Learning Theory & Behavioral/Cognitive Behavioral Interventions Flashcards
What are some terms associated with Classical Conditioning?
Ivan Pavlov, Unconditioned stimulus/response, conditioned stimulus/response, classical extinction and spotaneous recovery, stimulus generalization, higher-order conditioning, blocking
Pavlov called the stimulus that naturally elicited salivation the ________________________ and salivation the _____________________; he labeled the neutral stimulus the __________________ and the salivation it produced after conditioning the __________________________.
Unconditioned stimulus
Unconditioned response
Conditioned stimulus
Conditioned response
When using the delay conditioning type of forward conditioning, which involves presenting the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US, which of the following statements is most accurate:
a. The optimal time interval between the onset of the CS and the US is the same regardless of the target response
b. The most effective interval is about 1 second
c. Delay conditioning is the most efficient procedure for establishing a conditioned response.
d. The most effective interval is about 2 seconds
c. The optimal time interval between the onset of the CS and the US depends on the nature of the target response, but generally, the most effective interval is about 0.5 seconds. Delay conditioning is the most efficient procedure for establishing a conditioned response.
This type of forward conditioning entails presenting and terminating the CS prior to presenting the US:
a. Delay conditioning
b. Trace conditioning
c. Simultaneous conditioning
d. Backward conditioning
b. Also, trace conditioning produces a weaker CR than does delay conditioning
This type of conditioning entails presenting the US prior to the CS. It does not usually produce a conditioned response:
a. Delay conditioning
b. Trace conditioning
c. Simultaneous conditioning
d. Backward conditioning
d
Which of the following is true regarding the number of conditioning trials in classical conditioning?
a. The greater the number of conditioning trials, the stronger and more persistent the CR
b. The greater the number of conditioning trials, the weaker and less persistent the CR
c. There is no relationship between the strength and persistence of the CR and the number of conditioning trials
d. Regardless of the number of trials, the UR is usually weaker in intensity or magnitude than the CR
a; b and c are completely false and d is reversed
Repeated exposure to the ___ or to the intended ___ before the ___ and ____ are paired slows down acquisition of the ____CR
US; CS; CS; US; CR
What is the term for the gradual disappearance of a conditioned response as the result of repeated presentation of the CS alone?
a. Stimulus generalization
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Stimulus discrimination
d. Classical extinction
d
This term in classical conditioning that demonstrates that a conditioned response is suppressed rather than eliminated by extinction trials:
a. Stimulus generalization
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Stimulus discrimination
d. Classical extinction
b
This classical conditioning term is used to describe the phenomenon that an experimental subject responds with a conditioned response not only to the CS but also to stimuli that are similar to the CS.
a. Stimulus generalization
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Stimulus discrimination
d. Classical extinction
a
This classical conditioning term is the opposite of stimulus generalization and refers to the ability to distinguish between the CS and similar stimuli and respond only to the CS with a CR.
a. Experimental neurosis
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Stimulus discrimination
d. Classical extinction
c
This classical conditioning term occurs when a previously established CS serves as a US to establish a conditioned response for a new conditioned stimulus – i.e., the new neutral stimulus is paired with the established CS so that, eventually, the new neutral stimulus produces a conditioned response:
a. Experimental neurosis
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Stimulus discrimination
d. Higher-order conditioning
d
_____________ occurs when an association has been made between a CS and US, and the CS and a second neutral stimulus are then presented together prior to the US. In this situation. the second neutral stimulus does not produce a CR.
a. Overshadowing
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Blocking
d. Classical extinction
c
____________ occurs when two neutral stimuli (rather than a CS and a new neutral stimulus) are repeatedly presented together prior to the US. Subsequently, presentation of the two stimuli together produces a CR, but when the two stimuli are presented separately, only one produces the CR.
a. Overshadowing
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Blocking
d. Classical extinction
a
Behavioral techniques utilizing _________________ eliminate a maladaptive behavior by pairing a stimulus (CS) associated with that behavior with a stimulus (US) that naturally elicits and incompatible behavior so that the maladaptive behavior is replaced by the incompatible behavior.
