”
Researchers in the 1950s identified two dimensions of parenting styles: permissiveness and affection. Permissiveness is a continuum that ranges from autonomy on one extreme to control at the other; affection is a continuum that ranges from hostility to love. Parents who combine hostility with autonomy (e.g., those who combine violent discipline with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children) are likely to produce disobedient and aggressive children.
Journal reviewers who show strong bias against manuscripts that report results contrary to their theoretical perspective are demonstrating: A self-serving bias B confirmatory bias C fundamental attribution bias D self verification theory
The Correct Answer is "B" "Confirmatory bias" or "confirmation bias" is the tendency to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs. Self-serving bias (A) is the tendency to attribute one's successes to internal factors and one's failures to external factors. The fundamental attribution bias or error (C) refers to the tendency to overestimate dispositional (personality) factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining a person's behavior. Self verification theory (D) proposes that people seek confirmation of their self-concept.
The "Big Five" personality factors were based on which of the following approaches? A cognitive-behavioral B industrial-organizational C classical test theory D lexical
This is one of those obscure questions which could appear on your exam. A lexical approach was first used by Sir Francis Galton in the 1880’s. “Lexical” refers to the use of a dictionary, in this case, to identify personality traits. It is an atheoretical approach and was used to identify the Big Five Personality traits by performing a factor analysis on all the personality traits found in the dictionary. The Big Five traits are: conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, openness, and emotional stability/neuroticism. These five traits are believed to underlie all other personality characteristics.
You are trying to recall the facts surrounding a mugging you recently witnessed. According to the notion of state dependence, your recall of these facts will be best if you are in the same __________ when you recall the crime as you were at the time you witnessed it.
A attitudinal state. B physical environment. C emotional state. D state of alertness.
The Correct Answer is “C”
The notion of state dependence predicts that memory is maximized when we are in the same emotional state during learning and recall.
The research suggests that, to control excessive aggression in children, the best approach is:
A
time-out and similar behavioral techniques.
B
opportunities for catharsis.
C
explaining the consequences of aggressive acts.
D
social-skills training.
The Correct Answer is “D”
A number of techniques have been found useful for reducing aggression in children, but many of them (e.g., catharsis) have only short-term effects. In the long run, the best thing to do is to teach aggressive children alternative, nonaggressive, prosocial behaviors, which is a component of social-skills training.
Coding Personality Disorders on a separate axis, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is due to:
A
the need to reduce the possibility of being overlooked
B
the need to reduce the possibility of prioritization over an Axis I disorder
C
having a differing etiology than Axis I disorders
D
having less daily functioning interference than Axis I disorders
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. In the DSM-IV-TR’s description of Axis II, Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation are classified on a separate axis as they “might otherwise be overlooked when attention is directed to the usually more florid Axis I disorders” and does not suggest “pathogenesis or range of appropriate treatment is fundamentally different from that for the disorders coded on Axis I.”
Research comparing the relationship between age and therapy outcome has produced mixed results. However, in their most recent meta-analysis of the research, Weisz and his colleagues (1995) found:
A
no relationship between age and outcome.
B
that therapy is more beneficial for children and adolescents than adults.
C
that therapy is more beneficial for children than adolescents, especially among girls.
D
that therapy is more beneficial for adolescents than children, especially among girls.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Earlier meta-analyses of the outcome studies for children and adolescents found either no difference for adolescents and children or a slight superiority for children. In contrast, the more recent Weisz et al. meta-analysis found that therapy has better outcomes for adolescents than children, especially female adolescents and when the counselor is a professional or student (versus paraprofessional). Note that Weisz et al. didn’t compare outcomes for children and adolescents to outcomes for adults, but other meta-analyses suggest that adults do somewhat better.
You receive a subpoena for a current client’s therapy records from a process server hired by the court. This means that you must:
A
inform the server that you cannot comply with the subpoena because therapy records are privileged.
B
tell the server to wait while you make a copy of the records.
C
appear at a designated place and time with a copy of the records.
D
leave a copy of the records at the courthouse within 48 hours.
The Correct Answer is “C”
A subpoena to produce records or documents (known as a subpoena duces tecum) requires a person to appear at a designated time and place with a copy of the records. It does not necessarily require the person to release those records; this is a matter for the court to decide, following a hearing on privilege, if the issue of privilege is being contested. If your client has waived the privilege, however, you would release the records to the court at the time of your appearance.
