Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EPPP 1664 > Lifespan Development > Flashcards

Lifespan Development Flashcards

1
Q

Adaptation

A

According to Piaget, cognitive development occurs when a state of disequilibrium brought on by a discrepancy between the person’s current understanding of the world and reality is resolved through adaptation, which entails two complementary processes: Assimilation and accomodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Assimilation

A

One of Piaget’s processes of adaptation

The incorporation of new knowledge into existing cognitive schemas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Accomodation

A

One of Piaget’s processes of adaption

The modification of existing schemas to incorporate new knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Brofenbrenner described development as involving interactions between the individual and his/her context or environment, and his __________ model describes the context in terms of five environmental systems or levels.

A

ecological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The ____________ is the child’s immediate environment and includes face to face relationships within the home, school, and neighborhood.

A

microsystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The _______________ refers to interactions between components of the microsystem, such as the influence of family factors on the child’s behavior in school.

A

mesosystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The __________ consists of elements of the broader environment that affect the child’s immediate environment and includes the parents’ workplace, the school board, community agencies, local industry, and the mass media. a. each employee’s most prepotent need must be identtified

b. each employees level of “job maturity” must be identified
c. employees must be given a raise
d. employees must be given more individual responsibility and autonomy

A

exosystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ___________ is comprised of such overarching environmental influences as cultural beliefs and practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies.

A

macrosystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The __________ consists of environmental events that occur over an individual’s lifespan and impact the individual in ways that depend on the individual’s circumstances and developmental stage (e.g., the immediate and long-term effects of a change in family structure or socioeconomic status).

A

chronosystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following disorders is caused by the presence off an extra chromosome 21 and is characterized by mental retardation, retarded physical growth and motor development, distinctive physical features, and increased susceptibility to Alzheimer’s dementia, leukemia, and heart defects?

a. Klinefelter Syndrome
b. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
c. Down Syndrome
d. Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This is caused by an abnormality in the number of sex chromosomes, occurs in males, and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes along with a single Y chromosomes. A male with this disorder has a small penis and testes, develops breasts during puberty, has limited interrest in sexual activity, is often sterile, and may have learning disabilities.

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is caused by an abbnormality in the number of sex chromosomes, occurs in females and is caused by the presence of a single X chromosome. Females with this disorder are short in stature, have characteristic physical features (e.g. drooping eyelids, webbed neck), have retarded or absent develoopment of the secondary sex charactteristics and may exhibit cerrtain coggnitive deficits.

A

Turner Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

______________ are substances that cause birth defects in the developing fetus and include drugs, chemicals, and certain maternal conditions.

A

Teratogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

While the central nervous system is vulnerable to the effects off teratogens throughout prenatal development, major damage is most likely to occur when exposure occurs between the beginning of the _______ week through the middle off the _______ week following conception.

A

third; sixth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During this stage of Piaget’s cognitive development, a child learns about objects and other people through the sensory information they provide (how they look, feel, and taste) ant the actions that can be performed on them (sucking, grasping, hitting, etc.). Piaget proposed that the predominant type of learning during this phase is the result of circular reactions, which are actions that are performed in order to reproduce events that initially occurred by chance.

A

Sensorimotor stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Classical extinction occurs when:

a. the CS is repeatedly presented alone
b. the US is repeatedly presented alone
c. The US and CS are presented simultaneously
d. the CS is presented after the US

A

a. Extinction of a CR (conditioned response) occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Dr. Dawg presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that eventually the research participant reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Dawg then pairs Stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of:

a. stimulus generalization
b. higher-order conditioning
c. response generalization
d. shaping

A

b. In this situation, a neutral (conditioned) stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus so that the former eventually elicits a conditioned response. This describes a type of classical conditioning known as higherr-order (second-order) conditioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first stage of prenatal development?

A

First two weeks make up the germinal stage. During this stage, the fertilized egg is called a zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the second stage of prenatal development

A

The embryonic stage; beginning of the third week through the eight week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the last stage of prenatal development?

A

The fetal stage; begins at the onset of the ninth week and continues until birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The risk for fetal alcohol syndrome is greatest and the symptoms most severe when:

A

the mother drinks heavily every day during pregnancy or engages in binge drinking in the early stages of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

genotype

A

a person’s genetic inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

phenotype

A

refers to a person’s observed characteristics, which are due to a combination of heredity and environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

critical period

A

a specific, predetermined period of time during biological maturation when an organism is particularly sensitive to certain stimuli that can have either a positive or negative impact on development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sensitive periods

A

longer in duration and more flexible than critical periods, and they are not tied as closely to chronological age or maturational stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

By about age _____, the brain starts to gradually shrink as the result of a loss of neurons, and there is an acceleration of this brain atrophy after age _____.

A

30; 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The brain is only about _____% of its adult weight at birth.