a. Overshadowing
b. Counterconditioning
c. Blocking
d. Classical extinction
b. counterconditioning
When using this intervention based on classical conditioning, hierarchically-arranged anxiety-evoking events are paired with relaxation to eliminate anxiety:
a. Counterconditioning
b. Blocking
c. Systematic desensitization
d. Dismantling strategy
c
Research has found that sex therapy is most effective for treating ____________ and ____________.
premature ejaculation; vaginismus
When using ___________________, the maladaptive behavior or a stimulus associated with it (CS) is paired with a stimulus (US) that naturally evokes pain or other unpleasant response. As a result, the maladaptive behavior and stimuli related to it are avoided because they elicit an undesirable response (CR).
a. Counterconditioning
b. Blocking
c. Systematic desensitization
d. Aversive counterconditioning
d
This type of aversive counterconditioning technique is used to treat drug and alcohol addictions, paraphilias, and self-injurious behaviors. When using this technique, the target behavior is paired with an aversive stimulus such as electric shock, noxious odor, or emetic drug.
a. Covert sensitization
b. Blocking
c. Systematic desensitization
d. In vivo aversion therapy
d
Which of the following is not true regarding aversion therapy:
a. It has been found to be moderately effective initially for some patients and some problems (especially cigarette smoking)
b. It has low relapse rates and good generalizability
c. It is most successful when the aversive stimulus or its consequence is similar to the target behavior
d. It is more effective when it’s supplemented by booster sessions or is treated by combining aversion therapy and other techniques that help strengthen more appropriate responses
b
When using _____________ to eliminate a maladaptive behavior, the client imagines engaging in the maladaptive behavior and then imagines (rather than actually confronts) an aversive stimulus.
a. covert sensitization
b. in vivo aversion therapy
c. systematic desensitization
d. flooding
a
To reduce cigarette smoking, a therapist might instruct the client to imagine smoking a cigarette and then visualize becoming nauseated by the cigarette, throwing up on the floor and on him/herself, becoming embarrassed, etc. This is an example of what type of intervention:
a. In vivo aversion therapy
b. Covert sensitization
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Systematic desensitization
b
When using this type of intervention, the client is exposed in “real life” to anxiety-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time and is prohibited from making his/her usual avoidance or other anxiety/reducing response.
a. Implosive therapy
b. EMDR
c. In vivo exposure with response prevention
d. Covert sensitization
c
This is an example of in vivo exposure with response prevention and involves exposure to the most anxiety or fear arousing stimuli for a prolongued period of time:
a. In vivo exposure with response prevention
b. Systematic desensitization
c. Covert sensitization
d. Flooding
d
Studies investigating the effects of in vivo exposure have found all of the following to be true except:
a. Exposure to distressing stimulus and response prevention are both essential components of treatment
b. Several brief exposures to anxiety-arousing stimulus is usually more effective than prolonged continuous exposure.
c. Group exposure can be as effective as individual treatment, and partner-assisted exposure has been found to be an effective approach for Agoraphobia and OCD.
d. High-anxiety provocation during exposure may not be necessary for successful treatment outcome
b. Prolonged continuous exposure to anxiety-arousing stimulus is actually usually more effective than several brief exposures. There is some evidence that the exposure of short duration can actually increase sensitivity to feared stimuli.
This type of intervention is conducted in imagination and involves presenting the feared stimulus vividly enough so as to arouse high levels of anxiety:
a. Systematic desensitization
b. Covert sensitization
c. Flooding
d. Implosive therapy
d
While ___________ conditioning is useful for understanding how certain stimuli automatically evoke reflexes and other relatively simple responses, ___________ conditioning identifies factors responsible for the acquisition and maintenance of complex voluntary behaviors.