An MRI of a patient in the early stages of Huntington's disease would indicate: A no abnormalities. B overactivity in the temporal lobes. C reduced volume of the basal ganglia. D reduced volume of the ventricles.
The Correct Answer is “C”
To answer this question, you need to know that Huntington’s disease is due to degeneration in several areas of the brain including the basal ganglia and that damage can often be detected by an MRI or other brain imaging technique even before the person exhibits symptoms.
Hypnosis involves three factors A Absorption, regression, dissociation B Dissociation, absorption, suggestibility C Suggestibility, dissociation, regression D Regression, distortion, suggestibility
The Correct Answer is “B”
According to Hales, Yudofsky and Talbott, (1944), hypnosis involves three factors, 1) absorption, whereby the individual is completely engrossed in a central experience, 2) dissociation, whereby the ordinary functioning of consciousness and memory are altered in some way and 3) suggestibility, whereby individuals have a tendency to be less inhibited and restricted while in the trance-like state.
In the context of expectancy theory, instrumentality refers to:
A
the willingness of a worker to exert effort.
B
the likelihood of effort leading to performance
C
the likelihood of performance leading to certain outcomes.
D
the value of the outcomes of performance.
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Expectancy theory is based on the premise that motivation is a cognitive process involving three variables: expectancy, instrumentality and valence. Expectancy refers to the belief that effort will lead to success performance. Instrumentality refers to the beliefs that successful performance will result in certain outcomes; the value placed on the outcomes of performance is referred to as valence.
The WISC-III subtests that are most sensitive to perceptual-motor problems are: A block design and object assembly. B object assembly and picture completion. C digit span and coding. D picture arrangement and picture completion.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Of the choices listed, the block design and object assembly subtests are the most direct measures of perceptual and motor skills.
A parent finds that she has to nag her son more and more to get him to stop teasing his sister. The last time it happened, the boy finally stopped his teasing after his mother's 16th angry request. The boy's compliance is best described as the result of A escape conditioning. B avoidance conditioning. C stimulus discrimination. D stimulus generalization.
The Correct Answer is “A”
In this situation, the boy stops teasing his sister because, presumably, this stops his mother’s nagging. In other words, by complying with her request, he escapes an aversive stimulus.
According to family therapists:
A
when one family member improves, others will improve also.
B
no member of a family will improve unless all members improve.
C
if the identified patient improves, the family system will improve.
D
if the family system changes, the identified patient will improve.
The Correct Answer is “D”
You needed to approach this question from the point of view of a system. A system means that everything functions together. Knowing just that little piece, you probably could have gotten to the correct answer: once the system changes, the individuals will change. The work is at the systems level, not at the individual level. The alternative stating that “no member will improve unless all members improve” comes close to this idea, but it’s not exactly the point of system theory. And, besides, you don’t have to have all members improving before any one member improves. According to systems theory, individual symptoms can remit, however, without systemic change, other problems (either in that individual or in another family member) will arise.
Which of the following stages in Erikson's theory of psychosocial development corresponds to Freud's latency stage? A trust versus mistrust B autonomy versus shame C initiative versus guilt D industry versus inferiority
The Correct Answer is “D”
Erikson’s industry vs. inferiority stage occurs approximately between the ages of 6-11. Freud’s latency stage occurs at about the same time.
In late childhood and adolescence, sibling relationships tend to become egalitarian; however, during middle childhood they can best be described as: A distant and distrustful B conflicted and close C abusive and uncaring D dominant and submissive
The Correct Answer is “B”
During middle childhood sibling relationships are characterized by a combination of conflict and closeness. During this period siblings typically fight and experience friction, yet also report having greater warmth and companionship with each other.
All of the following are generally considered to be characteristic of brief psychotherapy, except: A time limited therapy B lack of theoretical orientation C effective for acute symptoms D encourages the development of a positive transference between the client and the therapist.
The Correct Answer is “B”
There are many different approaches to brief therapy including psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and eclectic to name a few; however, brief therapy is always based on theory. Brief therapy, as its name implies, is time limited and effective for acute symptoms. A positve transferance is also generally considered to be essential to the success of brief therapy.
The variable most directly associated with a need for personal space is A education. B sex. C income. D cultural background.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Although some studies suggest that cultural differences in the need for personal space are not as great as once believed, this is still the best answer. For instance, research has illustrated that adult Americans generally require more personal space than adults in other cultures.