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

By the time a child reaches two years of age, the brain has reached nearly _____% of its adult weight.

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

At what age does the brain reach its full adult weight?

A

16 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some changes in the aging brain?

A

development of senile plaques, enlargement of ventricles, reduced blood flow to the brain and a decrease in the level of some neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some positive things that happen to the aging brain?

A

The brain attempts to compensate for neuronal loss by developing new connections between the remaining neurons; new neurons develop during the adult years in some areas of the brain, including the hippocampus and cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This early reflex is when a newborn’s toes fan out and upward when soles of the feet are tickled:

a. Babinski
b. Rooting
c. Moro
d. Stepping

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

This early reflex describes when a newborn turns their head in the direction of touch applied to the cheek:

a. Babinski
b. Rooting
c. Moro
d. Stepping

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

This early reflex describes when an infant flings their arms and legs outward and then toward the body in response to a loud noise or sudden loss of physical support:

a. Babinski
b. Rooting
c. Moro
d. Stepping

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

This early reflex describes when an infant makes coordinated walking movements when held upright with feed touching a flat surface:

a. Babinski
b. Rooting
c. Moro
d. Stepping

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the senses is least well developed at birth:

a. Audition
b. Vision
c. Taste and smell
d. Pain

A

b. At birth, the newborn sees at 20 feet what normal adults see at about 200 to 400 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At what age is an infant’s visual acuity probably very close to that of a normal adult?

a. 1 year
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 18 months

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in motor development:

a. In middle childhood, girls are more physically mature than same-aged boys and are superior in skills requiring flexibility, agility, and balance
b. In middle childhood, boys are superior in physical skills that require strength and gross-motor abilities
c. Beginning in early adolescence, the disparity between boys and girls decreases substantially.
d. The research has found a correlation between proportion of adipose tissue and motor performance for both boys and girls

A

c. Beginning in early adolescence, the disparity between boys and girls INCREASES substantially, with boys excelling on most measures of motor ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is true about the consequences of early, late, and on-time physical maturation in adolescence on boys?

a. Early maturation can lead to better adjustment and greater popularity with peers
b. Early maturation is associated with superior athletic skill
c. Late-maturing boys are more childish, exhibit more attention-seeking behaviors, and have less confidence
d. all of the above

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is true about the consequences of early, late, and on-time physical maturation in adolescence on girls?

a. Early maturing girls tend to have a better self-concept
b. Early maturing girls tend to have higher academic achievement
c. Early maturing girls tend to engage in sexually-precocious behavior and drug and alcohol use
d. Early maturing girls tend to have a lower risk for developing depression or an eating disorder

A

c. Early maturing girls tend to have a poor self-concept, to be dissatisfied with their physical development, to have lower academic achievement, to engage in sexually-precocious behavior and drug and alcohol use, and to be at a higher risk for developing depression or an eating disorder. Late-maturing girls also suffer some adverse effects as the result of being treated like “little girls,” and they tend to be dissatisfied with their appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most adults begin to notice some inability to focus on close object and experience problems with hearing by around what age:

a. 35
b. 40
c. 45
d. 50

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Among individuals between 75 and 79, at least _____% have hearing deficits that interfere with daily functioning:

a. 25
b. 35
c. 50
d. 60

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or false: Research data consistently support the contention that males are biologically more vulnerable than females.

A

True; for example, more males are stillborn or spontaneously aborted, and a higher percentage of male infants die of congenital malformations or birth injuries. In addition, males are more vulnerable than females to disorders that have been linked to biological factors including many physical illnesses as well as mental retardation, learning disabilities, and certain behavioral disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the most frequently used drug by adolescents?

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the personal fable?

A

the belief that one is uniques and not subject to the natural laws that govern others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the imaginary audience?

A

the belief that one is always the center of attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some key terms in Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory?

A

Zone of proximal development; scaffolding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are some differences between Vygotsky and Piaget’s theories?

A

Vygotsky acknowledged the impact of biology on cognitive development but placed greater emphasis on the role of social and cultural factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the term that refers to instruction, assistance, and support and is most effective when it involves modeling, providing cues, and encouraging the child to think about alternative plans of action?

a. Zone of proximal development
b. Scaffolding
c. Assimilation
d. Accomodation

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the term that refers to the discrepancy between a child’s current developmental level (the level at which the child can function independently) and the level of development that is just behond his or her current level?

a. Zone of proximal development
b. Scaffolding
c. Assimilation
d. Accomodation

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Memory differences between younger and older children (and adults) are related to improvements in ______________.

A

metacognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In adults aged 50 and older, greater recall of very recent events is referred to as the __________ effect, while greater recall of events that occurred from about age 10 to 30 is referred to as the ____________ bump.

A

recency; reminiscence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the term for the phenomenon that, for older adults, peak arousal and task performance levels occur in the morning, while younger adults have higher levels of both in the evening?