classical; operant
Classical extinction occurs when:
a. the CS is presented alone
b. the US is repeatedly presented alone
c. the US and CS are presented simultaneously
d. the CS is presented after the US
a
Dr. Dawg presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that eventually the research participant reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Dawg then pairs stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of:
a. stimulus generalization
b. higher-order conditioning
c. response generalization
d. shaping
b
Dr. Dawg presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that eventually the research participant reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Dawg then pairs stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. In this situation, when Stimulus B is paired with Stimulus A, Stimulus A can be said to be acting as a(n):
a. discriminative stimulus
b. mediated stimulus
c. US
d. CR
c. In the second step of higher-order conditioning, the original CS takes the place of the US when it is paired with the second neutral stimulus
In Watson’s research, Little Albert’s fear of white fur and cotton was the result of:
a. spontaneous recovery
b. higher-order conditioning
c. stimulus generalization
d. experimental neurosis
c
According to Rescorla and Wagner, “blocking” occurs because:
a. the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US
b. one neutral stimulus is more salient than the other neutral stimulus
c. the new neutral stimulus is similar to the original CS
d. one of the neutral stimuli is similar to the US
a Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus and an established CS are presented together prior to the US. In this situation, the new neutral stimulus will not elicit a CR when presented alone,, apparently because it provides redundant information and, as a result, an association between the stimulus and the US is not made
To reduce a client’s cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking the cigarette. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:
a. a conditioned stimulus
b. an unconditioned stimulus
c. a positive punisher
d. a negative punisher
b. The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea. By pairing it with cigarette smoking, smoking will also elicit nausea. Consequently, the stale smoke is acting as an unconditioned stimulus
Studies using the dismantling strategy suggest that which of the following is most responsible for the therapeutic benefits of systematic desensitization?
a. counterconditioning
b. exposure
c. positive reinforcement
d. stimulus discrimination
b
When using covert sensitization:
a. the CS and US are both presented in imagination
b. images of the CS are embellished with psychodynamic themes
c. the CS and US produce incompatible responses
d. the least anxietty-arousing stimuli are presented first
a
Davidson and Parker’s meta-analysis of the research found that the effectiveness of EMDR as a treatment for PTSD is attributable to which of the following?
a. positive self-statements
b. lateral eye movements
c. in vivo counterconditioning
d. exposure to feared stimuli in imagination
d
This operant conditioning term occurs when reinforcement is consistently withheld from a previously reinforced behavior to decrease or eliminate the behavior:
a. Stimulus control
b. Operant extinction
c. Escape conditioning
d. Higher-order conditioning
b
If a rat has been reinforced for bar-pressing, sudden withdrawal of reinforcement will initially cause the rat to bar-press more than usual before bar-pressing begins to decline. The temporary increase in responding during extinction trials is called:
a. an extinction (response) burst
b. positive reinforcement
c. flooding
d. stimulus control
a
When a subject has been reinforced for two different behaviors and reinforcement for one behavior is withdrawn in order to extinguish it, the other behavior is likely to:
a. decrease as well.
b. stay the same.
c. increase.
d. none of the above
c
This type of reinforcer is inherently desirable and does not depend on experience to acquire their reinforcing value. Food and water are examples of these:
a. Secondary reinforcers
b. Conditioned stimulus
c. Unconditioned stimulus
d. Primary reinforcers
d
In general, the rate of acquisition of a behavior is fastest when the behavior is reinforced on a ____________ schedule, that is, when the reinforcement is presented after each response.
continuous
Because satiation and extinction are high for a continuous schedule, once an operant behavior has been acquired, the best way to maintain the behavior is to switch to an ______________ schedule.
intermittent (partial)
A rat on this type of intermittent schedule of reinforcement receives reinforcement every 30 seconds whether it makes only one response or 50 responses during the 30 second period:
a. Fixed Interval
b. Variable Interval
c. Fixed Ratio
d. Variable Ratio
a
Which of the following is not true regarding a Fixed Interval schedule of reinforcement:
a. They tend to produce low rates of responding
b. Subjects typically stop responding after a reinforcer is delivered and then begin responding again toward the end of the reinforcement interval
c. This schedule produces a “scallop” in the cumulative recording of the number of responses made.