The suicide rate for African-American adolescent males over the past few decades has been:
A
higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been an increase in the rates for both groups.
B
lower than the rate for white adolescents males, but there has been an increase in the rates for both groups.
C
higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
D
lower than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Across all age groups and both genders, the suicide rate is higher for whites than for African-Americans. Of all demographic groups, the one associated with the highest increase in suicide rate over the past few decades is young white male – the rate has almost tripled. The rate has also gone up among African-American males, but
not by as much. And here’s an additional piece of information that’s not directly related to this question: In African-Americans, suicide occurs at the highest rate among individuals between the ages of 20-34; among whites, the highest rate of suicide occurs near the end of the life cycle.
Jerome and Jamal have significant problems with their peers. However, while Jerome is rejected by his classmates, Jamal is neglected. If Jerome and Jamal change schools, which of the following is most likely to happen?
A
Jerome may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jamal will continue to be neglected.
B
Jamal may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jerome will continue to be rejected.
C
Jerome and Jamal will both be better accepted by their new classmates.
D
Jerome and Jamal will both continue to have the same peer problems they had in their old school.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Studies looking at the outcomes for rejected and neglected children have found that rejection is more stable than neglect. For example, when rejected and neglected change schools, neglected children may experience improvements in their peer status, while rejected children continue to be rejected by the new peer group.
A person with high self-esteem is likely to make what type of attributions for his or her achievements? A internal and specific B internal and global C external and specific D external and global
The Correct Answer is “A”
This question is related to Weiner’s attributional theory of motivation and emotion. Attributions are our causal explanations for events and the behavior of ourselves and others. According to Weiner, attributions can be due to factors that are either internal or external, stable or unstable, controllable or uncontrollable, intentional or unintentional, and global or specific. Someone with high self-esteem would take credit for his or her achievements and be proud of them. Thus, he or she would likely attribute them to internal, stable, controllable, intentional, and specific causes. The attributions are most likely specific rather than global because a person with high self-esteem will acknowledge that he or she isn’t successful in everything. For example, a very successful athlete or CEO would not assume proficiency in brain surgery.
The ability to remember the first and last parts of a lecture, but not the middle part, would most likely be due to: A retroactive inhibition B primacy and recency effects C method of loci D selective attention
The Correct Answer is “B”
The ability to recall information that is presented at the beginning and ending of a list (or in this case, a lecture) better than the information presented in the middle is known, respectively, as the primacy and recency effects. Together they are referred to as the serial position effect. The serial position effect is believed to occur because material presented at the beginning is transferred to long-term memory, while information at the end is still in short-term memory. Whereas, information in the middle can be affected by interference from information that came before and afterwards, preventing storage in short- or long-term memory. Retroactive inhibition (A) occurs when a new experience interferes with the recall of an earlier one. Method of loci (C) is a mnemonic device in which items are associated with mental images of places. Selective attention (D) involves focusing on one event while filtering out or ignoring irrelevant events.
If one were to apply the confluence model to predict the intellectual and achievement scores of children, the most accurate prediction would be that
A
middle children would show the highest score when compared to both earlier and later born children.
B
children from small families would score the highest.
C
only-borns would be the highest scoring group.
D
later borns would be the highest scoring group.
The Correct Answer is “C”
The confluence model states simply that each succeeding child has less of the family’s resources available to him or her. The first child doesn’t have to share with anyone. The next child shares with one older sibling. The next child must share with two older siblings. The theory has been tested and found to predict accurately: Only-borns and children from small families tend to, on the average, do better on measures of intellect and achievement than later borns. Note that the choice about only-borns having the highest intelligence is a better answer than the choice about children from a small family. This is because, from the perspective of the confluence model, only-borns have even more of the family’s resources available to them than children from a small family.
Primary memory is the same as A implicit memory. B short-term memory. C procedural memory. D episodic memory.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Primary memory is another term for short-term memory. On the other hand, the terms secondary and long-term memory are also often used interchangeably. Implicit memory (answer A) is an unconscious, nonintentional form of memory. Procedural memory (answer C) is memory of how to do certain activities, for example, driving a car, while episodic memory (answer D) is the memory of a particular episode, such as your last birthday.
Which of the following is true regarding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)?
A
Both OCD and OCPD are characterized by the presence of true obsessions and/or compulsions.