A

synchrony effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Research comparing the memory of children and adults suggest that, until about age __________, children do not regularly use rehearsal, elaborabion, and other memory strategies.

A

9 or 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Among older adults, __________ memory shows the greatest age-related declines, which appear to be due primarily to problems related to the use of effective ___________ strategies.

A

recent long-term (secondary); encoding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Investigators interested in giftedness have found that gifted children process information more rapidly, use more effective learning strategies, and may have better _____________ skills than do their nongifted peers.

A

metacognitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

This theory of language development attributes language acquisition to biological mechanisms and stresses universal patterns of language development:

a. behaviorist approach
b. interactionist approach
c. social approach
d. nativist approach

A

d. Chomsky proposed that an innate language acquisition device (LAD) makes it possible for a person to acquire language just by being exposed to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

This approach to language development proposes that language is acquired like any other behavior through imitation and reinforcement:

a. behaviorist approach
b. interactionist approach
c. social approach
d. nativist approach

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This approach to language development emphasizes that language development is attributable to a combination of biological and environment factors:

a. behaviorist approach
b. interactionist approach
c. social approach
d. nativist approach

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This is a term that linguists use to refer to a child’s use of his or her knowledge of the meaning of words to infer their syntactical (grammatical) category. In other words, children learn that words that refer to objects or persons are nouns, words that refer to actions are verbs, etc.

A

semantic bootstrapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

This is a term linguists use to refer to a child’s use of syntactical knowledge to learn the meaning of new words.

A

syntactic bootstrapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the term for the smallest units of sound that are understood in a language?

A

Phonemes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the term that refers to the smallest units of sound that convey meaning?

A

Morphemes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Infants initially produce three distinct patterns of crying. Name them

A

a hungry cry, an angry cry, a pain cry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are first words most often?

A

labels for objects, people, or events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the term for speech that involves using gestures and intonation to turn a single word into a comment, question, or command?

A

holophrastic speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the term for the error that occurs when a child applies a word too narrowly to objects or situations? For instance, a young child might use the word “dish” to refer only to the plastic dish that he normally uses.

a. overextension
b. underextension
c. telegraphic speech
d. holophrastic speech

A

b.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

This error occurs when a child applies a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate. For example, Fred called all four legged animals cows for several months:

a. overextension
b. underextension
c. telegraphic speech
d. holophrastic speech

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Research has identified several consistent gender differences in language use: In conversations, males talk for longer intervals and are more likely to _____________, while females are more likely to _______________.

A

interrupt; ask questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Overall, studies on bilingual education suggest that language-minority children who participate in high-quality programs do ______________ those who participate in English-only programs in terms of English skills and knowledge of subject matter.

A

as well as or better than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the term for the common practice among bilinguals, which involves alternating between languages during a conversation, often to better express him- or herself, establish rapport with the listenerr, or more effectively express his or her attitude toward the listener?

A

Code switching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A developmental psychologist investigating the influence of Bronfenbrenner’s mesosystem on child development will focus on:

a. factors that affect prenatal development
b. interactions between home and school
c. relationships between family members
d. cultural influences

A

b. Bronfenbrenner distinguished between five levels of environmental influence on child development. The mesosystem is comprised of interactions between components of the child’s microsystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Research by Werner and Smith found that a high-risk baby is least likely to suffer long-term negative consequences if:

a. he or she has a higher-than-average IQ
b. his or her mother doesn’t work outside the home
c. he or she has a large family
d. he or she is socially responsive

A

d. Werner and Smith’s longitudinal study indicated that high-risk babies are most likely to show resilience when they exhibit an easy temperament

74
Q

During a critical period:

a. a behavior changes in the direction of more advanced development regardless of the nature of the environmental events
b. a particular aspect of development is most sensitive to environmental influences
c. an organism is unable to respond effectively to the demands of the environment
d. an organism experiences a severe setback in development

A

b. A critical period is a specific period in an organism’s development when it is particularly sensitive to certain environmental influences. In geese, for example, the critical period for imprinting is two to three days following birth

75
Q

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome:

a. are largely short-term
b. are reversible with the appropriate diet after birth
c. often include hyperactivity and learning problems
d. are restricted primarily to minor physical abnormalities

A

c. The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the woman during pregnancy, but generally include facial deformities, mental retardation, and hyperactivity. Most symptoms are irreversible.