d. In a work environment, this schedule tends to produce moderate levels of work
d. In a work environment, this schedule tends to produce minimal levels of work
With this schedule of reinforcement, the interval time between delivery of reinforcers varies in an unpredictable manner from interval to interval. For example, a rat may be reinforced after 15, 40, 30, 20, and 45 seconds as long as it presses the lever at least once during each interval. It produces a steady but relatively low rate of response:
a. Fixed Interval
b. Variable Interval
c. Fixed Ratio
d. Variable Ratio
b
On this type of reinforcement schedule, a reinforcer is delivered each time the subject makes a specific number of responses. Because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is explicit, this schedule produces a relatively high, steady rate of responding, usually with a brief pause following delivery of the reinforcer:
a. Fixed Interval
b. Variable Interval
c. Fixed Ratio
d. Variable Ratio
c
With this type of reinforcement schedule, reinforcers are provided after a variable number of responses. Because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is unpredictable, these schedules produce the highest rates of responding as well as responses that are most resistant to extinction:
a. Fixed Interval
b. Variable Interval
c. Fixed Ratio
d. Variable Ratio
d
When the occurrence of a behavior is affected by the presence of discriminative stimuli, the behavior is said to be under this.
a. Stimulus generalization
b. Response generalization
c. Stimulus control
d. Response control
c
In operant conditioning, escape and avoidance behaviors are both maintained by _____________ reinforcement, but the establishment of avoidance behaviors also involves ____________ conditioning.
negative; classical
The process of reducing the proportion of reinforcements is referred to as:
a. Fading
b. Shaping
c. Thinning
d. Chaining
c
Up to a point, the greater the amount of positive reinforcement, the greater its effectiveness. Past that point, ___________ may occur, which means that the reinforcer has lost its reinforcing value:
a. shaping
b. chaining
c. thinning
d. satiation
d
___________ reinforcers are more susceptible to satiation than _______________ reinforcers, and a _____________ schedule of reinforcement is more susceptible to satiation than the ___________ schedules.
Primary (food, water), secondary, continuous, intermittent
_________ reinforcers acquire their value only through repeated association with primary reinforcers (i.e., tokens, applause, gold stars).
Secondary
This operant conditioning term involves teaching a new behavior through prompting and reinforcing behaviors that come closer and closer to the target behavior:
a. Shaping
b. Chaining
c. Satiation
d. Thinning
a
Involves establishing a sequence of responses when the entire sequence of responses is important:
a. Shaping
b. Chaining
c. Satiation
d. Prompts
b
According to this operant conditioning term, a high probability behavior can be used to reinforce a low probability behavior:
a. Differential reinforecement
b. Habituation
c. Premack Principle
d. Overcorrection
c
A child who engages in stereotyped movements might be reinforced with nickels or tokens for each two-minute period she plays with available toys rather than engaging in the hand movements. In this situation, playing with toys is being reinforced, while hand movements are being extinguished. This is an example of:
a. Habituation
b. Premack Principle
c. Differential reinforcement
d. Positive reinforcement
c
This operant conditioning term describes when a punishment loses its effectiveness:
a. Negative practice
b. Overcorrrection
c. Response cost
d. Habituation
d
This is a form of punishment that entails applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it:
a. Verbal reprimands
b. Overcorrection
c. Response cost
d. Negative practice
b
A type of punishment that requires an individual to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual becomes fatigued:
a. Negative practice
b. Overcorrection
c. Verbal repremands
d. Response cost
a
This is an application of negative punishment and involves removing a specific reinforcer each time the target behavior is performed.
a. Negative practice
b. Overcorrection
c. Response cost
d. Shaping
c
A mother finds that, when she yells at her son, the boy stops picking on his little sister for a brief period. Over time, the mother finds that she has to yell more and more frequently at the boy. The boy is influencing his mother’s behavior through:
a. negative punishment
b. positive punishment
c. negative reinforcement
d. positive reinforcement
c. In this situation, the mother’s yelling is increasing because, when she yells, her son stops picking on his little sister. In other words, the yelling is being negatively reinforced by her son.
A “scallop” in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement?