B
Unlike OCD, OCPD involves a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control.
C
Obsessions and compulsions are less severe in OCPD.
D
Unlike OCPD, the DSM-IV-TR criteria for OCD requires onset of symptoms before age 18.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Only Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) requires the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions. The diagnosis “Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder” (OCPD) is somewhat of a misnomer in that it is not characterized by either obsessions or compulsions. Rather, OCPD involves a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. Contrary to Choice “D,” there are no age requirements for either diagnosis.
According to Lenore Walker, which of the following best describes the dynamic that keeps battered women “hooked” into their relationship with the batterer?
A
Due to having grown up in an abusive family, the victim believes that battering is a normal part of relationships.
B
The costs of the abuse and the benefits of remaining in the relationship are about equal.
C
The woman fears that the abuse will become even more severe if she tries to leave the relationship.
D
The woman lacks knowledge about the resources available to help her leave the relationship.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Lenore Walker describes a cycle of violence that involves three stags: tension building, acute battering incident, and loving contrition. According to Walker, most of the benefits of the relationship occur in the third stage, when the batterer offers apologies, assurances that the attacks will never happen again, and declarations of love. The relationship tends to remain stable when the balance between the costs of the abuse and the benefits of the relationship are fairly similar. As violence escalates, the relationship becomes more unstable, and the man escalates his charming behavior in an attempt to restore stability.
According to Hersey and Blanchard (1974), a “telling” leader is most effective when employees are low in both ability and willingness to assume responsibility. A telling leadership style is characterized by a
A
low task and low relationship orientation.
B
low task and high relationship orientation.
C
high task and high relationship orientation.
D
high task and low relationship orientation.
The Correct Answer is “D”
The different leadership styles defined by Hersey and Blanchard involve different combinations of task and relationship orientation. A high task, low relationship orientation defines the telling leadership style. Answer A is a delegating leader; B is a participating leader, and C is a selling leader.
At the request of an attorney, a psychologist in a rural community agrees to conduct a psychological evaluation and provide treatment for the same person. This would probably be considered:
A
ethical, since both services are within the boundaries of a professional relationship
B
ethical, if the psychologist takes reasonable steps to minimize any negative effects
C
unethical, since evaluation and treatment are inherently conflicting
D
unethical, since only a patient, not an attorney can request treatment services
The Correct Answer is “B”
As a general rule, psychologists should avoid potentially conflicting relationships, which could result when conducting both an evaluation and treatment for a patient. However, according to APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (1991), “When it is necessary to provide both evaluation and treatment services to a party in a legal proceeding (as may be the case in small forensic hospital settings or small communities), the forensic psychologist takes reasonable steps to minimize the potential negative effects of these circumstances on the rights of the party, confidentiality, and the process of treatment and evaluation.” [Law and Human Behavior, 15 (6), p.659].
A number of books in the popular press have been written regarding the relationship between psychological factors and cancer. Which of the following statements best reflects the outcome of scientific studies of this issue?
A
Psychological factors are related both to the onset of cancer and the success of recovery from it.
B
Psychological factors are related to the onset of cancer but not to the success of recovery from it.
C
Psychological factors are not related to the onset of cancer but are related to the success of recovery from it.
D
Psychological factors are related to neither the onset of cancer nor the success of recovery from it.
The Correct Answer is “C”
A number of theories regarding the relationship between psychological factors and the onset of cancer have been proposed. For instance, some authors have proposed that the “Type C” personality, typically described as a cooperative, unassertive patient who suppresses anger and complies with external authorities, is at a higher risk for cancer. However, most research shows that psychological factors and stressful events have a small or no effect on cancer incidence. By contrast, psychological factors do appear to be related to recovery from cancer. For instance, psychological treatments combining support and training in self-hypnosis are associated with higher survival rates and improved quality of life in cancer patients.
The type of racism exemplified by the lack of quality health care, delivery of substandard health care services and unavailability of preventive health services in minority communities is: A institutional racism B personally mediated racism C internalized racism D subtle racism
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Institutional racism refers to restriction or denial of material conditions and access to power to members of minority groups. Personally mediated racism (b.) refers to prejudice and discrimination at the individual level. Internalized racism (c.) refers to acceptance of negative messages about the abilities and intrinsic worth by members of the stigmatized races. Subtle racism (d.) refers to the beliefs, attitudes, and actions of individuals (rather than institutions) and is a less obvious form of racism, which has been proposed to have replaced overt or “old-fashioned” prejudice and discrimination.