76
Q

An infant’s rapid brain development during the first year of life is due primarily to:

a. an increasing number of neurons
b. strengthening of existing neural connections
c. increasing myelinization of axons
d. increasing efficiency of neurotransmitters

A

c. Most brain cells are present at birth. However, there is considerable growth of the brain, especially the cortex, following birth and this growth is due to an increased size of existing neurons, increased dendritic branching, and the formation of glial cells, which are responsible for the myelinization fo nerve axons

77
Q

Which of the following is true about the consequences of early physical maturation for adolescents?

a. Boys tend to benefit from early maturation; girls do not
b. Girls tend to benefit from early maturation; boys do not
c. Boys and girls both suffer negative consequences from early maturation
d. Boys and girls both benefit from early maturation

A

a

78
Q

Most infants can bee expected to take their first steps alone at about ___ months of age.

a. 9
b. 12
c. 15
d. 18

A

b

79
Q

Recent surveys indicate that adolescents are most likely to say they have used which of the following drugs in the past month?

a. tobacco
b. inhalants
c. marijuana
d. alcohol

A

d. The surveys have consistently shown that alcohol is the most frequently used drug by adolescents

80
Q

As defined by Piaget, assimilation involves:

a. engaging in repetitive or stereotyped actions
b. shifting from one stage of development to the next
c. adjusting existing knowledge to better “fit” new information or experiences
d. incorporating new information into existing knowledge

A

d

81
Q

According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all other aspects is characteristic of the ___________ stage:

a. preconventional
b. conventional
c. preoperational
d. concrete operational

A

c. Piaget described centration as one of the reasons why young children cannot conserve. During the preoperational stage, several limitations (including centration) underly the child’s inability to conserve

82
Q

In response to your concerns about the potential consequences of his risk-taking behaviors, a 16-year old says, “Don’t worry, it can’t happen to me.” according to Elkind this is a manifestation of:

a. egocentrism
b. an internal locus of control
c. foreclosure
d. cognitive dissonance

A

a. This adolescent is exhibiting adolescent egocentrism, which is manifested in two phenomena: the imaginary audience and the personal fable. The latter is characterized by a sense of invulnerability

83
Q

For Vygotsky, scaffolding:

a. refers to biological maturation
b. involves social interactions
c. is the result of internalization
d. refers to the use of effective memory strategies

A

b. Vygotskyy used the term “scaffolding” to refer to the assistance that teachers, parents, or more experienced peers provide to children

84
Q

Children under the age of 9 often have trouble with memory tasks because of their:

a. limited memory span
b. inconsistent use of rehearsal and other memory strategies
c. lack of understanding of the demands of the task
d. lack of ability to focus for an extended period of time on the task

A

b.

85
Q

Which of the following best describes changes in memory that are associated with normal aging?

a. Short-term memory is most adversely affected due to a reduced storage capacitty
b. Long-term memory is most adversely affected due to a reduced storage capacity
c. Remote long-term memory is most adversely affected due to inadequate retrieval cues
d. Recent long-term memory is most adversely affected due to inadequate encoding strategies

A

d.

86
Q

For most children, babbling narrows the sounds of the child’s native language between _______ months of age.

a. 4 to 6
b. 6 to 9
c. 9 and 14
d. 14 and 18

A

c

87
Q

Which of the following is an example of a morpheme?

a. ing
b. spr
c. di-di-di
d. me go

A

a. Morphemes are the smallest units of sound that convey meaning. Morphemes are made up of one or more phonemes. Examples include words like “do” and “go” and prefixes and suffixes such as “un,” “ed,” and “ing.”

88
Q

Refers to a person’s basic disposition, which influences how he or she responds to situations. Seems to be affected by heredity and is, to some degree, apparent at birth and predictive of later personality and adjustment

A

Temperament

89
Q

Based their finding that the relationship between early temperament and later adjustment, Thomas and Chess developed this model that predicts that it is the degree of match between parents’ behaviors and their child’s temperament that contributes to the child’s outcomes

A

Goodness-of-fit model

90
Q

Fixation at this stage of Freud’s psychosexual development theory results in dependence, passivity, gullibility, sarcasm and habits like smoking, nail biting, and overeating:

a. oral stage
b. anal stage
c. phallic stage
d. latency stage

A

a

91
Q

Fixation at this stage produces anal retentiveness (stinginess, selfishness, obsessive-compulsive behavior) or anal expulsiveness (cruelty, destructiveness, messiness):

a. oral stage
b. anal stage
c. phallic stage
d. genital stage

A

b.

92
Q

The primary task of this pychosexual stage in Freud’s theory is the resolution of the Oedipal conflic, which is marked by a desire for the opposite-sex parent and a view of the same-sex parent as a rival. A successful outcome results from identification with the same-sex parent and development of the superego:

a. oral stage
b. anal stage
c. phallic stage
d. genital stage

A

c

93
Q

Fixation at this one of Freud’s stages of psychosexual development can result in the sexual exploitation of others:

a. oral stage
b. phallic stage
c. latency stage
d. genital stage

A

b

94
Q

During this one of Freud’s stages of psychosexual stages, libidinal energy is diffuse rather than focused on any one area of the body, and the emphasis is on developing social skills rather than achieving sexual gratification:

a. oral stage
b. anal stage
c. phallic stage
d. latency stage

A

d

95
Q

Success in this one of Freud’s psychosexual stages of development occurs when sexual desire is blended with affection to produce mature sexual relationships:

a. oral stage
b. anal stage
c. latency stage
d. genital stage

A

d

96
Q

What are the two dimensions of parenting combined in Baumrind and colleagues’ parenting style?