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable interval
d. variable ratio
a
A mother has been giving her 3-year-old son a hug whenever he says “please” following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops hugging her son, she can expect that the frequency with which he says “please” will:
a. quickly decrease
b. slowly decrease
c. temporarily increase
d. stay the same
c
Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when:
a. a signal is provided that indicates that positive reinforcement will be withheld
b. a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be applied
c. the target behavior is followed by negative reinforcement
d. the target behavior is no longer reinforced
b. Escape and avoidance conditioning are both applications of negative reinforcement. However, avoidance conditioning is more complex and involves providing a cue before the aversive stimulus is applied so that the individual can avoid the aversive stimulus by engaging in the target behavior as the cue is provided
During the initial stages of a behavior change program, verbal or physical prompts may be needed to evoke the desired behaviors. However, after the behavior is established, the prompts should be gradually removed. The gradual removal of prompts is referred to as:
a. narrowing
b. shaping
c. thinning
d. fading
d
An operant technique in which all opportunities for positive reinforcement are made unavailable for a specified period of time following the performance of an undesirable behavior in order to reduce that behavior is known as:
a. response cost
b. overcorrection
c. time-out
d. classical extinction
c
A teacher uses verbal reprimands whenever a students in his class misbehave to reduce their misbehavior. If the reprimands have the desired effect, they are acting as which of the following?
a. positive punishment
b. negative punishment
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
a
A chimpanzee pushes a button to turn on a tone. Once the tone sounds, the chimpanzee pulls a lever to turn on a green light. Once the green light is on, the chimpanzee slides a door open to obtain a treat. Which of the following techniques was used to teach the sequence of behaviors to the chimpanzee?
a. forward conditioning
b. differential reinforcement
c. shaping
d. chaining
d
Differential reinforcement is best conceptualized as:
a. a combination of punishment and positive reinforcement
b. a combination of extinction and positive reinforcement
c. a straightforward application of positive reinforcement
d. a straightforward application of negative reinforcement
b
Overcorrection involves:
a. education, behavior rehearsal, and in vivo practice
b. positive punishment, positive practice, and generalization
c. restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance
d. restitution, behavior rehearsal, and differential reinforcement
c
“Grandma’s rule” - e.g., “you must eat your string beans before you can go outside to play”- is most similar to which of the following techniques?
a. Premack principle
b. negative reinforcement
c. response cost
d. differential reinforcement
a
Tolman’s model of __________________ proposes that learning can occur without reinforcement and without being manifested in performance improvement.
latent learning
Several studies conducted by Kohler established this idea that refers to the apparent sudden understanding of the relationship between elements in a problem-solving situation.
Insight learning
Bandura’s theory that predicts that behaviors can be acquired simply by observing someone else perform those behaviors and that this learning is cognitively mediated and involves attention, retention, production, and motivation.
social learning thoery/observational learning
According to observational/social learning theory, observers are more likely to imitate a model in all of the following situations except:
a. the model is high in status, prestige, or expertise
b. the model is different than the observer, especially in terms of age and gender
c. The model’s behavior is visible, salient, and relevant to the observer’s needs and goals
d. the model has been reinforced for engaging in the behavior (which is referred to as vicarious reinforcement)
b
The reformulated version of the learned helplessness model describes depression as the result of ____________ attributions about negative events. More recently, the model was revised to incorporate the impact of a sense of ___________.
internal, stable, and global; hopelessnes
Tolman used the notion of “cognitive maps” as support for which of the following?
a. the law of effect
b. insight learning
c. latent learning
d. observational learning
c. The notion of cognitive maps was derived from Tolman’s research in which rats were allowed to explore a rat maze without reinforcement for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze; i.e., that they had formed cognitive maps. Tolman referred to learning that occurs without apparent improvements or changes as latent learning
From the perspective of the reformulated version of the learned helplessness model, depression results when a person attributes negative events to:
a. external, stable, and global factors
b. external, unstable, and specific factors
c. internal, unstable, and specific factors
d. internal, stable, and global factors
d
Bandura’s research on the effects of modeling for treating snake phobia found that which of the following was most effective?
a. symbolic modeling
b. participant modeling
c. covert modeling
d. imaginal modeling
b
In Ellis’s A-B-C model, B refers to:
a. behaviors and emotions that occur in response to an antecedent event
b. beliefs about an antecedent event
c. behaviors and emotions that occur in response to beliefs about an antecedent event
d. biological (physiological) responses to an antecedent event
b. In Ellis’s ABC model, A refers to the antecedent condition; B is the individual’s belief about the antecendent, and C is the emotional or behavioral response to B
A therapy client says, “I feel useless and incompetent and, therefor, I must be a worthless person.” From the perspective of Beck’s cognitive therapy, this is an example of:
a. selective abstraction
b. overgeneralization
c. magnification
d. emotional reasoning
d
A practitioner of beck’s cognitive therapy uses_______ questions to help clients identify and correct their logical errors and biases.
a. Socratic
b. strategic
c. circular
d. scaling
a
Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through are three overlapping phases of which of the following interventions?
a. problem-solving therapy
b. attribution retraining
c. stress inoculation
d. self-instructional training
c
Biofeedback is more effective than relaxation training for which of the following?
a. lower back pain
b. hypertension
c. insomnia
d. Raynaud’s disease
d
Sensory memory:
a. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a brief period
b. holds a very small amount of sensory data for a long period
c. holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period
d. holds a large amount of sensory data for a long period
c
Echoic is to iconic as:
a. procedural is to declarative
b. temporary is to permanent
c. external is to internal
d. auditory is to visual
d; The terms echoic and iconic are used to describe sensory memories. Echoic memory is for sounds, while iconic memory is memory for visual stimuli and takes the form of mental images
Craik and Lockhart’s levels-of-processing model:
a. describes memory in terms of a “dual store.”
b. implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal
c. implies that the duration of rehearsal is more important the the depth of rehearsal
d. focuses on the biological correlates of the short- and long-term memory
b; The levels of processing model distinguishes between three levels: structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic (meaning) level, and elaborative rehearsal encodes information at the semantic level
A person with deficits in prospective memory will have trouble:
a. remembering to return her mother’s phone call
b. remembering what she did on her last birthday
c. recalling how to play the violin after not doing so for several years
d. recalling the information needed to answer this question
a Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action in the future. A person with deficits in prospective memory would have difficulty remembering to return phone calls and recalling future meetings or appointments
In high school, you took Spanish for four years and, as a result, became a pretty good speaker of Spanish. During your first year of college, you took French and, at the end of the year, you found you had trouble remembering many Spanish words. this is best explained by with of the following?
a. retroactive interference
b. proactive interference
c. anterograde decay
d. retrograde decay
a Retroactive interference occurs when something learned in the present interferes with something that was learned in the past
As conceptualized by Baddeley and Hitch’s multi-component model, the _______ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information.
a. cognitive sketchpad
b. sensory coding system
c. central executive
d. episodic buffer
c. According to Baddeley’s multi-compneent model, working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems - the phonological loop, the visuo spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer. The central executive is the primary component of working membory and acts as an “attentional control system.”
A research participant remembers a list of unrelated words by envisioning each item in a different location in her living room. This is referred to as:
a. the keyword method
b. the method of loci
c. the savings method
d. context-dependent learning
b
A memory process which describes the translation of incoming stimuli into a code that can be processed by the brain. Although it is automatic, it is more effective when it involves deliberate rehearsal:
a. Encoding
b. Storage
c. Retrieval
d. Declarative
a
A memory process which is the process of maintaining information in memory and can be disrupted by several factors including retroactive and proactive interference and brain trauma:
a. Encoding
b. Storage
c. Retrieval
d. Declarative
b
A memory process which refers to the recovery of stored information:
a. Encoding
b. Storage
c. Retrieval
d. Declarative
c
Rational-emotive behavior (REBT) therapy conceptualizes behavior in terms of an “A-B-C” chain where A is an external event, B is the individual’s _____________, and C is the _____________. In other words, an emotional or behavioral response to an event (A) is due to ___________ about that event rather than to the event itself.
