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EPPP 1664 > Abnormal Psychology > Flashcards

Abnormal Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three diagnostic criteria that must be met for the diagnosis of Mental Retardation: a. Significant subaverage intellectual functioning (an IQ score of approximately 70 or below on an individually administered IQ test) b. Concurrent deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning c. Family history of mental retardation d. Onset prior to age 18

A

c

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2
Q

Of all the cases of mental retardation about ___% are due to heredity; ___ to early alterations of embryonic development; ____% to pregnancy and perinatal problems; ___% to general medical conditions during infancy or childhood; and ____ to ____% to environmental factors and other mental disorders. The etiology is unknown in _______% of all cases

A

5; 30; 10; 5; 15,20; 30-40

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3
Q

This is a rare recessive gene syndrome that involves an inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine which is found in high protein foods. If untreated, produces irreversible moderate to profound retardation, impaired motor and language development, and unpredictable, erratic behaviors: a. Down Syndrome b. Tays-Sachs Syndrom c. PKU (phenylketonuria d. ADHD

A

c

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4
Q

This is due to the presence of an extra chromosome and is estimated to be the cause of about 10 to 30% of all cases of moderate to severe retardation: a. PKU (phenylketonuria) b. ADHD c. Tays-Sachs syndrome d. Down syndrome

A

d

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5
Q

A DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of Mental Retardation requires and IQ test score that is at least _________ below the mean. a. one-half standard deviation b. one standard deviation c. two standard deviations d. three standard deviations

A

c

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6
Q

A child exhibits severe impairments in social functioning and a restricted range of interests. However, her language, cognitive, and self-help skills are similar to those of peers of the same age. These symptoms are most suggestive of: a. Autistic Disorder b. Asperger’s Disorder c. Rett’s Disorder d. Childhood Disintegrative Disorder

A

b

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7
Q

The best prognosis for Autistic Disorder is associated with: a. female gender b. a precipitating factor c. verbal communication skills by age 6 d. normal adaptive functioning

A

c

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8
Q

A person with Tourette’s Disorder is most likely to also have which of the following: a. depressed mood b. an eating disorder c. aphasia and acalculia d. obsessions and compulsions

A

d

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9
Q

According to the DSM-IV-TR, about ____% of school-aged children meet the criteria for ADHD: a. 1 to 4 b. 3 to 7 c. 6 to 10 d. 9 to 12

A

b

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10
Q

Which of the following best describes ADHD in adults? a. Hyperactivity becomes less prominent while impulsivity and inattention stay the same or become more prominent b. Impulsivity becomes less prominent while hyperactivity and inattention stay the same or become more prominent c. Inattention becomes less prominent while hyperactivity and impulsivity stay the same or become more prominent d. Hyperactivity and impulsivity become less prominent while inattention stays the same or becomes more prominent

A

d

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11
Q

A child with a Learning Disorder is most likely to also receive a diagnosis of: a. OCD b. Enuresis c. Mental Retardation d. ADHD

A

d

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12
Q

Lead poisoning is most likely to be a result of which of the following disorders? a. Tourette’s Disorder b. Rumination Disorder c. Pica d. Enuresis

A

c

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13
Q

Research evaluation the effects of imipramine for Enuresis suggest that it is: a. more effective than the bell-and-pad b. less effective than the bell-and-pad in therms of long term effects c. about equally as effective as the bell-and-pad in terms of both short- and long-term effects d. ineffective in terms of both short- and long-term effects

A

b

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14
Q

Research by Brown and Madan-Swain found that which of the following is true about treatments for childhood leukemia? a. Chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not b. Irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not c.Chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits d. Neither treatment is associated with neurocognitive deficits

A

c

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15
Q

The presence of which of the following symptoms is most consistent with the DSM-IV-TR criteria for a diagnosis of Delirium? a. impaired executive functioning b. profound retrograde amnesia c. aphasia d. clouding of consciousness

A

d

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16
Q

A 63-year-old college professor exhibits impairments in memory and other cognitive functions and a depressed mood. Which of the following would be most suggestive that his symptoms are due to “pseudodementia” rather than to Dementia? a. The onset of the man’s symptoms was insidious b. The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them c. The man has marked deficits in both recognition and recall memory d. The man exhibits a greater impairment in declarative memories than in procedural memories

A

b. People with pseudodementia (depression) are likely too exaggerate their cognitive problems, while those with Dementia tend to deny or minimize them

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17
Q

Early memory impairment associated with Dementia of the Alzheimer’s Type has been most closely linked to a loss of neurons that secrete ___________, especially in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cortex. a. GABA b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine

A

d

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18
Q

Early signs of Dementia due to HIV are most likely to be: a. forgetfulness and impaired attention b. focal neurological symptoms c. emotional hyper-reactivity and agitation d. loss of memories related to personal identity