A

Responsivity (acceptance and warmth) and demandingness (control)

97
Q

This type of parent exhibits a high degree of demandingness and low responsivity. They impose absolute standards of conduct, stress obedience, and use physical punishment, threats, deprivation, and other power assertive techniques to gain compliance:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

a

98
Q

Children of these types of parents are often irritable, aggressive, mistrusting, and dependent and have a limited sense of responsibility and low levels of self-esteem and academic achievement:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

a

99
Q

These type of parents combine rational control with responsivity. Although they set clear rules and high standards for their children, they rely on reasoning, praise, explanations, and other inductive techniques to gain compliance, and they encourage independence:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

b

100
Q

The children of these types of parents tend to be assertive, socially responsible, and achievement oriented, have high self-esteem, are self-confident, and usually obtain high grades in school:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

b

101
Q

These types of parents are warm and caring but make few demands and are non-punitive. They allow their children to make their own decisions about what chores to complete, when to go to bed, etc.:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

c

102
Q

Children of these types of parents tend to be immature, impulsive, self-centered, easily frustrated, and low in achievement and independence:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

c

103
Q

These types of parents exhibit low levels of responsivity and demandingness, and they may be overtly hostile toward their children:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

d

104
Q

Children of these parents have low self-esteem and poor self-control and are often impulsive, moody, and aggressive:

a. Authoritarian
b. Authoritative
c. Permissive
d. Rejecting-neglecting

A

d

105
Q

Research has found that adolescent delinquency is associated with all of the parental characteristics below except:

a. Lack of parental warmth
b. Lack of supervision
c. Overindulgence
d. Inconsistent or harsh punishment

A

c

106
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the influence of cultural/ethnic background and parenting style?

a. Asian-American adolescents do well academically even though their parents often rely on many of the parenting practices characteristic of an authoritarian style.
b. Latino- and African-American adolescents do not do as well in school as Anglo-Americans do even when their parents are authoritative, apparently because they receive little support from their peers for academic achievement
c. African-American children respond better to an authoritarian style of parenting
d.

A

c

107
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding family composition?

a. First-borns tend to have more rapid language acquisitionachieve higher grades in school and higher scores on IQ tests
b. Later-borns are often less cautious, have better peer relationships, and are more confident in social situations
c. The larger the family and the smaller the gap between children, the lower the children’s achievement
d. Later borns are usually more achievement oriented and socially responsible

A

d. That is actually true of first-borns

108
Q

From ages 2 to 6, self-descriptions focus on concrete physical characteristics, ____________, and preferences; and, in middle childhood (ages 6 to 10), children’s self-descriptions often refer to their____________.

A

specific behaviors; competencies

109
Q

At what age do most children label themselves as either a boy or girl, classify others as being of the same or opposite sex, and know what behaviors are considered appropriate and inappropriate for a boy or girl?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

b

110
Q

According to Freud’s psychodynamic theory, the development of gender-role identity depends on successful resolution of which psychosexual stage:

a. Oral
b. Anal
c. Phallic
d. Genital

A

c. Successful resolution of the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage of development results in identification with the same-sex parent

111
Q

According to this theory, children first acquire gender-typed behaviors as the result of a combination of rewards and punishments and modeling and imitation:

a. Gender Schema theory
b. Social learning theory
c. Cognitive development theory
d. Psychodynamic theory

A

b

112
Q

This theory attributes the acquisition of gender-role identity to a combination of social learning and cognitive development. Children develop schemas of masculinity and femininity as the result of their sociocultural experiences and these schemas then organize how the individual perceives and thinks about the world:

a. Social learning theory
b. Psychodynamic thoery
c. Cognitive development theory
d. Gender schema theory

A

d

113
Q

This model of gender-role development entails a predictable sequence of stages; gender identity (by age two or three), gender stability, and gender constancy:

a. Psychodynamic theory
b. Cognitive development theory
c. Social learning theory
d. Gender Schema theory

A

b

114
Q

Some studies suggest that infants may exhibit awareness of racial differences as early as ____ months of age.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

A

d

115
Q

According to a study by Katz (2003), the preference for same-race peers:

a. Decreases from ages three to six for white and black children
b. Increases from ages three to six for white and black children
c. Increases from ages three to six for white children but decreases during this period for black children
d. Decreases from ages three to six for white children but decreases during this period for black children