beliefts about A; emotional or behavioral result of B; beliefs
According to Ellis, the primary cause of neurosis is:
a. lack of successful attachment to a caregiver
b. continual repetition of certain common irrational beliefs
c. difficulty adjusting to the social environment
d. unsuccessful progression through any of Freud’s psychosexual stages
b
This cognitive restructuring technique was originally used to help impulsive and hyperactive children perform academic and other tasks more successfully by teaching them to interpolate adaptive self-controlling thoughts between a stimulus situation and their response to that situation. Involves five steps: Cognitive modeling, cognitive participant modeling, overt self-instruction, fading overt self-instruction, and covert self-instruction.
a. Attribution retraining
b. Socratic dialogue
c. Self-instructional training
d. Thought stopping
c
This cognitive restructuring technique entails eliminating obsessive ruminations, self-criticism, depressive or anxiety-arousing ideas, and other unwanted or unproductive thoughts by using suck techniques as covertly yelling “stop” or snapping a rubber band placed around the wrist whenever unwanted thoughts occur.
a. Attribution retraining
b. Socratic dialogue
c. Self-instructional training
d. Thought stopping
d
This cognitive restructuring technique focuses on altering the individual’s perceptions of the causes of his or her problematic behavior and has been successfully used to treat depression, anxiety, alcoholism, and several other disorders as well as to improve the academic performance of underachieving students.
a. Attribution retraining
b. Socratic dialogue
c. Self-instructional training
d. Thought stopping
a
This is a brief form of therapy that is usually conducted as group therapy and is based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control increase a person’s vulnerability to depression and make it difficult to deal effectively with depressive symptoms.
a. Problem-solving therapy
b. Self-control therapy
c. Rational-Emotive behavior therapy (REBT)
d. Cognitive therapy
b
Lewinsohn’s behavioral model attributes depression to a low rate of _________________.
response-contingent reinforcement
The sensory store for auditory information is called the ___________ store, while the store for the visual stimuli is referred to as ____________ store.
echoic; iconic
Short-term memory holds a limited amount of information, and, without rehearsal, information in STM begins to fade within ____ seconds.
30
Information is more likely to be transferred to Long term memory with ____________ rehearsal, which involves relating new information to existing information, than with ___________ rehearsal, which involves simply repeating the information with little or no processing
elaborative; maintenance
Three levels of processing according to the levels-of-processing model
structural, phonemic, and semantic
Which component of long-term memory stores information about how to do things and is used to acquire, retain, and employ perceptual, cognitive, and motor skills and habits?
a. Procedural memory
b. Declarative memory
c. Echoic memory
d. Prospective memory
a
This component of long-term memory mediates the acquisition of facts and other information:
a. Procedural memory
b. Declarative memory
c. Echoic memory
d. Prospective memory
b
This aspect of declarative memory includes general knowledge that is independent of any context and is responsible for the storage of facts, rules, and concepts.
a. Prospective memory
b. Procedural memory
c. Semantic memory
d. Episodic memory
c
This aspect of declarative memory consists of information about events that have been personally experienced:
a. Prospective memory
b. Procedural memory
c. Semantic memory
d. Episodic memory
d
Of the following, which is more affected by normal aging?
a. Episodic memory
b. Semantic memory
c. Procedural memory
d. Prospective memory
a
This aspect of long-term memory is responsible for the capacity to remember to do things in the future.
a. Episodic memory
b. Semantic memory
c. Procedural memory
d. Prospective memory
c
According to the interference theory of forgetting, interference is most likely when:
a. the information to be recalled is important
b. the new and old information are different
c. the information to be recalled is not important and the new and old information are different
d. the information to be recalled is not important and the new and old information are similar
d
This occurs when recently learned (new) material interferes with the recall of previously learned (old) material.
Retroactive interference
This occurs when prior (old) learning interferes with the learning or recall of subsequent (new) material.
Proactive interference
This principle proposes that the greater the similarity between the way information is encoded and the cues that are present at the time of recall, the better the recall.
Encoding specificity
According to this, moderate levels of arousal maximize the efficiency of learning and performance, while extremely low and high levels are associated with decreased efficiency.
Yerkes-Dodson law