Use of benzodiazepines is associated with a “rebound effect.” If an individual is experiencing “rebound
anxiety,” this refers to:
A
an initial paradoxical increase in anxiety
B
anxiety persisting even after increasing dosage
C
anxiety re-appearing after long-term usage of the drug
D
an increase in severity of anxiety temporarily following the discontinuation of the drug
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. The “rebound effect” occurs when a benzodiazepine is discontinued and wears off. The symptoms come back stronger and the initial symptoms are magnified. When the medication is stopped, individuals can experience withdrawal symptoms as well as experience a “rebound” or resurgence of the feelings or condition the drug was originally managing. Essentially, the body/brain reacts to the drug by trying to overcome its effect, and once the drug is stopped that overreaction continues for awhile until it “gets through” to the body/brain that there is no longer a chemical to fight against. The symptoms lessen as the body readjusts to life without the chemicals. This “rebound effect” is also common for other conditions and drugs, such as rebound sinus congestion after frequent use of nasally inhaled decongestants or rebound headaches after a long-term course of painkillers for someone suffering from chronic headaches.
The best predictor of treatment outcome among adult substance abusers is: A age B ethnicity C history of criminal behavior D severity of substance abuse problems
The Correct Answer is “D”
Most studies have found that the best predictors of treatment outcome for substance abusers are psychiatric severity and problem severity. Other predictive factors include motivation and coping skills at baseline (J. R. McKay & R. V. Weiss, A review of temporal effects and outcome predictors in substance abuse treatment studies with long-term follow-ups: Preliminary results and methodological issues. Evaluation Review, 2001, 25(2), 113-161).
The effects of parental discipline on the development of conscience in toddlers is mediated by the toddlers' level of: A fearfulness B intelligence C activity level D pain threshold
The Correct Answer is “A”
Research by Kochanska (1997) has indicated that toddlers’ level of fearfulness mediates the effects of parental discipline. Specifically, the use of “gentle discipline” was found more effective for the development of conscience among fearful toddlers than among fearless toddlers. Fearless toddlers, on the other hand, developed conscience better through the use of a secure mother-child attachment. It should be noted that these results were primarily found during the toddler years and were not significant or were less significant when reassessed during preschool years [Multiple pathways to conscience for children with different temperaments: From toddlerhood to age 5, Developmental Psychology, 33(2), 228-240].
Anger management training for children has been criticized for:
A
limited positive effects due to focusing on the individual
B
limited positive effects due to focusing on the behavior
C
being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s tendency to blame anger on others
D
being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s inability to control feelings and behaviors
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. One criticism of anger management training for children has been that most programs, which utilize a cognitive-behavioral approach, place the emphasis on the individual’s perceptions, feelings and behaviors while ignoring the interpersonal or systemic factors. Research indicates that training program effectiveness is increased by expanding beyond the individual to include family, peer and community relationships. (See: Morley, E. & Rossman, S.B. (1997). Helping At-Risk Youth: Lessons From Community-Based Initiatives, Washington D.C., The Urban Institute.)
Latane called this a social disease. It occurred when high-level employees were assessed on a combined effort. It turned out they produced less than when they were working individually. It's called: A Social loafing B Group think C Social polarization D Social facilitation
The Correct Answer is “A”
Social loafing or Latane’s “social disease” is the discovery that in regard to work, individual output declines when people are working together as a group. However, social loafing does not occur under all conditions. It is reduced or eliminated when participants believe that their individual contributions are identifiable or uniquely necessary for the group to succeed. (B) “groupthink” is the tendency for a group to make an irrational or impulsive decision in order to reach consensus. (C) “Group polarization” refers to the tendency of individuals who start with a similar view to end with a more extreme position after group discussion.
Bilingual children ______________________ than monolingual children.
A
perform no better or no worse academically
B
perform worse academically
C
have no better or no worse intellectual flexibility
D
have increased intellectual flexibility
The Correct Answer is “D”
Evidence suggests that bilingual children perform better on tests of cognitive flexibility, divergent thinking, and metalinguistic awareness, than monolingual children. Findings on the academic performance of bilingual children are inconsistent and influenced by many factors such as the age of second language acquisition, community support, and academic services.
Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that which of the following clients would be most likely to report benefitting from psychotherapy? A a wealthy client who pays a very high fee B a poor client who pays a very high fee C a wealthy client who pays a very low fee D a poor client who pays a very low fee
The Correct Answer is “B”
According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, a person is motivated to reduce the negative, aversive state that results when his or her cognitions conflict with each other. From the perspective of this theory, the poor client paying a very high fee would experience a state of dissonance. Therefore, this client, more than those in the other responses, would be motivated to believe that he or she is benefitting from therapy.
In comparison studies of younger and older adults, it has been found that depression in older adults is least likely to result in A difficulties with memory problems. B anxiety feelings. C feelings of hopelessness. D expressed sadness.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Older adults are less likely than younger adults to express feelings of depression or sadness. They are more willing to express feelings of hopelessness (answer C) and anxiety (answer B). They are also more apt to have memory problems (answer A).
The incidence of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder begins to differ for males and females at which age: A 3 years B 6 years C 12 years D 18 years
The Correct Answer is “B”
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder has an earlier peak onset for males than females. For males the peak onset is between ages 6 and 15, and for females it is between ages 20 and 29. Thus, gender differences for OCD begin to become apparent at 6 years. However, in adulthood the incidence is about the same for both genders.
A psychologist is planning to retire in the next few months and has been decreasing her caseload. One of the psychologist’s former clients, who had terminated a few months earlier, phones the psychologist and reports having suicidal thoughts. The psychologist should:
A
inform the client that she is retiring and that she cannot accept any clients
B
refer the client to a colleague immediately
C
meet with the client until the client no longer needs treatment
D
meet with the client until the situation is stabilized and then refer
The Correct Answer is “D”
Although this question is referring to a former client, due to the potential danger for a suicidal client, the most appropriate action would be to meet with the client until the situation is stabilized and then refer.
The most consistent predictors of adolescent suicide are:
A
Depression, use of drugs and alcohol, antisocial behavior
B
Depression, loss of popularity, avoidance of social situations
C
Use of drugs and alcohol, body weight, level of social acceptance
D
Use of drugs, cigarette smoking, depression
The Correct Answer is “A”
Research on risk factors is not entirely consistent. However, most studies concur with Gould (1992) who found the most consistent predictors to be a diagnosis of depression, use of drugs and alcohol, and antisocial behavior.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Western culture-bound values? A cause-effect approach B openness and intimacy C clear distinction between mental and physical well-being D strict adherence to a schedule
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Sue and Sue (1999) described three premises from the Western perspectives of counseling, based on the assumption of individualism, that can have an effect on the therapeutic relationship. They are identified as class-bound values, culture-bound values and language variables. Class-bound values include valuing of time boundaries or a strict adherence to time schedules, an ambiguous and unstructured approach to problem solving, and the emphasis on long- range goals and solutions. Culture-bound values focus on individualism versus collectivism, cause and effect relationships for client problems (a.), emphasis on emotional/verbal expressiveness, active participation and openness to discussing intimate aspects of the client’s life (b.), and the separation of physical and mental well-being (c.). Language variables are those in which standard English and verbal communication are stressed.
Mothers who get high scores on the WAIS-III tend to have children who get high scores on the WISC-III. On the basis of this information, which of the following conclusions is most justified?
A
intelligence is hereditary
B
parental intelligence is correlated with offspring intelligence
C
the WAIS-III and the WISC-III are correlated
D
the WAIS-III and the WISC-III are uncorrelated
The Correct Answer is “B”
None of these answers is great, but the only one that is possible is that parental intelligence and offspring intelligence are correlated. To know this for sure, we would need to know more about moderate and low scorers on the WAIS-III – do their children have moderate and low scores, respectively on the WISC-III? However, none of the other choices makes any sense. For instance, we can’t say that intelligence is hereditary from this information, since environmental rather than genetic factors may have resulted in the similarity of scores between mother and child. Also, we can’t say the WISC-III is correlated (or uncorrelated) with the WAIS-III. To measure the correlation between two tests, one must administer both of them to the same set of examinees.
Which of the following statements regarding therapist-client sexual relations is, according to research, most correct?
A
Therapists treating clients with a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder, Histrionic Personality Disorder, or who have a history of incest are more likely to become sexually involved with their patients than other therapists.
B
Therapists who become sexually involved with their patients are likely to have less formal education or to have received less professional recognition than other therapists.
C
Therapists who have completed a personal course of therapy are less likely to become sexually involved with their patients than therapists who have not undergone therapy.
D
Therapists who become sexually involved with a patient typically do so with a patient who is significantly younger.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Kenneth Pope, in an appendix of his book Sexual Feelings in Psychotherapy (Washington, DC: APA, 1993), provides a review of the research in the area of client-therapist sexual relations. Only choice D reflects research findings – one study found that the average ages of therapists and clients sexually involved with each other were 43 and 33, respectively; another study found these ages to be 42 and 30. In contrast to choice A, no research supports the notion that a particular diagnosis or history places a patient at greater risk for sexual involvement with a therapist. Choice B is also incorrect – in fact, one study found that psychologists who had attained a high level of professional achievement reported a higher rate of sex with patients. Similarly, in regard to choice C, one study found that psychologists who had completed psychotherapy or psychoanalysis were more likely to have become sexually involved with a patient than those therapists who hadn’t undergone therapy. According to Pope, the best single predictor of sexual exploitation in therapy is a therapist who has exploited a patient in the past.
Which of the following medications would be least likely to cause impaired concentration as a side effect? A clomipramine B tofranil C anafranil D fluoxetine
The Correct Answer is “D”
Choices “A”, “B”, and “C” are all tricyclic anti-depressants. In fact, choices “A” and “C” are different names for the same medication; Anafranil is the brand name for clomipramine. Choice “D”, fluoxetine (brand name: Prozac) is one of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). SSRIs have fewer and less severe side effects than tricyclics, and they are generally not associated with cognitive impairments. By contrast, tricyclics are associated with cognitive impairments such as deficits in concentration – especially in the elderly
It has been found that abused children often cling to their abusive parents. This can be explained in behavioral terms as the effect of A extinction. B delayed conditioning. C intermittent reinforcement. D spontaneous recovery.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Most abusing parents are abusive only some of the time. Other times they are quite loving and protective. In behavioral terms, this means that the child is on an intermittent reinforcement schedule, and, more specifically, a variable ratio schedule. In other words, any given behavior, including clinging, will be reinforced after a variable and unpredictable number of responses. Intermittent reinforcement schedules, and especially variable ratio schedules, tend to produce behaviors that are difficult to extinguish. This could explain why the clinging behavior continues.
A kappa coefficient of .93 would indicate that the two tests
A
measure what they are supposed to.
B
have a high degree of agreement between their raters.
C
aren’t especially reliable.
D
present test items with a high level of difficulty.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The kappa coefficient is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability. A coefficient in the lower .90s indicates high reliability. Answer A is a layman’s definition of the general concept of valdity.
The difference between the multiple hurdle and the multiple cut-off selection technique is that, in multiple hurdle,
A
examinees must succeed on all predictors.
B
not all predictors are administered to all examinees.
C
predictors are specially designed to be “culture-fair.”
D
predictive validity is empirically established.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Both multiple hurdle and multiple cut-off involve administering a series of predictor measures to prospective applicants. And in both cases, the examinee must succeed on all predictors in order to be selected. The difference is that, in multiple hurdle, predictors are administered in a successive order. If the applicant fails on any predictor, he or she no longer completes subsequent ones. By contrast, when multiple cut-off is used, examinees usually take all the predictors and the predictors are not necessarily administered in any particular order.
The difference between insanity and psychosis is that:
A
insanity is a legal term and psychosis is a term used in mental health literature
B
insanity is an outdated term and is no longer applied in legal cases, while psychosis is used both in mental health and legal literature
C
insanity is legally a broader term, and subsumes the term psychosis
D
insanity refers to disturbances in thought and emotion, while a psychotic disturbance, by definition, affects thought only
The Correct Answer is “A”
Insanity is strictly a legal term; it usually means that a person is in such a mental state that he or she cannot distinguish between right or wrong. Psychosis, on the other hand, is a psychiatric term.
The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is useful for the detection of damage to the: A frontal lobe B temporal lobe C hippocampus D corpus callosum
The Correct Answer is “A”
The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is used primarily to assess perseveration and abstract reasoning. However, it has also been found to be a useful measure of executive (frontal lobe) functioning and in discriminating between frontal and non-frontal lesions. Subjects must sort 64 cards using different strategies, for example, by color, form (triangle, star, star, and circle) or number of items on the cards.