A

c

116
Q

Which stage of Marcia’s identity statuses describes a time when adolescents have not yet experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives and are not committed to an identity?

a. Identity diffusion
b. Identity foreclosure
c. Identity moratorium
d. Identity Achievement

A

a

117
Q

Which stage of Marcia’s identity statuses describe when an adolescent has not yet experienced a crisis but have adopted an identity that has been imposed by the same-sex parent or other person?

a. Identity diffusion
b. Identity foreclosure
c. Identity moratorium
d. Identity Achievement

A

b

118
Q

Which stage of Marcia’s identity statuses occur when an adolescent experiences an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities?

a. Identity diffusion
b. Identity foreclosure
c. Identity moratorium
d. Identity Achievement

A

c. It is during this period that teens exhibit a high degree of confusion, discontent, and rebelliousness

119
Q

Which stage of Marcia’s identity statuses describes the time when adolescents have resolved the identity crisis by evaluating alternatives and committing to an identity?

a. Identity diffusion
b. Identity foreclosure
c. Identity moratorium
d. Identity Achievement

A

d

120
Q

Anxiety about death seems to be greatest among ___________.

a. Children
b. Young adults
c. Middle-aged adults
d. Older adults

A

c

121
Q

What are the five stages of grief?

A
  1. Denial and isolation
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
122
Q

According to Bowlby, as a result of experiences during the stages of attachment development, a child develops this, which is a mental representation of self and others that influences the child’s future relationships.

A

Internal working model

123
Q

This sign of attachment appears by about six months of age and is when infants look to a caregiver to determine how to respond in new or ambiguous situations:

a. Separation Anxiety
b. Imprinting
c. Stranger Anxiety
d. Social referencing

A

d

124
Q

This sign of attachment begins at about six to 8 months of age, peaks in intensity at 14 to 18 months, and then gradually declines. It refers to severe distress that occurs when a child is separated from his or her primary caregiver:

a. Social referencing
b. Stranger anxiety
c. Separation anxiety
d. Imprinting

A

c

125
Q

Stranger anxiety begins and ends at what ages:

a. 8 to 10 month and by about age two
b. 8 to 10 month and by about 18 months
c. 10 to 12 months and by about age two
d. 10 to 12 months and by about 18 months

A

a

126
Q

A baby with this kind of attachment alternates between clinging and resisting his or her mother; becomes very disturbed when left alone with a stranger; and is ambivalent when the mother returns and may become angry and resist her attempts at physical contact:

a. Secure
b. Insecure (Anxious)/Amivalent
c. Insecure (Anxious)/Avoidant
d. Disorganized/Disoriented

A

b

127
Q

Mothers of children with this type of attachment style are often moody and inconsistent in their caregiving:

a. Secure
b. Insecure (Anxious)/Amivalent
c. Insecure (Anxious)/Avoidant
d. Disorganized/Disoriented

A

b

128
Q

Babies with this type of attachment style interact very little with their mother, show little distress when she leaves the room, and avoids or ignores her when she returns:

a. Secure
b. Insecure (Anxious)/Amivalent
c. Insecure (Anxious)/Avoidant
d. Disorganized/Disoriented

A

c

129
Q

Mothers of children with this type of attachment style are very impatient and unresponsive or, at the other extreme, provide their children with too much stimulation:

a. Secure
b. Insecure (Anxious)/Amivalent
c. Insecure (Anxious)/Avoidant
d. Disorganized/Disoriented

A

c

130
Q

Children with this type of attachment exhibit fear of their caregiverrs, a dazed or confused facial expression, and a variety of other random attachment behaviors. About 80% of infants who have been mistreated by their caregivers exhibit this pattern:

a. Secure
b. Insecure (Anxious)/Amivalent
c. Insecure (Anxious)/Avoidant
d. Disorganized/Disoriented

A

d

131
Q

Patterson and his colleagues attribute high levels of aggressiveness in children to ___________ interactions between children and their parents and poor _______ of children’s activities.

A

coercive; parental monitoring

132
Q

Aggressive behavior has been linked to several social-cognitive factors including a tendency to interpret the positive or ambiguous actions of others as _______________.

A

intentionally hostile

133
Q

There is evidence that cognitive training, which focuses on fostering ___________ and identifying alternative behaviors, is effective for reducing aggressive behaviors in children.