A

a

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19
Q

According to Marlatt and Gordon, relapse for an individual with alcohol dependence is least likely when: a. he/she is provided with a comprehensive treatment package that incorporates a 12-step program b. he/she is encouraged to view relapse as the result of external, controllable factors c. his/her denial is repeatedly and directly challenged d. he/she is in the action stage of change

A

b. Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention therapy focuses on methods for controlling and coping with the environmental factors that trigger relapses

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20
Q

A thiamine deficiency is associated with which of the following? a. Alcohol-induced persisting amnestic disorder (Korsakoff syndrome) b. Alcohol withdrawal delirium c. Alcohool Idiosyncratic Intoxication d. Alcohol Induced sleep disorder

A

a

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21
Q

Symptoms of ________ are similar to those associated with a moderate to severe case of the flu. a. Opioid Intoxication b. Opioid withrawal c. Cocaine intoxication d. Cocaine withdrawal

A

b. Symptoms of Opioid withdrawal are uncomfortable but usually not life-threatening and are similar to those associated with the flu

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22
Q

Schizophrenia has been linked to several structural brain abnormalities, with the most consistent finding being: a. larger than normal prefrontal lobes b. enlarged hippocampus c. enlarged ventricles d. smaller than normal ARAS

A

c

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23
Q

To diagnose a learning disorder, “substantially belo”is often defined as a discrepancy of __________ standard deviations between achievement and IQ scores.

A

2 or more

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24
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding learning disorders: a. Reading disorder is more common in boys than in girls b. People with Reading disorder and other learning disorders continue to have learning difficulties throughout adolescence and adulthood, especially when their disorders are severe c. The most frequent comorbid disorder is depression d. There is evidence that children with a learning disorder are at higher risk for antisocial behavior and for arrest and conviction for antisocial behavior

A

c. The most frequent comorbid disorder is ADHD, with 20 to 30% of children with a learning disorder also having ADHD

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25
Q

This is characterized by a disturbance in normal fluency and time patterning of speech that is inappropriate for the individuals age.

A

Stuttering

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26
Q

Stuttering typically begins between the ages of ______ and _____ and is about _______ times more common in males than females

A

2, 7, three

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27
Q

In about _____% of cases, stuttering remits spontaneously, usually by the age of _____.

A

60, 16

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28
Q

Up to _____% of individuals with Autism have IQ scores in the mentally retarded range.

A

70

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29
Q

The best outcomes for individuals with Autism is associated with an ability to communicate verbally by age 5 or 6, an IQ of over ______, and _______________

A

70; later onset of symptoms

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30
Q

Autism has been linked to several structural brain abnormalities including: a. a smaller-than-normal cerebellum and enlarged ventricles b. the hypothalamus c. the frontal cortex d. the amygdala

A

a

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31
Q

A genetic etiology is suggested for Autism, by studies showing that the rates of Autistic Disorder are _______ to _______ times higher among biological siblings of autistic individuals than among members of the general population and by twin studies finding higher concordance rates for identical than fraternal twins.

A

50 to 100

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32
Q

This disorder involves a characteristic pattern of symptoms following a period of normal development for five months or more. Symptoms include head growth decelertion; a loss of purposeful hand skills and the development of stereotypical hand movements; impairments in the coordination of gait or trunk movements; a loss of interest in the social environment; severely impaired language development; and psychomotor retardation

A

Rett’s disorder

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33
Q

This disorder is characterized by a distinct pattern of developmental regression in at least two areas of functioning following at least two years of apparently normal development.

A

Childhood Disintegrative Disorder

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34
Q

A diagnosis of ADHD requires an onset of symptoms prior to age ____; presistence of symptoms for at least _____ months; some degree of impairment in at least _____ settings; and the presence of at least _____ characteristic symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity-impulsivity.

A

7; 6; 2; 6

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35
Q

In children, ADHD is _____________ times more common in boys than in girls, with a more equal gender ratio being found among those with the __________________.

A

4 to 9; Predominantly Inattentive Type

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36
Q

Brain abnormalities that have been linked to ADHD

A

lower than normal activity and smaller size in the caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and prefrontal cortex

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37
Q

Pica involves persistent eating of nonnutritive substances for at least _____________ without an aversion to food. The onset of this disorder is most often between the ages of ______________; it is also occasionally found in pregnant woment.

A

one month; 12 and 24 months

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38
Q

The average age of onset for Tourette’s disorder is __________ years, and the disorder is more common in __________.

A

6 to 7; males

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39
Q

Tourette’s Disorder has been linked to higher-than-normal levels of ___________ and/or supersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the _______________.

A

dopamine; caudate nucleus

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40
Q

______________ is the appropriate diagnosis when the individual has motor or vocal tics but not both, while __________ is the appropriate diagnosis when the individual has had one or more motor and/or vocal tics for at least four weeks but no longer than 12 consecutive months.

A

Chronic Motor or Vocal Tics; Transient Tic Disorder

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41
Q

The essential feature of enuresis is repeated voiding of urine during the day or night into the bed or clothes at least _______ a week for ___________ months.

A

2 times; three or more

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42
Q

For the biological siblings of people who have received a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the concordance rate is ______ percent. a. 2.5 b. 10 c. 30 d. 45

A

b

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43
Q

For individuals with Schizophrenia, the poorest prognosis is associated with: a. female gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms b. female gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms c. male gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms d. male gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms

A

c

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44
Q

A 34 year old woman is convinced that her boss is in love with her despite the fact that there is no evidence supporting her belief. The woman’s belief is most suggestive of which of the following? a. erotomanic delusion b. grandiose delusion c. delusion of reference d. illusion

A

a

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45
Q

Which of the following is true about the prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder in adolescents and adults? a. The rates for males and females are about equal b. The rate for females is about twice the rate for males c. The rate for males is about twice the rate for females d. The rate for females is about three and one-half times the rate for males.

A

b

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46
Q

Abnormal levels of melatonin have been linked to which of the following disorders? a. Bipolar I Disorder b. Seasonal Affective Disorder c. Major Depressive Disorder with Postpartum Onset d. Cyclothymic Disorder

A

b. Melatonin is a hormone released by the pineal gland and is involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms

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47
Q

Lewinson’s behavioral model attributes depression to: a. internal, stable, and global attributions for negative life events b. inadequate stimulus discrimination c. emotion dysregulation d. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement

A

d

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48
Q

According to the DSM-IV-TR, the lifetime prevalence of Bipolar I Disorder in community samples range from _____ precent. a. .4 to 1.6 b. 1.9 to 2.7 c. 4.6 to 5.8 d. 8.1 to 10.3

A

a

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49
Q

Anita A., age 16, is brought to therapy by her mother who says the girl has recently become “another person.” She says that Anita used to be friendly and cooperative and popular at school. However, for the last few weeks she has been constantly irritable and argumentative, is not doing her homework and has failed several tests, and has been getting very little sleep. When the therapist interviews Anita, her speech is loud and rapid and she is easily distracted. He learns that she has started drinking alcohol and has engaged in high-risk sexual behavior. The most likely diagnosis for Anita is: a. Conduct Disorder b. ADHD c. Bipolar II Disorder d. Bipolar I Disorder

A

d. The nature and sudden onset of Anita’s symptoms are most consistent with a Manic Episode. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is Bipolar I Disorder

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50
Q

Which of the following individuals is at greatest risk for completed suicide? a. a 70-year old widowed male b. a 30-year old divorced female c. a 24-year old single male d. a 55-year old married female

A

a. In general, suicide rates are higher for men than for women, for single, divorced, and widowed (versus married) individuals, and for older people

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51
Q

The treatment of choice for Agoraphobia is considered to be: a. systematic desensitization b. covert sensitization c. exposure with response prevention d. EMDR

A

c

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52
Q

When faced with a feared stimulus, a person with a specific Phobia, Blood-Injection-Injury Type will most likely: a. faint b. fall asleep c. scream d. have a seizure

A

a

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53
Q

The rates of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: a. are higher for males in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood b. are higher for females in childhood but about equal for males and females in adulthood c. are about equal for males and females throughout the lifespan d. are higher for females throughout the lifespan

A

a

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54
Q

Ella is involved in a serious car accident in which her best friend is killed. Ella subsequently exhibits emotional detachment, derealization, amnesia, and nightmares about the accident. She avoids the intersection where the accident occurred and has been having trouble concentrating and sleeping and is uncharacteristically irritable. The accident occurred three weeks ago. Based on these symptoms, the best diagnosis is which of the following? a. Acute Stress Disorder b. PTSD c. Adjustment Disorder d. Brief Psychotic Disorder

A

a

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55
Q

According to the DSM-IV-TR, Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is often manifested in children as excessive worry about: a. relationships with friends and family members b. injury and illness c. the future d. school or sports performance

A

d

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56
Q

The need to assume the “sick role” is a DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criterion for which of the following disorders? a. Factitious Disorder b. Malingering c. Somatization Disorder d. Hypochondriasis

A

a. “The motivation for the behavior is to assume the sick role” is a criterion for a DSM diagnosis of Factitious Disorder

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57
Q

In the context of Conversion Disorder, “secondary gain” refers to: a. the extinction of a conditioned fear or anxiety response b. keeping an internal conflict out of conscious awareness c. obtaining external benefits d. alleviating a dysphoric mood

A

c

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58
Q

Dissociative Amnesia is most associated with: a. amnesia for events from the distant past b. amnesia for personal information c. an inability to form new long-term memories d. an inability to attach emotions to memories

A

b

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59
Q

The research suggests that sex therapy is most effective for which of the following sexual dysfunctions? a. Male Erectile Disorder b. Female/Male Orgasmic Disorder c. Hypoactive Sexual Desire d. Premature Ejaculation

A

d

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60
Q

Aversive conditioning for Paraphilias is: a. contraindicated b. best when combined with a 12-step program c. best when combined with a relapse prevention intervention d. best when used alone

A

c

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61
Q

The research suggests that a person with Anorexia Nervosa restricts his/her food intake to alleviate resttlessness, anxiety, and obsessive thinking, which are caused by : a. higher-than-normal levels of serotonin b. lower-than-normal levels of serotonin c. higher-than-normal levels of dopamine d. lower-than-normal levels of dopamine

A

a

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62
Q

A hypnagogic hallucination is: a. a sense of detachment from oneself b. a drug-induced sensory perception c. a vivid dream that occurs during Stage 4 sleep d. a vivid dream that occurs just before falling asleep

A

d

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63
Q

The onset of Sleep Terror Disorder is usually between the ages of: a. 1 and 2 years and symptoms usually remit by age 7 or 88 b. 2 and 5 years and symptoms continue into early adulthood. c. 4 and 12 years and symptoms usually remit in adolescence d. 10 and 15 years and symptoms continue into adulthood

A

c

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64
Q

Individuals who receive which of the following diagnoses are most likely to no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder when they reach middle age? a. Schizotypal PD b. Paranoid PD c. Avoidant PD d. Antisocial PD

A

d

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65
Q

For several years, a 32-year-old woman has exhibited cycles of overidealization and devaluation in personal relationships, uncertainty about career plans, reckless driving, drug use, and frequent suicide attempts. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Histrionic PD b. Borderline PD c. Schizotypal PD d. Narcissistic PD

A

b

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66
Q

Magical thinking, depression, illusions, discomfort in social situations, and inappropriate affect are most characteristic of which of the following disorderrs? a. Schizoaffective Personality Disorder b. Schizoid PD c. Schizotypal PD d. Borderline PD

A

c

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67
Q

A diagnosis of _____________ requires a disturbance in consciousness and a change in cognition and/or the development of perceptual abnormalities.

A

delirium

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68
Q

This is one symptoms of delirium and involves a reduced awareness of the environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility.

A

disturbance in consciousness

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69
Q

This symptom of delirium may include a loss of memory (especially recent memory), disorientation to time and place, and impaired language.

A

change in cognition

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70
Q

This symptom of delirium may entail illusions, hallucinations, and other misperceptions.

A

perceptual abnormalities

71
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the onset and duration of Delirium? a. Delirium develops over the course of several weeks b. Delirium usually develops within a few hours to days c. Symptoms of Delirium fluctuate during the course of the day d. Symptoms of Delirium may cease within a few hours or persist for weeks

A

a

72
Q

____________ and other __________ drugs may help reduce agitation, delusions, and hallucinations in patients with Delirium.

A

Haloperidol; antipsychotic

73
Q

This can be caused by a number of substances and medical conditions and is characterized by multiple cognitive deficits that include some degree of memory impairment and aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, and/or impaired executive functioning.

A

Dementia

74
Q

Deterioration in language functioning that includes difficulty naming people and objects and understanding written and spoken language.

A

Aphasia

75
Q

This symptom of dementia describes when individuals may have trouble executing motor actions and be unable to dress, eat, cook, or perform other familiar activities.

A

Apraxia

76
Q

This symptom of Dementia describes when individuals demonstrate an inability to recognize and identify familiar objects and people.

A

Agnosia

77
Q

Dementia often includes impaired ______________ and may be manifested as impairments in abstract thinking and in planning, initiating, and stopping complex behaviors.

A

executive functioning.=

78
Q

What kind of dementia is characterized by an early appearance of aphasia and impaired calculation ability and deficits in both recall and recognition memory? a. Pseudodementia b. Dementia due to head trauma c. Cortical dementia d. Subcortical dementia

A

c. An example of a cortical dementia is Dementia of the Alzheimer’s type

79
Q

What kind of dementia is characterized by an early appearance of deficits in executive functioning that are disproportionate to other impairments, a greater impairment of recall (vs. recognition) memory, dysarthria (poorly articulated speech), slowed motor speed and control, and personality change? a. Pseudodementia b. Dementia due to head trauma c. Cortical dementia d. Subcortical dementia

A

d. An example of this is Dementia due to Huntington’s or Parkinson’s disease

80
Q

What type of Dementia usually begins with anterograde amnesia, deficits in visuospatial skills, and indifference, irritability, and sadness followed by increasing retrograde amnesia, fluent aphasia, and ideomotor apraxia? It is the single-most common cause of Dementia and accounts for up to 65% of all cases. a. Dementia of the Alzheimer’s Type b. Vascular Dementia c. Dementia Due to HIV Disease d. Dementia due to Head Trauma

A

a

81
Q

____________ is caused by cerebrovascular disease and is characterized by a stepwise, fluctuating course with a patchy pattern of symptoms. a. Dementia of the Alzheimer’s Type b. Vascular Dementia c. Dementia Due to HIV Disease d. Dementia due to Head Trauma

A

b

82
Q

This is described as involving six stages that reflect progressive deficits in neurocognitive and neuropsychiatric functioning. Early signs include forgetfulness, impaired attention, and psychomotor slowing. These symptoms are eventually followed by difficulties in problem solving and concentration, apathy and social withdrawal, loss of initiative, tremor and clumsiness, and saccadic eye movements. a. Dementia of the Alzheimer’s Type b. Vascular Dementia c. Dementia Due to HIV Disease d. Dementia due to Head Trauma

A

c

83
Q

Four degrees of severity of mental retardation: Mild mental retardation - IQ= ____ Moderate Mental Retardation- IQ= ______ Severe Mental Retardation - IQ= ______ Profound Mental Retardation - IQ=______

A

50-55 to 70; 35-40 to 50-55; 20-25 to 35-40; below 20-25

84
Q

Schizophrenia involves a continuous disturbance of ______ months or more that includes at least ____________ of two or more __________ symptoms.

A

6 months; one month; active-phases

85
Q

These symptoms of schizophrenia appear to reflect an excess or distortion of normal functions and include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior.

A

Positive symptoms

86
Q

These symptoms of schizophrenia involve a restriction in the range and intensity of emotions and other functions and include affective flattening, alogia (poverty of though and speech), and avolition (restricted initiation of goal directed behavior)

A

negative symptoms

87
Q

Type _____ Schizophrenia is characterized by positive symptoms and is associated with relatively good premorbid functioning and a favorable response to traditional antipsychotic drugs, and it is believed to be due to neurotransmitter abnormalities.

A

I

88
Q

Type _______ Schizophrenia involves negative symptoms, is assoicated with relatively poor premorbid adjustment and a poor response to traditional antipsychotiics, and is more likely the result of structural brain abnormalities.

A

II

89
Q

According to the DSM, the prevalence rate for Schizophrenia is slightly higher for _______ than for __________.

A

males; females

90
Q

The modal age of onset of schizophrenia is between ___________ for males and between _______ for females.

A

18 to 25; 25 to 35

91
Q

The research suggests that the higher rate of Schizophrenia for _____________ is the result of misdiagnosis rather than actual difference in the incidence of this disorder and that misdiagnosis is due to the fact that they are more likely to experience hallucinations and delusions as symptoms of depression or other disorders.

A

African-Americans

92
Q

The course of schizophrenia is usually ________ and complete remission is ________. However, over time, __________ symptoms decrease, while ________ symptoms increase.

A

chronic; rare; positive; negative

93
Q

What are conditions for a better prognosis for schizophrenia?

A

Good premorbid functioning Acute and late onset Female gender Presence of a precipitating event Brief duration of active-phase symptoms Insight into the illness Family history of mood disorder No family history of schizophrenia

94
Q

Estimated incidence rates of schizophrenia in the general adult population range from __________.

A

0.5% to 1.5%

95
Q

Concordance rates for biological relatives in regards to schizophrenia are as follows: Biological sibling: ______% Fraternal Twin: _______% Identical Twin: _______% Child (both parents schizophrenic): _____%

A

10, 17, 48, 46

96
Q

For those recovering from a stroke, most improvement in vascular dementia symptoms occur during the first ___________, with physical disabilities resolving more quickly than cognitive deficits. a. six months b. eight months c. ten months d. year

A

a

97
Q

This is diagnosed when a person continues to use a substance despite significant substance-related problems as evidenced by the presence of at least three of the following symptoms at any time during a 12-month period: a. tolerance b. withdrawal c. substance frequently taken in larger amounts or over longer periods of time than intended d. persistent desire or unsuccessful attempts to control or cut down substance use e. a great deal of time spent in activites related to obtaining the substance d. important social, occupation, or recreational activities reduced or stopped because of substance use e. continued use of the substancce despite persistent or recurrent psychological or physical problems caused or exacerbated by its use

A

Substance Dependence

98
Q

Marlatt and Gordon refer to the typical reaction to relapse as an “abstinence violation effect” that involves ___________________________________, which lead to an increased susceptibility to further drinking.

A

self-blame, guilt, anxiety, and depression

99
Q

Marlatt and Gordon propose that the potential for future relapse is reduced when:

A

a person views the episode of drinking as a mistake resulting from specific, external, and controllable factors.

100
Q

This is characterized by a maladaptive pattern of substance use that involves clinically significant impairment or distress as manifested by the presence of at least one of the following symptoms during a 12-month period: -recurrent substance use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations at home, school, or work -repeated use of a substance in situations in which use is known to be physically hazardous -recurrent substance-related legal problems -continued use despite having persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems that are caused or exacerbated by the substance

A

Substance Abuse

101
Q

Alcohol _______________ is characterized by inappropriate sexual and aggressive behavior, emotional lability, slurred speech, incoordination, and impairments in memory and judgment.

A

intoxication

102
Q

Alcohol ____________ involves autonomic hyperactivity, insomnia, psychomotor agitation, and transient illusions or hallucinations after a period of heavy or prolonged alcohol use.

A

withdrawal

103
Q

________________ involves retrograde and anterograde amnesia and confabulation is believed to be due to a thiamine deficiency.

A

Korsakoff syndrome

104
Q

Alcohol- _________________ is usually of the ______________ type and can be the result of either intoxication or withdrawal.

A

induced sleep disorder; insomnia

105
Q

_________ or ____________ intoxication is characterized by maladaptive behavioral and psychological changes, tachycardia, elevated or lowered blood pressure, dilated pupils, perspiration or chills, nausea or vomiting, weight loss, psychomotor agitation, muscular weakness, confusion, and seizures

A

Amphetamine, Cocaine

106
Q

This disorder is characterized by re-experiencing of one or more perceptual symptoms that were experienced during one or more episodes of Hallucinogen Intoxication. The person is currently not intoxicated and is aware that the perception is a drug effect.

A

Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder (Flashbacks)

107
Q

The essential feature of _______ withdrawal is the presence of characteristic symptoms following abrupt cessation of or reduction in the use of nicotine after daily use for at least several weeks. Symptoms include depressed mood, insomnia, irritability, anxiety, restlessness, impaired concentration, decreased hear rate, and increased appetite.

A

nicotine

108
Q

___________ withdrawal includes symptoms that resemble a moderate to severe case of the flu and include sweating, “goose bumps,” fever, pupillary dilation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, agitation and restlessness, insomnia, and dysphoric mood.

A

Opioid

109
Q

__________ or __________ withdrawal include dysphoric mood, fatigue, vivid and unpleasant dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor agitation or retardation following heavy or prolonged use. Withdrawal after an intense, high-dose use can cause a “crash” that involves intense lassitude and depression.

A

Amphetamine or cocaine

110
Q

What are some brain abnormalities associated with Schizophrenia?

A

Enlarged ventricles (most common) smaller than normal hippocampus, amygdala, and globus pallidus lower than normal activity in the prefrontral cortex

111
Q

Until relatively recently, the _____________ was the most widely accepted neurochemical theory of Schizophrenia. It proposes that Schizophrenia is due to elevated dopamine levels or oversensitive dopamine receptors.

A

dopamine hypothesis

112
Q

Family interventions are particularly beneficial when they target ___________________ among family members, which have been linked to high relapse and rehospitalization rates for people with schizophrenia. It is characterized by open criticism and hostility toward the patient, or, alternativel, overprotecttive, symbiotic relationships.

A

high levels of expressed emotion

113
Q

How can you differentiate between Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective disorder?

A

In schizophrenia, mood symptoms are brief relative to the duration of the full disorderr, do not occur during the active phase, and do not meet the full criteria for a mood episode. In Schizoaffective disorder, prominent mood symptoms occur concurrently with psychotic symptoms but there is also a period of at least two weeks during which only psychotic symptoms are present.

114
Q

This type of schizophrenia is assigned when the person is not currently exhibiting prominent delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or disorganized behavior but has had such symptoms in the past and continues to display negative and/or attenuated positive positive symptoms (eccentric speech, odd beliefs)

A

Residual type

115
Q

The diagnostic criteria for _________________ are identical to those for Schizophrenia except that the disturbance is present for at least ___________ but less than ____________ and impaired social or occupational functioning is not required. About ____________ of people with this disorder eventually receive a diagnosis of Schizophrenia or Schizoaffective Disorder.

A

Schizophreniform disorder; one month; six months; two-thirds

116
Q

This diagnosis is characterized by an uninterrupted period of illness involving concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and symptoms of a Major Depressive, Manic, or Mixed episode that includes a period of at least two weeks without prominent mood symptoms.

A

Schizoaffective disorder

117
Q

This disorder is characterized by the presence of one or more nonbizarre delusions that last at least ___________.

A

Delusional disorder; one month

118
Q

This type of delusion reflects the belief that someone is romantically in love with the individual.

A

Erotomanic

119
Q

The central theme of this delusion is that the individual has great (but unrecognized) talent or insight or has a special relationship with a prominent person.

A

Grandiose

120
Q

This delusion describes when an individual believes that his/her spouse or lover is unfaithful.

A

Jealous

121
Q

This delusion reflects the belief that the individual is being conspired against, cheated, spied on, poisoned, etc.

A

Persecutory

122
Q

The central theme of this delusion involves bodily functions or sensations

A

Somatic

123
Q

___________________ is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and/or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior that are present for at least one day but less than one month with an eventual return to full premorbid functioning. The onset of this disorder often follows an overwhelming stressor.

A

Brief psychotic disorder

124
Q

The essential feature of a _______________ is a depressed mood and/or loss of interest or enjoyment in customary activities that represents a change from previous functioning and that persists for at least _____________.

A

Major depressive episode; two weeks

125
Q

A _____________ involves a period of _________ or longer in which the prevailing mod is abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable. There must be significant impairment in occupational or social functtioning, the need to be hospitalized to prevent harm to self or others, and/or the presence of psychotic features.

A

Manic Episode; one week

126
Q

A __________ is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated expansive, or irritable mood that lasts for at least four days. Not sufficiently severe to cause marked impairment in functioning or to require hospitalizations and there is an absence of psychotic symptoms.

A

Hypomanic episode

127
Q

The specifier “with Postpartum Onset” can be applied to Major Depressive Disorder, Bipolar I and II Disorrder, and Brief Psychotic Disorder when the onset of symptoms is within _______________ postpartum. About _________% of women experience symptoms sufficiently severe to warrant a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder or Bipolar Disorder with Postpartum Onset following the birth of a child.

A

four weeks; 10 to 20

128
Q

Studies of outpatient clinical samples indicate that over ________% of patients with the principal diagnosis of an Anxiety Disorder have one or more additional diagnoses at the time of assessment.

A

50%

129
Q

The reported prevalence rates for Panic Disorder vary, but most studies report a lifetime rate between _________ in community samples, with one-third to one-half of these individuals also having ___________.

A

1 to 2%; agoraphobia

130
Q

Panic Disorderr is more common in _________ than _________, and up to _____% of individuals with Agoraphobia are ________.

A

females; males; 75; female

131
Q

What is the most common co-diagnosis of patients with Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia?

A

Major depressive disorder

132
Q

Which medical diagnoses must be ruled out before Panic Disorder is diagnosed?

A

Hyperthyroidism Hypoglyciemia Cardiac arrhythmia Mitral Valve Prolapse

133
Q

The onset of a Specific Phobia is usually during:

A

childhood or the mid-20’s

134
Q

Of the specific phobias, ___________ is the most common.

A

Situational type

135
Q

Because of the fainting reaction associated with the _________ Type of Specific Phobia, treatment involves tensing (rather than relaxing) muscles in the presence of feared stimuli.

A

Blood-Injury-Injection

136
Q

OCD is characterized by recurrent obsessions and compulsions that are sufficiently severe to cause _________, to be time-consuming, and/or to significantly interfere with normal functioning.

A

significant distress

137
Q

The treatment of choice for OCD is generally considered to be _____________ and either a tricyclic or SSRI.

A

exposure with response prevention

138
Q

What is true regarding OCD, gender, and age?

A

In adults, it is equally common in males and females. In children and adolescents, it is more prevalent in males.

139
Q

When symptoms of PTSD have a duration of less than four weeks, the diagnosis is probably _________________.

A

Acute stress disorderr

140
Q

The best treatment for PTSD is a comprehensive ___________________.

A

Cognitive behavioral approach

141
Q

When symptoms involve excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities for a period of at least 6 months, the likely diagnosis is _______________.

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

142
Q

Treatment for GAD normally involves a multicomponent _____________________.

A

cognitive behavioral intervention

143
Q

_________________ involves recurrent multiple somatic complaints that began prior to age 30 and have persisted or several years and for which medical attention has been sought but no physical explanation has been found.

A

Somatization Disorder

144
Q

For Somatization Disorder to be diagnosed, complaints must include at least four __________ symptoms, two ____________ symptoms, one __________ symptom, and one ____________ symptom.

A

pain, gastrointestinal, sexual, pseudoneurological

145
Q

___________ is characterized by symptoms that involve voluntary motor or sensory functioning and suggest a serious neurological or other medical condition. Symptoms are judged to be due to psychological factors because their onset or exacerbation was preceded by conflicts or other stressors and because they do not conform to physiological mechanisms.

A

Conversion disorder

146
Q

The essential feature of ___________________ is the presence of physical or psychological symptoms that are intentionally produced or feigned for the purpose of fulfilling an intrapsychic need to adopt the sick role.

A

Factitious disorder

147
Q

__________________ involves an intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological symptoms, and the goal of the behavior is to obtain an external reward.

A

Malingering

148
Q

________________ is characterized by one or more episodes of an inability to recall important personal information that cannot be attributed to ordinary forgetfulness. Most commonly, this disorder involves gaps in memory that are related to a _______________.

A

Dissociative amnesia; traumatic or extremely stressful event

149
Q

________________ involves abrupt, unexpected travel away from home or work with an inability to recall some or all of one’s past. An individual with this disorder exhibits confusion about his/her personal identity or a partial or total assumption of a new identify.

A

Dissociative Fugue

150
Q

_________________ is characterized by one or more episodes of depersonalization, which involves a feeling of detachment or estrangement from one’s mental processes or body. During these periods, reality testing remains intact.

A

Depersonalization disorder

151
Q

Involves cross-dressing for the purpose of sexual arousal. Assigned only to heterosexual men, although some may have engaged in occasional homosexual acts.

A

Transvestic Fetishism

152
Q

Characterized by intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a nonconseenting person.

A

Frotteurrism

153
Q

_________________ involves a strong, persistent cross-gender identification and discomfort with one’s sex or a sense of inappropriateness in the gender role of that sex.

A

Gender Identity disorder

154
Q

Research by Brown and Madan-Swain found that which of the following is true about treatments for childhood leukemia? a. Chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not b. Irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not c. Chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits d. Neither treatment is associated with neurocognitive deficits

A

c

155
Q

The presence of which of the following symptoms is most consistent with the DSM criteria of Delirium: a. impaired executive functioning b. profound retrograde amnesia c. aphasia d. clouding of consciousness

A

d

156
Q

Early memory impairment associated with Dementia of the Alzheimers Type has been most closely linked to a loss of neurons that secrete ____________, especially in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cortex. a. GABA b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine

A

d

157
Q

A 63-year-old college professor exhibits impairments in memory and other cognitive functions and a depressed mood. Which of the following would be most suggestive that his symptoms are due to “pseudodementia” rather than Dementia? a. The onset of the man’s symptoms was insidious b. The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them c. The man has marked deficits in both recognition and recall memory d. The man exhibits greater impairment in declarative memories than in procedural memories

A

b

158
Q

Schizophrenia has been linked to several structural brain bnormalities, with the most consistent finding being: a. larger than normal prefrontal lobes b. enlarged hippocampus c. enlarged ventricles d. smaller than normal ARAS

A

c

159
Q

For the biological siblings of people who have received a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the concordance rate is ______ percent. a. 2.5 b. 10 c. 30 d. 45

A

b

160
Q

For individuals with Schizophrenia, the poorest prognosis is associated with: a. female gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms b. female gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms c. male gender, younger age at onset, and predominant negative symptoms d. male gender, older age at onset, and predominant positive symptoms

A

c

161
Q

Lewinsohn’s behavioral theory of depression is based on the principles of __________________. It attributes the disorder to a low rate of _______________________ for social and other behaviors.

A

operant conditioning; response-contingent reinforcement

162
Q

Seligman’s learned helplessness model describes depression as the result of prior exposure to uncontrollable negative events coupled with a tendency to attribute those events to ___________________________ factors. A more recent version of the learned helplessness model de-emphasizes the role of attribution and, instead, describes depression as being related to a sense of ______________.

A

internal, stable, and global; hopelessness

163
Q

According to Rehm’s _____________ model, depression is the result of a combination of problems related to self-monitorning, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

A

self-control

164
Q

Beck’s cognitive theory views depression as being related to:

A

negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future (the depressive cognitive triad)

165
Q

Three classes of antidepressants most commonly prescribed:

A

Tricyclics; SSRI’s; monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI’s)

166
Q

_______________ involves a chronically depressed mood that is present most of the time for at least two years in adults or one year in children and adolescents.

A

Dysthymic disorderr

167
Q

The Bipolar I Disorders all involve one or more ___________ Episodes with or without a Depressive Episode, while Bipolar II Disorder is characterized by at least one Major Depressive Episode and one ______________, but has never had a ___________________ .

A

Manic or mixed; hypomanic episode; manic or mixed episode

168
Q

Bipolar ____ is equally common in males and females, while Bipolar ____ is more common in females.

A

I; II

169
Q

The lifetime prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in community samples ranges from ___________, while the range for Bipolar II Disorder is around _______.

A

0.4% to 1.6%; 0.5%

170
Q

Of the mental disorders, genetic factors have been most consistently linked to _____________.

A

Bipolar disorders

171
Q

____________________ is characterized by the presence of fluctuating hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods of depressive symptoms that are not sufficiently severe to meet the criteria for a Major Depressive Episode. The duration of symptoms must be at least two years for adults or one year for children and adolescents.

A

Cyclothymic disorderr

172
Q

As many as ______ to _______ of people who commit suicide have made at least one previous attempt, and about ______ give a definite warning of their intention.

A

60%; 80%; 80%

173
Q

In terms of gender, ___________ are at greatest risk for completed suicide.

A

males

174
Q

In terms of race, suicide rates are highest for __________ for most age groups.

A

Whites

EPPP 1664 (16 decks)

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