A

empathy

134
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, what term would describe a child who exhibits little concern for rules?

a. Premoral stage
b. Heteronomous morality
c. Autonomous morality
d. Postconventional morality

A

a. occurs prior to age six

135
Q

According to Piaget, this term refers to when children believe that rules are set by authority figures and are ulterable.

a. Premoral stage
b. Heteronomous morality
c. Autonomous morality
d. Conventional morality

A

b. ages 7 to 10

136
Q

Children in this stage of Piaget’s moral development theory view rules as arbitrary and as being alterable when the people who are governed by them agree to change them. When judging an act, they focus more on the intention of the actor than on the act’s consequences.

a. Premoral stage
b. Heteronomous morality
c. Autonomous morality
d. Conventional morality

A

c

137
Q

Which stage of Kohlberg’s theory includes the following ideas: punishment and obedience orientation (the goodness or badness of an act depends on its consequences; the right course of action is the one that allows them to avoid punishment) and instrumental hedonism (judgments are based more on obtaining rewards and satisfying personal needs than on avoiding punishment):

a. Preconventional morality
b. Conventional morality
c. Postconventional morality
d. Autonomous morality

A

a

138
Q

People in this one of Kohlberg’s levels of moral development have the following orientations: “Good boy/good girl” orientation (the right action is the one that is liked or approved of by others) and law and order orientation (moral judgments are based on rules and laws established by legitimate authorities):

a. Preconventional morality
b. Conventional morality
c. Postconventional morality
d. Autonomous morality

A

b

139
Q

Which stage of Kohlberg’s theory includes the following ideas: Morality of contract, individual rights, and democratically accepted laws and morality or individual principles of conscience (right and wrong are determined on the basis of broad, self-chosen universally applicable ethical principles):

a. Preconventional morality
b. Conventional morality
c. Postconventional morality
d. Autonomous morality

A

c

140
Q

Gilligan criticized Kohlberg’s theory on the grounds that it applies more to males who focus on justice and _____________ when making moral judgments than to females who focus more on _________ and responsibility to others.

A

individual rights; caring

141
Q

Following divorce, custodial mothers are often less warm and loving toward their children and are less consistent and more ________ in terms of punishment.

A

authoritarian

142
Q

The effects of divorce on children tend to be most profound during the ____________ after the divorce.

A

first year

143
Q

A number of studies suggest that the immediate consequences of divorce are worse for male children, but that there may be a _______ effect for female children, who don’t show serious problems initially but develop problems in adolescence.

A

sleeper

144
Q

Children who are ________ at the time of the divorce initially exhibit the most problems, while children who are ________ may exhibit more long-term consequences.

A

preschoolers; older (6 to 8 years)

145
Q

Some research suggests that it is _______, rather than the divorce itself, that creates risk for children.

A

parental conflict

146
Q

Remarriage is generally mor difficult for _____________, but _______ may actually benefit from the presence of a stepfather.

A

older children and adolescents; preadolescent boys

147
Q

Overall, the relationship between stepfathers and their stepchildren is best described as ___________.

A

disengaged

148
Q

In terms of sexual abuse, there is evidence that the negative consequences are less severe when the perpetrator is a __________.

A

stranger

149
Q

Parents who physically abuse their children tend to ________ their children’s behavior and rely on harsh physical punishment.

A

misinterpret

150
Q

In middle childhood, sibling relationships are marked by a paradoxical combination of ____________; while, in adolescence, sibling relationships become less _____________ and more ___________.

A

closeness/conflict and cooperation/competition; emotionally intense; distant and egalitarian

151
Q

___________play provides opportunities to develop cognitive abiilties related to symbolizing, imitation, and problem solving.

A

Dramatic (imaginative)

152
Q

Research on the ____________ hypothesis indicates that the subjective perception of social support is more critical than actual support for alleviating feelings of loneliness and reducing the effects of stress.

A

buffering

153
Q

Studies comparing outcomes for rejected and neglected children have found that __________ children are less likely to experience an improvement in peer status when they change social groups.

A

rejected

154
Q

Peer pressure to conform peaks at about age ____ and, at this time, adolescents are responsive to all types of peer influence - neutral, positive, and negative.

A

14 or 15

155
Q

Carstensen’s socioemotional selectivity theory predicts that social motives correspond to perceptions of time left in life as being ____________________.

A

limited or unlimited

156
Q

Although early cross-sectional studies found a ___________ relationship between marital duration and satisfaction, subsequent studies using a different methodology have generally not supported that pattern.

A

U-shaped

157
Q

Research investigating the impact of teacher expectations suggest that they can have a __________ effect on student achievement.

A

self-fulfilling prophecy (Rosenthal)

158
Q

Teachers tend to treat boys and girls differently. For example, boys are more likely to be praised for _________, while girls are rewarded more for __________, cooperation, and dependent behaviors.

A

intellectual accomplishments and task related behavior; effort

159
Q

Gender differences in academic achievement have decreased in recent years, and there is evidence that, when parents do not have stereotyped beliefs about _____________, their daughters are less likely to experience declines in _____________ in adolescence.

A

gender roles; math and science

160
Q

Studies investigating the impact of Head Start and other compensatory programs suggest that gains in ________ are short lived but that these programs can have long-term effects on achievement, test performance, attitudes toward school, and measures of life success.

A

IQ test scores

161
Q

Television viewing has been linked with increases in __________, sex-role stereotypes, and, in some cases, prosocial behavior.

A

aggression

162
Q

It is not until age ____ that children understand that TV characters are actors playing a role, and age ____ that they understand that commercials are intended to influence viewer’s buying habits.

A

7; 8

163
Q

According to Thomas and Chess, maladjustment in children is traceable to:

a. exposure to multiple risks during prenatal development and early infancy
b. a lack of fit between the child’s temperament and the parents’ caregiving behaviors
c. a combination of biochemical factors and environmental stressors
d. the parent’s lack of knowledge about normal child development

A

b

164
Q

According to Erikson, a desirable outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is which of the following?

a. wisdom
b. individuation
c. generativity
d. commitment

A

a

165
Q

A 7-year-old is irritable, aggressive, dependent, and low in achievement orientation and self-esteem and has a limited sense of responsibility. Based on this information,you would guess his parents are:

a. authoritarian
b. authoritative
c. permissive
d. platudinous

A

a

166
Q

Kohlber’s cognitive theory describes gender identity development as involving three stages. In order, these stages are:

a. gender constancy, gender stability, and gender identity
b. gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy
c. gender stability, gender constancy, and gender identity
d. gender stability, gender identity, and gender constancy

A

b

167
Q

An adolescent experiencing “foreclosure” will be most likely to say which of the following about her career goals?

a. I don’t know what I want to do when I graduate from high school
b. My dad thinks it’s a good idea if I go to medical school
c. My dad wants me to be a doctor but that’s not what I want to do
d. I’ve given it a lot of thought and I think I want to be a teacher

A

b

168
Q

According to Kubler-Ross, a person’s initial reaction to learning that he or she has a life-threatening illness is most likely to be which of the following:

a. anger
b. depression
c. bargaining
d. denial

A

d

169
Q

After being l eft by her mother with a stranger, a baby exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment will:

a. become angry
b. act confused
c. ignore her mother when she returns
d. cling to her mother when she returns

A

c

170
Q

Separation from her mother is likely to have the fewest negative consequences for a baby if it occurs when the baby is ______ months of age.

a. 0 to 3
b. 6 to 8
c. 9 to 12
d. 13 to 16

A

a

171
Q

At approximately ____ months of age, babies begin to show outward signs of jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment.

a. 9 to 12
b. 12 to 18
c. 18 to 24
d. 24 to 30

A

c

172
Q

If you are developing a program to reduce aggressiveness in children and you are basing your intervention on the work of G.R. Patterson and his colleagues, a primary component of the program will be:

a. training parents in child management skills
b. empathy training for the children
c. solution-focused therapy for the parents
d. group therapy for the children and parents

A

a

173
Q

A child in Piaget’s autonomous stage of moral development will base his judgment of an act primarily on:

a. whether or not the act violates an existing rule
b. the consequences of the act for others
c. the consequences of the act for the actor
d. the actor’s intentions

A

d

174
Q

Research on the effect of divorce on children has identified a “sleeper effect,” which refers to the tendency of:

a. boys to show a decline in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence
b. girls to show an increase in negative outcomes as they reach adolescence
c. boys and girls show a decline in negative outcomes as they reach early adulthood
d. children who present the most severe outcomes following the divorce show an increase in symptoms and vice versa

A

b

175
Q

A child is most likely to exhibit behavioral and psychological problems following the divorce of his parents if:

a. he lives with his father rather than his mother
b. his parents have joint custody
c. is parents frequently argue in front of him
d. his mother adopts an authoritative parenting style

A

c

176
Q

Tyrone and Tyree are 9-year-old identical twins. Their mother has worked since they were two years old. In comparison to children whose mothers do not work outside the home, you would expect Tyrone and Tyree to:

a. be less securely attached to their mother
b. have higher levels of performance on cognitive tests
c. exhibit delays in the development of gender constancy
d. have fewer gender-role stereotypes

A

d

177
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 14 and 16?

a. emotionally intense
b. egalitarian
c. conflictual and resentful
d. competitive and aggressive

A

b. In adolescence, siblings spend less time together, their relationship becomes less emotionally intense and more distant, and the friction between them usually declines as they begin to view one another as equals

178
Q

According to Carstensen’s socioemotional selectivity theory, most older adults prefer social relationships:

a. with people of their own social status
b. with people who have had similar life experiences
c. that provide them with emotional intimacy
d. that provide opportunities for new experiences

A

c

179
Q

Recent research on teacher feedback suggests that teachers:

a. no longer treat boys and girls differently
b. criticize boys more but help girls more
c. criticize girls more but help boys more
d. criticize and help boys more than girls

A

d

180
Q

It is not until the age of ____ that most children understand that, when “the bad guy” is shot on television, he is not really dead.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

A

c

EPPP 1664 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions