Test Questions 1 Flashcards
Which of the following would most likely be the focus of an object-relations therapist?
A communication skills training and facilitating catharsis
B paradoxical interventions and circular questioning
C helping the client identify introjects and providing support
D exploring intergenerational transmission processes and cognitive restructuring
The Correct Answer is “C”
There are a variety of object-relations theories and therapies based on them. However, most focus on how
introjects, or internalized images of significant others from the past, affect our current relationships and
functioning. In addition to helping clients identify introjects, an objects-relations therapist would be likely to
provide support and “re-parenting,” in order to help the client develop new, healthier introjects.
According to Holland, a highly differentiated person:
A is most flexible, possessing traits found in all six personality types.
B scores high on only one of the six personality types.
C scores high on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality hexagon.
D has the emotional maturity to effectively deal with many different personality types
The Correct Answer is “B”
Holland proposed that all behaviors, including career choice, are a function of personality and the social
environment. He distinguished between six personality types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising,
and conventional. A highly differentiated person would be someone who scored high on only one of the
personality types. Holland believed that high differentiation would best predict the outcome of a personality and occupational match.
According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by
friends:
A “You are a pretty bad dancer”
B “You are not a bad dancer”
C “You should become a professional dancer”
D nothing about dancing
The Correct Answer is “A”
Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of
whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to
this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so (assuming the other’s evaluation matches the
person’s self evaluation).
According to recent outcome studies, which of Yalom’s therapeutic factors is the most direct indicator of
group outcome success as well as growth within the individual group members?
A catharsis
B collusion
C cohesion
D universality
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Recent studies indicate cohesiveness in a group, characterized by warmth and acceptance, self-disclosure and risk-taking behavior, freedom to express feelings openly (both positive and negative) is most associated with group member improvement and outcome success. As Yalom described, the therapeutic factors do not occur in isolation - they are interdependent and group cohesion serves as a necessary precondition for the other factors.
Early confrontation, later positive alliance, later affective confrontation and fewer leader interventions in later
sessions are also associated with successful group outcomes. (See: Burlingame, G.M., MacKenzie K.R., Strauss B. (2004). Small group treatment: evidence for effectiveness and mechanisms of change. In: Lambert, M., editor. Bergin and Garfield’s handbook of psychotherapy and behavior change. 5th ed. New York: John Wiley and Sons Inc, 647-96.)
A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in experimental psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical
psychology. To meet the requirements set forth by the General Guidelines for Providers, the psychologist must
A complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a professional clinical psychologist.
B complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.
C obtain a Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited college or university.
D meet her state’s requirements for licensure in clinical psychology.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The licensing exam often contains questions such as these, and in approaching them, you should remember these buzzwords: training AND experience. Specifically, the Specialty Guidelines state that “professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology.” Choice “B” is the only one that includes an element of both training and experience, and is therefore the best answer. Moreover, unlike as stated by choice “C”, a second Ph.D. would not be necessary – doctoral level coursework in clinical psychology would be sufficient to meet the academic training aspect of this requirement
Children raised by parents who are very demanding but warm are likely to be highly: A neurotic B oppositional C insecure D resilient
The Correct Answer is “D”
Authoritative parents are very demanding but also warm and responsive to their children. Children raised by
authoritative parents tend be more mature and have better coping skills, or resilience to life stressors, than
children raised with other parenting styles.
The WAIS-III subtest which is least affected by normal aging processes is A comprehension. B similarities. C arithmetic. D vocabulary.
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is a variation on the question about the “classic aging pattern” on IQ. The accepted finding is that as we get older, certain cognitive functions begin to fail, particularly those which rely on the neurochemical substructure of
the nervous system. Thus our speed is not as quick, our motor skills show deficits, etc. But cognitive abilities
relying on crystallized processes, such as long-term memory, show little change. Hence, of the alternatives listed here, vocabulary skills would show the least age-related decline. We tend to retain our capacity for language throughout the lifespan.
An individual imagining others engaging in a variety of alternative or desirable behaviors is using the technique known as: A overcorrection B simple modeling C covert sensitization D covert modeling
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Covert modeling is based on its overt, simple modeling equivalent. Covert modeling involves the learning of new behaviors or the altering of existing behaviors by imagining scenes of others interacting with the
environment. Overcorrection (a.) involves an individual consistently being reinforced for engaging in behaviors
other than the target behavior during a predetermined period of time. Covert sensitization (c.) uses counterconditioning in imagination to reduce or eliminate a target behavior. An individual imagines he/she is
engaging in the undesirable behavior and then imagines an aversive consequence for doing so.
Which of the following is most true about individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation?
A They constitute 3-4% of the population of mentally retarded individuals.
B They can reach up to about a sixth grade level in academic skills.
C They can be trained to perform unskilled work in the competitive job market under close supervision.
D They acquire little or no communicative speech during the pre-school period.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Individuals with moderate retardation have an IQ between 35-40 and 50-55. According to the DSM, as adults, they can contribute to their own support by performing unskilled or semi-skilled tasks under supervision – in
sheltered workshops or in the competitive job market. They constitute 10% of the mentally retarded population,
they are unlikely to progress beyond the second grade level in academic skills, and they can talk or learn to
communicate during the preschool years.
Continuing Education Credits (CE Credits) earned through an APA approved sponsor means that the program is: A sanctioned by APA. B endorsed by APA. C approved by APA. D the responsibility of the sponsor.
The Correct Answer is “D”
An organization is approved by the APA to sponsor continuing education programs. The sponsor then becomes responsible for each program. The APA periodically asks for reports from the sponsor, but the specific program is not endorsed, sanctioned, or approved by the APA. Only the overall sponsorship is approved by the APA.
While attending a staff meeting at a mental health facility where you work, you learn that one of your
colleagues, a psychologist, is behaving in an unethical manner toward one of her patients. Despite being advised
to do so by several members of the staff, she states that she will not change her behavior. What should you do in
this situation?
A Approach the colleague individually and urge her to change her behavior; if she refuses, report her to the
appropriate ethics committee.
B Approach the colleague individually and urge her to change her behavior; if she refuses, recommend to the
director of the facility that she be fired.
C Report the colleague to the appropriate ethics committee immediately, since she has already stated that she will not change her behavior.
D Announce in the staff meeting that you want to “go on the record” as noting that the psychologist is behaving
unethically.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The Ethics Code states that you should deal with ethical violations by another psychologist in an informal manner,
by bringing it to the attention of the psychologist. A report to an ethics committee should be made when the
attempt at informal resolution has failed or if the violation is not amenable to informal resolution. Thus, you
should speak to the psychologist privately and report her to an ethics committee if she still refuses to change her
behavior. You may have thought that, since the psychologist has already stated her refusal to behave ethically, you should go ahead and report her, without bothering to talk to her. This actually makes sense, but the Ethics Code requires that you attempt an informal attempt at resolution first. A staff meeting is a formal setting, and
does not personally give you the opportunity to attempt an informal resolution.
Of the following, the highest rate of suicide occurs among A married persons. B never-married persons. C widowed persons. D divorced persons.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Marriage, especially when reinforced with children, appears to lessen the risk of suicide. Among married people, the rate of suicide is about 11 per 100,000. This rate is higher for single, never-married persons (about 22 per 100,000), even higher for widows (24 per 100,000), and higher still for divorced individuals (40 per 100,000).
When performing cognitive tests, most older adults are able to best perform at what time of day: A morning B early afternoon C late afternoon D evening
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. May and Hasher (1998) referred to the beneficial effect of matching task demands and preferred time of day as
the “synchrony effect.” Acknowledging age and individual differences in arousal patterns, research has found there are large differences in circadian cycles between young and older adults. The optimal time of day for successful completion of certain cognitive tasks for young children and individuals in late adulthood is primarily
morning. There appears to be a shift beginning about the age of 12 away from morningness towards the peak
arousal and task performance levels for young adults to the evening. Eventually, the life-span trend for time of
day preference appears to come full circle. The research shows that synchrony between individual preferences and the time of testing is a powerful effect and that only highly practiced responses are invariant across the day - all others are affected. It is noted that attentional regulation over both incoming information and outgoing responses are particularly vulnerable to time of day effects. (See: May, C. P., & Hasher, L. (1998). Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action. Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 24(2), 363-379. See: Hasher, L., Goldstein D., & May, C.P. (in press). It’s about time: Circadian rhythms, memory and aging. In C. Izawa & N. Ohta (Eds.), Human learning and memory: Advances in theory and application. Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates, Inc.)
In regard to sensory memory, information is retained for
A less than two seconds.
B less than twenty seconds.
C a few minutes, if using rehearsal techniques.
D an indefinite amount of time, but it is difficult to access.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Sensory memory holds information from the senses for a very brief period of time–generally less than two
seconds. It is not held any longer than this, even with rehearsal techniques (answer C). While some researchers
hypothesize that information is retained in long-term memory indefinitely but may be difficult to access, this is
not a characteristic of sensory memory.
The Stroop Test is commonly used to assess: A posture B contralateral neglect C visual problems D attention problems
The Correct Answer is “D”
John Stroop, a psychologist, developed the Stroop Color Word Test in 1932 as a screening device for frontal lobe
damage. The test involves the presentation of a list of color words (blue, green, red, and so forth) with each word printed in colored ink, but not in the color denoted by the word (for example, the word “yellow” is printed in
blue, green or red ink). The participant’s task is to name the ink color in which each word is printed as quickly as
possible. A correct response requires the inhibition of reading the color name. Patients with left frontal lesions are often unable to inhibit reading the words and thus are impaired at this task. Others with attention deficits,
including those with ADHD, also perform more poorly on the Stroop Test compared to those without attention
deficits
Which of the following is likely to be most effective for alleviating chronic pain?
A biofeedback
B hypnotherapy
C relaxation and coping skills training
D autogenic training and contingency management
The Correct Answer is “C”
Most experts advocate a comprehensive treatment approach for chronic pain. Their recommended treatments involve teaching the patient a number of coping skills designed to alleviate pain and improve the patient’s feelings of control. See, for example, H. Philips, The effects of behavioral treatment on chronic pain, Behaviour Research and Therapy, 1987, 25, 365-377.
In schizophrenia, haldol is used primarily to treat: A negative symptoms B apathy C psychotic symptoms D blunted affect
The Correct Answer is “C”
Antipsychotic drugs such as haldol (butyrophenones) are more effective for alleviating the positive symptoms of
schizophrenia: hallucinations, delusions, disordered thought, and agitation, than the negative symptoms: apathy, blunted affect, autism, and social withdrawal. In clients with schizophrenia, antipsychotics induce a “neuroleptic state” characterized by emotional quieting (decreased hallucinations and delusions), psychomotor slowing (less agitation, impulsivity, and aggressiveness), and affective indifference (lower arousability and lack of concern with the external environment).
In terms of interviews as selection techniques, which of the following is most consistent with the research?
A
Panel interviews generally have the highest levels of validity, and they are especially valid when an average
(versus consensus) rating is derived.
B
When interviewers are given biodata information about an interviewee prior to the interview, interviewers give
less credence to interview information when the biodata is not supportive of a decision to hire than when the
biodata is very supportive of a decision to hire.
C
Although the research is inconsistent, the best conclusion about interviews is that future-oriented (situational)
interviews are more valid than past-oriented (behavior description) interviews regardless of whether the interview
is structured or unstructured.
D
One of the difficulties with interviews, even when they are structured, is that they are highly susceptible to gender
biases, especially when the interviewee and the interviewer are of different genders.
The Correct Answer is “B”
There is some evidence that interviewers place less importance on interview information when biodata is not very favorable and more importance when it is supportive of a hiring decision. Apparently, a good interview cannot
make up for a bad history, but a good history can be supported or canceled out by the results of the interview.
Classical Adlerian psychotherapy:
A
provides six stages as a systematic procedure
B
provides twelve phases as a teaching guideline
C
is a progression through twelve stages
D
is a creatively practiced art without stages
The Correct Answer is “C”
Classical Alderian psychotherapy is characterized as a diplomatic, warm, empathetic, and Socratic style of
treatment. For teaching purposes, Adlerian psychotherapy can be divided into twelve stages, and within each stage, cognitive, affective, and behavioral changes are gradually advanced. The stages reflect progressive strategies for awakening a client’s underdeveloped feeling of community. There are six different phases in this psychotherapy and within these phases there can be up to three stages. These are not rigid, systematized steps as therapy is considered a creative practice and unique for the individual. (See: Stein, H. (1988). Twelve Stages of Creative Adlerian Psychotherapy. Individual Psychology, 44, 138-143.)
You have been working with a couple in marital therapy for four months, with slow but notable progress.
After a session one day, the wife pulls you aside and asks to make some individual appointments with you. You
should
A
refer her to another therapist.
B
wait until the completion of marital therapy and then see her individually.
C
terminate with the couple and see the woman individually.
D
encourage her to discuss any relevant issues within the context of marital therapy.
The Correct Answer is “A”There is a potential for role conflict when a client in conjoint therapy asks you to see him or her individually. It’s possible that there may be a conflict between your considerations as a couple’s therapist and as an individual therapist. Thus, although your actions would vary depending on the parameters of the individual case, the best answer in light of the information we have is to refer the woman to another therapist for individual therapy.
Functional nocturnal enuresis
A
is associated with some physical medical disorder.
B
most often occurs during REM sleep and is associated with dreaming.
C
is not found in children above 12 years of age.
D
is not associated with any particular stage of sleep.
The Correct Answer is “D”
If the wetting is associated with a physical cause, then it is not diagnosed as “functional” enuresis. This disorder is
not associated with dreaming REM-sleep as one might expect. It actually is not significantly correlated with any
particular sleep stage, although it is most likely to occur during the first third of the night. And, while it is less
common in older than in younger children, it does exist in older children and adolescents.
Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of A increasing true positives B decreasing false positives C decreasing true negatives D decreasing false negatives.
The Correct Answer is “B”A simple way to answer this question is with reference to a chart such as the one displayed under the topic
“Criterion-Related Validity” in the Test Construction section of your materials. If you look at this chart, you can
see that increasing the predictor cutoff score (i.e., moving the vertical line to the right) decreases the number of
false positives as well as true positives (you can also see that the number of both true and false negatives would
be increased).
You can also think about this question more abstractly by coming up with an example. Imagine, for instance, that
a general knowledge test is used as a predictor of job success. If the cutoff score on this test is raised, fewer
people will score above this cutoff and, therefore, fewer people will be predicted to be successful. Another way of
saying this is that fewer people will come up “positive” on this predictor. This applies to both true positives and
false positives.
The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to
nicotine replacement therapy
A
has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
B
has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
C
has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn’t improve long-term abstinence.
D
has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence.
The Correct Answer is “B”
This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a
combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of
long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more). See, for example, R. C. Klesges et al., Smoking
cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 1996, 16(6), 479-496.
Bill comes to session and reports that for the last five months, his wife and employer have been poisoning his
food. In addition, his next door neighbor has assisted them by switching lunch boxes with him. The local DJ is in
on the scheme–telling him over the radio to “eat right to stay fit.” The appropriate diagnosis is
A
Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type.
B
Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type.
C
Brief Psychotic Disorder.
D
food poisoning.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Bill’s symptoms meet the criteria for Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type. He has one or more delusions and auditory
hallucinations. He does not have the symptoms of Disorganized Type (answer B), which requires a prominence of disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat affect. His symptoms have lasted for more than one month
which rules out Brief Psychotic Disorder (answer C).
A patient complains that she cannot stop thinking about killing her child, though she has no intention of doing so. The patient is depressed about these thoughts and occasionally has a drink in an attempt to escape from them, though this attempt is usually unsuccessful. The most likely diagnosis for this person is A Major Depressive Disorder. B Substance Dependence. C Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. D Delusional Disorder.
The Correct Answer is “C”
This person’s thought seems to qualify as an obsession. Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts,
impulses, or images that are experienced as intrusive and cause marked distress. A person with obsessions
attempts to ignore, suppress, or neutralize them and recognizes that they are a product of one’s own mind.
Recurrent obsessions or compulsions are the defining feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. A person with
this disorder may be depressed about it and may use alcohol or other substances in an attempt to neutralize his or her distress.
From the perspective of rational emotive therapy (RET), emotional disturbances are maintained primarily by A self-indoctrination. B environmental consequences. C social pressure. D denial
The Correct Answer is “A”
Ellis, the founder of RET, viewed behavioral disorders as stemming from both biological predisposition and early
life experiences but argued that their maintenance was due primarily to self-indoctrination. Specifically, during
early childhood, children tend to internalize the critical attitude of their parents and then perpetuate that attitude
as they grow older.
27. What percent of individuals diagnosed of Panic Disorder also have Agoraphobia in community samples according to the DSM-IV-TR? A less than 10% B 15-25% C 33-50% D 50-66%
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. The DSM-IV-TR reports prevalence rates for Panic Disorder of 1 to 2% in community samples and states that
“approximately one-third to one-half of individuals diagnosed with Panic Disorder in community samples also
have Agoraphobia” (p. 436).
- In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining
whether
A the examinee is likely to do well on the job.
B the examinee is likely to do well on a job sample.
C the examinee will be satisfied on the job.
D the examinee is suited to train others.
The Correct Answer is “B”
A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not
designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly
indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In
fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample.
Deficits in organizational ability, decision-making, and problem-solving are most likely to be the result of damage to the A corpus callosum. B prefrontal lobe. C parietal lobe. D basal forebrain.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The activities listed in the question are “executive functions,” which are mediated by the frontal lobes, or, more specifically, by the prefrontal lobes. (The basal forebrain connects with the temporal lobes and is involved in long-term memory.)
- Despite his many accomplishments and positive feedback from his supervisor, a client believes his work
performance is below average because he feels like a failure. This is an example of:
A minimization
B selective abstraction
C emotional reasoning
D personalization
The Correct Answer is “C”
Emotional reasoning is one of several cognitive distortions described by Beck. It refers to a person believing that
because he or she feels a negative emotion, there must be a corresponding negative external situation.
Minimization (A) is seeing something as less significant than it really is. Selective abstraction (B) occurs when
one focuses on a detail, taken out of context, at the expense of other information. Personalization (D) is the
attribution of external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection.
Fee arrangements should be made with clients A at the beginning of treatment. B at the end of the first session. C on the phone before the first session. D as soon as possible.
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is an example of a question with more than one good answer. Choices “A”, “B”, and “C” may all be
acceptable, depending on the circumstances. But because there are a number of acceptable answers to this question, you’d hope to find one general answer, such as “D”, that covers most or all of the specific possible options. More importantly, of the choices listed, “D” is most consistent with the language of APA’s Ethical
Standard 6.04(a), which states: “As early as is feasible in a professional or scientific relationship, psychologists
and recipients of psychological services reach an agreement specifying compensation and billing arrangements.
An adolescent swearing with friends but not when around adults is example of: A response generalization B stimulus generalization C stimulus discrimination D overcorrection
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Discrimination and generalization refer to the differences in precision of stimulus control, or the ability of a stimulus to alter the probability of a response. Response probabilities vary with different contexts, discriminative stimuli, and reinforcement contingencies (e.g., what is likely to be rewarded, ignored, or punished). In this case, the adolescent behaves differently in one context (with friends) than in another context (with adults). Friends are a discriminative stimulus in which the response of swearing is more likely to occur. Overcorrection (d.) is a technique that is used to reduce an undesirable behavior and replace it with a more desirable one.
Feature integration theory predicts that the perception of an object as an entity rather than as a cluster of unrelated features depends on: A focused attention. B integrated attention. C selective attention. D divided attention.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Feature integration theory is what it sounds like. It’s a theory about how an object’s features are integrated, and it
proposes that focused visual attention is required for perception of an object to occur.
What is the area of the brain in which lesions cause indifference or apathy? A Corpus callosum B Frontal C Parietal D Pyramidal system
The Correct Answer is “B”
The frontal lobe contains the prefrontal association cortex. Lesions in this area disrupts the control and regulation
of cognition and planning (so-called executive functions). Individuals with such lesions show decreased initiative,
deficient self-awareness and concreteness in thinking.
Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of: A chaining B shaping C secondary reinforcement D higher-order conditioning
The Correct Answer is “D”
Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli (CS and US) are paired until the conditioned stimulus (CS) produces the conditioned response (CR) and then the CS (which is now referred to as a US) is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms. Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining (A) is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping (B)
involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.
The phenomenon of cross-modal perception, for example, hearing colors or tasting shapes is referred to as: A achromatopsia B sensory hallucinations C nystagmus D synesthesia
The Correct Answer is “D”
Synesthesia is a perceptual condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality is reliably perceived in one or more other senses. For example, individuals with synesthesia may hear odors or see sounds. The cause of
synesthesia is unknown, but is more prevalent among women and non-right-handed people. Achromatopsia (A) is a rare form of color blindness that is accompanied by hypersensitivity to light and poor visual acuity.
Hallucinations (B) are sensory perceptions that occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ.
Nystagmus (C) refers to involuntary jerky eye movement.
According to Anne Cleary’s model of test fairness, a job selection test would be considered unfair if
A Based on the use of the test, a higher proportion of Caucasians than African-Americans are chosen for the job.
B the test has a higher validity coefficient for Caucasians than for African-Americans.
C the slope of the test’s regression line is different for African-Americans than for Caucasians.
D the content of the test is culturally biased.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Under the Cleary model, a test is considered unfair if the slope and/or the y-intercept of the regression line is
different for one subgroup than for another. The effect of these statistical phenomena is that differences between
subgroups on predictor scores would not be reflective of differences between the groups on the criterion. For
instance, low scorers in one subgroup might do just as well on the criterion as high scorers in the other subgroup.
An attorney contacts a psychologist requesting that his client be given a psychological evaluation prior to
appearing in court. Following the evaluation the client asks that his records not be released to the court, although his attorney believes that releasing the records would be in his client’s best interest. The psychologist should:
A release the records since there is no privilege regarding forensic evaluations
B release the records since the attorney requested the evaluation
C not release the records
D seek consultation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Since this does not appear to be a court-ordered evaluation, the examinee remains the holder of the privilege; thus, his records should not be released to the court without his consent.
The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with: A Galton B Thurstone C Guilford D Cattell
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence.
Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or
single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or “thinking out of the box.” Galton (a.) postulated that
intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone (b.) applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities (that individuals possess
varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence). Cattell’s (d.) theory distinguished between fluid and
crystallized intelligence.
A loss of memory for autobiographical information is referred to as: A functional amnesia B anterograde amnesia C retrograde amnesia D malingering
The Correct Answer is “A”
Functional amnesia is a condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives, i.e., autobiographical information. Anterograde amnesia (B) is an impaired ability to form new permanent memories. Retrograde amnesia (C) is an inability to recall previous memories (i.e., for events that occurred prior to a head trauma), and is not necessarily for, or limited to, autobiographical information. Someone who is malingering (D) could feign memory loss for autobiographical memories; however,
most cases of autobiographical memory loss are not due to malingering.
When a psychologist working out of the Adlerian model serves as a consultant in a school, they:
A Work primarily with the school
B Identify the areas of inferiority within the system
C Primarily educate the parents and teachers through an emphasis on preventive interventions
D Reverse roles–having the teachers see themselves as children and the students as parents in the family school
system.
The Correct Answer is “C”
In general, consultants work with the teachers and parents rather than individual students. With the Adlerian
model, preventive interventions are emphasized and the consultants educate the parents and teachers. (Dustin and
Ehly 1992).
The term “neuronal threshold” refers to the fact that
A
all nerve cells fire simultaneously.
B
the strength of a nerve cell’s action is positively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives.
C
the strength of a nerve cell’s action is negatively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives.
D
a nerve cell’s stimulation must reach a certain intensity before it fires.
The Correct Answer is “D”
The term “neuronal threshold” refers to the minimum level of energy required for a neuron to fire. If the energy in
the cell is below this threshold level, the cell will not fire at all. And increasing the energy in the cell above the
threshold does not increase the intensity of firing. This is referred to as the “all-or-none” law – either the cell fires
at maximum intensity or it does not fire at all.
For months following the break up of a relationship with her finance, a woman is very distressed and obsessed with thoughts about the former relationship. Her most likely diagnosis would be: A Adjustment disorder B Bereavement C Obsessive Compulsive Disorder D Borderline Personality Disorder
The Correct Answer is “A”
Based on the limited information provided, her most likely diagnosis would be Adjustment Disorder. According
to DSM-IV-TR, Adjustment Disorder involves a psychological response to an identifiable stressor that results in clinically significant symptoms. Bereavement (“B”) is reserved for a reaction to the death of a loved one. In OCD the obsessions must not simply be excessive worries about real-life problems and the person must experience them as intrusive and, at least at times, attempt to ignore or suppress them. Before we could diagnose Borderline Personality Disorder we would need many more symptoms of instability of relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked impulsivity.
The best explanation for group members’ reluctance to provide negative feedback to one another is: A minority influence B group think C Yalom’s principle D the mum effect
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Rosen and Tesser (1970) conducted research on message transmission in different groups of people to
determine how individuals respond to relaying a message that may be displeasing. They proposed there is
emotional stress placed on the messenger, predicated on a fear of being infected with the emotional distress of the
recipient or of having to assume an emotional state congruent with the bad news, and for this reason there may be a decrease in the transmittance of bad news. Their findings, which have been subsequently supported by others,
indicated that bad news is transmitted less frequently than good news. MUM refers to the tendency to keep ‘Mum
about Undesirable Messages’ (See: Rosen, S. & Tesser, A. (1970). On reluctance to communicate undesirable
information: The MUM effect. Sociometry. 33, 253 - 263.) Minority influence (a.) refers to attempts by a
minority to alter of attitudes and beliefs on part of the majority typically involving a break with the accepted
norms and conventions; inspiring majority resistance; and creating a cognitive conflict for the majority. The
effectiveness of minority influence depends on the extent that it exhibits behavioral consistency, persistence and
internal coherence as well as congruency with the prevailing Zeitgeist, that is with values, norms and goals salient
for the majority. Groupthink (b.) is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which
prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become
irrational. Factors which contribute to groupthink include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader.
According to Sue and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person in the dissonance stage
would experience:
A
appreciation of the self and depreciation of the dominant group
B
depreciation of the self and appreciation of the dominant group
C
appreciation of the self and the dominant group
D
conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group
The Correct Answer is “D”
Even if you were unfamiliar with Sue and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, you may have been
able to guess correctly if you realized that the term “dissonance” refers to conflict. Sue and Sue’s (1990)
Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) is an elaboration of the Minority Identity Development
model (MID) proposed by Atkinson, Morton, and Sue (1989). Both models describe the same stages
(conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness) but the R/CID
model elaborates on individuals’ attitudes toward self and others. During the Conformity stage, a person
depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group. During the
Dissonance stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and
the majority group. In the Resistance and Immersion stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the
majority group. In the Introspection stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or
her appreciation and depreciation of self and others. And, finally, in the Integrative Awareness stage, the person
experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group [D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling
the culturally different: Theory and practice, 3rd edition, 1999, New York, John Wiley].
Cluster sampling involves
A
randomly selecting individual subjects from a larger target population.
B
randomly selecting a naturally-occurring group of subjects from a larger target population.
C
randomly selecting several naturally occurring groups from a larger population, and then randomly selecting
individuals from each group.
D
randomly selecting individuals from a larger target population and dividing subjects into groups on the basis of
their status on a demographic variable.
The Correct Answer is “B”
In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected
for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an
educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students
in that school as participants in the study. That’s cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as
multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster (group) and then selecting selectively smaller
clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district,
then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the
chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple
random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the
state.
According to Kohlberg, an individual who is concerned with obeying society's laws and rules is in which stage of moral development? A preconventional B conventional C postconventional D heteronomous
The Correct Answer is “B”
Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and
postconventional). At the preconventional level, morality is based on the consequences of an act. Good behaviors
are rewarded and bad behaviors are punished. The next level is conventional, in which morality is guided by the desire to maintain existing social laws, rules, and norms. In the post-conventional level individuals view morality
in terms of self-chosen principles. Heteronomous morality (D) is a term use by Piaget to describe preschool
children who believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable.
Of the following, the best way to reduce rater errors such as the halo and leniency biases would be
A
use of a forced-choice rating scale.
B
use of the forced distribution rating scale.
C
use of Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
D
adequate training of raters.
The Correct Answer is “D”
A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the
Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they
are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use.
Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors – specifically, the halo effect,
constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is “relevant”:
unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of
behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won’t work.
. Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person's level of chronic pain? A biofeedback B active coping C passive coping D cognitive-behavioral therapy
The Correct Answer is “C”
Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities,
use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients.
Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as
biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain [A. C. Mercado, L. J.
Carroll, J. D. Cassidy, & P. Cote, Coping with neck and low back pain in the general population, Health
Psychology, 2000, 19(4), 333-338].
The purpose of State Licensing Boards is primarily to A educate the public. B educate the profession. C protect the public. D set minimum standards of practice.
The Correct Answer is “C”
The State Boards derive their authority from the principle of protecting the public. That’s the justification for
giving exams, setting requirements for licensure, writing and enforcing regulations, and so on.
. Clonidine, an alpha-noradrenergic drug, is often preferable to dopaminergic blocking agents for treating
Tourette’s Disorder because it is safer for chronic use. However, clonidine does produce some undesirable side
effects including:
A
Parkinsonism, akathesia, and dysphoria.
B
dry mouth, headache, and hypotension.
C
anorexia, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting.
D
vomiting, dizziness, and irritability.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Since the question mentions that clonidine is safer for chronic use, you’d want to look for less serious side effects,
which narrows it down to responses b and d. In addition to dry mouth, headache, and hypotension, clonidine may
also cause sedation and dizziness.
Some experts argue that panic attacks do not occur in young children because
A
children do not experience the bodily sensations associated with panic.
B
children do not think catastrophically.
C
children are not capable of making internal interpretations of bodily sensations.
D
children are not capable of predicting that certain external events may trigger bodily symptoms.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Not all experts agree that children cannot experience panic attacks. However, those that do, for the most part,
argue that children do not experience panic because they are cognitively incapable of making internal catastrophic
interpretations (e.g., I’m going crazy) of bodily symptoms.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
A
It generates a high and constant rate of responding.
B
It produces behaviors that are the most resistant to extinction.
C
The relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable.
D
It produces the “scallop effect,” with a decreased rate of response following reinforcement.
The Correct Answer is “D”
In the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement occurs after a variable number of responses. The variable ratio has
been found to result in a high and constant rate of response (A) and, compared to the other schedules of reinforcement, the responses are the most resistant to extinction (B). Since it is a variable schedule, the relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable (C), which contributes to the above
characteristics. However, the scallop effect (D), in which the response rate drops after each reinforcement and
increases just before reinforcement is due, is characteristic of fixed schedules, especially the fixed interval schedule.
According to the catecholamine hypothesis, depression is due to a deficiency in: A dopamine B gamma-aminobutyric acid C acetylcholine D norepinephrine
The Correct Answer is “D”
Research with drugs led to the formulation of the “catecholamine hypothesis” about the cause of mood disorders.
First presented in 1965, Schildkraut et al.’s theory of depression emphasized the association of depression with a decrease in the levels of brain catecholamines dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE), especially norepinephrine. This hypothesis in its simplest form, stated that depression was due to a deficiency of
norepinephrine, one of the major catecholamine systems in the brain. This early hypothesis is based on evidence from three groups of drugs: reserpine, monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, and tricyclics. Reserpine depletes
the brain of dopamine and norepinephrine and is used primarily to treat hypertension. It is also used for severe
agitation. MAO inhibiters and tricyclics, although they work in somewhat different ways, are used to treat
depression and tend to increase the amount of norepinephrine available in the central nervous system. A variety of approaches, especially in the United States, tested this hypothesis and the results are inconclusive. Nonetheless, this theory served as he “standard” theory for depression in the United States until the 1980s. (See: McNeal, E. T., and Cimbolic, P. (1986). Antidepressants and Biochemical Theories of Depression. Psychological Bulletin, 99(3), 361-374.)
You are working with a couple in marital therapy and are conducting the initial interview. You realize that
although the husband doesn’t remember you, the two of you once dated. You should
A
speak to the husband alone, explain the situation and ask him if he feels comfortable with proceeding.
B
see the wife in individual therapy only.
C
refer the couple to another therapist.
D
let the couple know the situation and then proceed with therapy.
The Correct Answer is “C”
This question is fairly easy to answer once you remember you are not obliged to provide services for all your
referrals. This is an initial interview and you have a situation that involves a multiple relationship. You need to
refer this couple to one of your competent colleagues.
In contrast to traditional organizational culture, a quality-oriented culture emphasizes all of the following
except:
A
using cross-training so that each worker can perform a variety of tasks.
B
viewing workers as requiring continuous learning and development.
C
basing rewards on long-term (versus short-term) achievement.
D
rewarding employees for individual (versus group) achievement.
The Correct Answer is “D”This is the opposite of what is true about organizations that focus on quality where the policy is to emphasize rewarding group performance and organization-level achievement rather than individual achievement (which is
characteristic of the traditional approach). The other characteristics listed in the responses are relatively new
approaches and are characteristic of “total quality” organizations.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between environmental factors and the
course of Bipolar Disorders?
A
Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the early stages of the disorder.
B
Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the latter stages of the disorder.
C
Environmental factors are likely to have an approximately equal impact throughout the course of the disorder.
D
Environmental factors are likely to have no impact because Bipolar Disorders are entirely due to biological
factors.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Bipolar Disorders have a strong genetic and biological component. Nonetheless, evidence suggests that
environmental factors can trigger episodes. This is especially true in the early stages of the disorder; psychosocial stressors often trigger the initial mood episodes; they less frequently trigger subsequent episodes.
. A unilateral throbbing headache that is aggravated by light, sound, or any movement is characterized as a: A cluster headache B migraine headache C tension headache D sinus headache
The Correct Answer is “B”
Migraine headaches are typically unilateral, that is, felt on one side of the head and are typically throbbing in
nature. Migraines are also frequently accompanied by sensitivity to light, sound, and movement, and may be
accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Cluster headaches (A) are characterized by severe pain usually behind one
eye and typically last for a few minutes to several hours and reoccur at the same time each day for several weeks,
until the cluster period is over. Tension headaches (C) are described as a constant, dull, pain on both sides of the
head. They are typically accompanied by tension in the head or neck muscles and begin slowly and gradually.
Sinus headaches (D) are usually located in the mid-facial area and are described as a dull ache often accompanied
by nasal congestion.
In Huntington's Disease, the first brain structure to show signs of damage is the A superior colliculus. B medulla oblongata. C nucleus cuneatus. D caudate nucleus.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Huntington’s Disease is due to degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, and the degeneration is usually first
apparent in the caudate nucleus. (The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus
pallidus.)
In regards to learning, children generally have an advantage over adults due to their greater: A brain plasticity B explicit memory C implicit memory D metamemory
The Correct Answer is “A”
Brain plasticity refers to the ability of the nervous system to adapt to different circumstances and to find new
ways of learning. Plasticity is particularly useful for acquiring a new skill or recovering from a brain injury.
Children, as you might expect, have greater plasticity than adults, although adults maintain some degree of
plasticity throughout their lives. The greater plasticity in children is attributed to their brains not being fully
developed. The human brain continues its development throughout childhood and into early adulthood, with
significant increases in neural connections and myelination. However, adults, having more life experience, have
more explicit and implicit memories. Adults also tend to have better metamemory, that is, greater knowledge of
what one knows and how one’s memory works, although this ability may decline among older adults.
When an impulsive group decision that reflects an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences is the result of high stress, high group cohesiveness, and a directive leader, this is an example of: A groupthink. B group polarization. C the risky shift. D the Rosenthal effect.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Although group polarization and the risky shift also refer to poor decision-making, their antecedents have not
been as well-defined as those associated with groupthink (i.e., only groupthink has been linked theoretically and
empirically to an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences, high group cohesiveness, etc.).
Large amounts of information can be kept in short-term memory through the use of: A the "savings" method. B eidetic memory. C chunking. D mnemonics
The Correct Answer is “C”
The classic finding in the area of research into short-term memory (STM) is the “7 +/- 2” finding; i.e., that STM
has the capacity of storing 7 plus or minus 2 pieces of information at one time. Chunking is a technique designed to increase the amount of information that can be kept in STM – it involves grouping larger amount of
information into single chunks. In other words, STM is used to store 7 +/- 2 chunks rather than 7 +/- 2 isolated
bits of information. Mnemonics (choice D) are used to increase the efficiency of encoding newly learned
information, which increases the ease with which that information is retrieved from long-term memory.
. To determine two rater's level of agreement on a test you would use: A Kappa coefficient B Discriminant validity C Percentage of agreement D Item response theory
The Correct Answer is “A”
There are a number of ways to estimate the interscorer reliability, but the most common involves calculating a
correlation coefficient between the scores of two different raters. The Kappa coefficient is a measure of the
agreement between two judges who each rate a set of objects using the nominal scales.
. High-context cultures are characterized by
A
reliance on elaborated (versus restricted) communication codes.
B
heavy reliance on nonverbal (versus verbal) messages.
C
restraint of feelings.
D
emphasis on short-term goals.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The terms “high context” and “low context” have been used to describe cultural differences in communication. A high-context style is characterized by reliance on nonverbal and culturally-shared cues and is characteristic of a
number of cultural/racial minority groups including African-, Hispanic-, and Asian-Americans.
esearch on group performance has examined the effects of the heterogeneity of group members in terms of
personality, gender, experience, and so on. Overall, these studies have found that heterogeneity is
A
positively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness.
B
positively related to creativity but negatively related to decision-making effectiveness.
C
negatively related to creativity but positively related to decision-making effectiveness.
D
negatively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Most of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its impact on creativity and problem-solving and has
found it to have beneficial effects on both.
If someone presents with complaints and symptoms including anxiety, irritability, and hypomania, and the diagnosed disorder is not exclusively psychogenic, the most likely non-psychiatric cause would be A Addison's Disease. B hyperthyroidism. C Sleep Apnea. D Alcohol Amnestic Disorder.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Hyperthyroidism, or over secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland, is a possible physiological cause of
symptoms that resemble generalized anxiety or hypomania.
A high level of expressed emotion by family members has been found to be predictive of relapse for which of the following disorders? A schizophrenia B eating disorders C mood disorders D all of the above
The Correct Answer is “D”
The relationship between a family’s level of expressed emotion (EE) and the risk of relapse among patients with
Schizophrenia has been known for many years; however, recently EE has also been linked to eating disorders and
mood disorders. In fact, in a meta-analysis the relationship of EE to relapse in eating disorders and mood
disorders was significantly greater than the relationship found for Schizophrenia (mean effect sizes were .51, .39,
and .31, respectively) [R.L. Butzlaff & J.M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, Archives of General Psychiatry, 55, 1998, 547-552].
Since his parents separated four months ago, Jessie Jr. is withdrawn, cries, and is easily angered for a day or
two after visiting his noncustodial father on alternate weekends. When mom asks Jessie Jr. what’s wrong, he says
“nothing.” Mom should interpret this as:
A
a lack of attachment to dad.
B
a lack of attachment to mom.
C
a clear sign of sexual abuse.
D
a normal response.
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is a difficult question because it provides so little information about Jesse Jr.’s behavior. However, it is
normal for children to show distress before and after visits to the noncustodial parent, especially during the first
few months after the divorce. (For sexual abuse to be the right answer, you’d want to see more severe symptoms
that last for a longer period of time.)
Individuals with the diagnosis of Seasonal Affect Disorder are most likely to respond to light if they
experience:
A
atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia
B
melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss
C
incomplete summer remission
D
more chronic forms of depression
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Research on the use of light therapy for the treatment of various forms of depression has yielded the findings
that for true SAD, atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia predict a robust response,
whereas melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss are generally less responsive to light (See:
Terman et al., American Journal of Psychiatry, 1996, 153,:423-9). Additionally, a clear onset period with
complete remission in the spring and summer months is the SAD phenotype that is most likely to respond to light.
Whereas patients with more chronic forms of depression or incomplete summer remission are less likely to have a
robust response, they may benefit to some extent (See: Lam et al., Journal of Affective Disorders, 2001, 63,
123-32).
A manufacturing company hires a psychologist to screen job applicants using standardized cognitive ability tests. The company then asks the psychologist to train their human resources staff to administer and score the
tests. The psychologist should:
A
agree to do so if the psychologist is able to provide adequate training to the staff
B
agree to do so if the psychologist is able to supervise the human resources staff
C
refuse to do so because cognitive ability tests are not valid predictors of job performance
D
refuse to do so because the human resources staff lacks the appropriate qualifications
The Correct Answer is “D”
Ethical Standard 9.07 states, “Psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons.” A human resources staff would be unqualified to use these tests and should not be trained in their use. Contrary to C, cognitive ability tests are considered to be a relatively good predictor of job
performance.
The leading cause of infant mortality is: A respiratory distress B sudden infant death syndrome C homicide D congenital malformations
Although there has been about a 75% decrease in the infant mortality rates from 1950 to 1999, the proportion of
deaths caused by congenital deformities has actually increased, making it the leading cause of death during
infancy (i.e., the first year of life). The next leading cause is low birthweight followed by sudden infant death
syndrome (B). These three causes accounted for almost one-half of all infant deaths in 1999. Respiratory distress
(A) was the 5th leading cause of infant deaths. Homicide (C) was ranked 15th (although homicide risk is higher
during infancy than in any other year of childhood before age 17 years)
A 60-year old couple complains of a decrease in their sex life. Although they don’t feel they need
psychotherapy, they would like some information. There is no indication of medical or emotional problems. You
should tell them that:
A
there is nothing that you as a psychotherapist can do at this time.
B
they should seek help since it is normal to continue sexual behavior.
C
there is a wide variation in sexual activity depending on physical and emotional variables.
D
everyone’s sexual activity drops with age
The Correct Answer is “C”
C is the more conservative and more appropriate answer since we don’t know too much about the couple. If we knew more about why they sought help, we could make a more specific recommendation.
High levels of stress are associated with:
A
tension headaches, but not migraine headaches.
B
migraine headaches, but not tension headaches.
C
both tension headaches and migraine headaches.
D
neither tension headaches nor migraine headaches.
The Correct Answer is “C”
As their name suggests, tension headaches are associated with stress. The psychological correlates of migraine
headaches are less clear, and more than one theory has been proposed regarding this issue; however, clinical observation has suggested that stress often plays a role in their onset.
. A 17-year-old male involved in a skateboarding accident suffered a head trauma resulting in deficits to his
declarative memory. He would likely have the most difficulty:
A
riding a skateboard
B
recalling when he rode his first skateboard at 10-years-old
C
recalling his own name
D
recalling what he ate for lunch yesterday
The Correct Answer is “D”
Declarative or explicit memories are long-term memories that one can consciously recall. They include semantic
(factual information) and episodic (personally experienced) memories. Riding a skateboard (A) requires procedural memory. All of the other choices require explicit memory; however, memory deficits due to head trauma or disease usually affect recent long-term memory before affecting remote long-term memory.
. A 50-year old has memory loss as the result of her long-term heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble A getting dressed. B remembering someone she met a week ago. C recalling her first date. D repeating five digits forward and backward.
The Correct Answer is “B”
People with Korsakoff’s Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, long-term alcohol consumption) have severe anterograde amnesia along with retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the relatively recent past.
Procedural memory is undisturbed (response A); remote memories are usually intact (response C); and short-term memory is unaffected (response D).
A leader should adopt a “telling” style if:
A
The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility
B
The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility
C
The employee’s ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high
D
The employee’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low
The Correct Answer is “D”
The “telling style” according to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) description, is more effective when an employee’s
ability and willingness to accept responsibility are low. This leadership style involves high task orientation and low
relationship orientation. With A, the leader should adopt the “selling” style–high task orientation and high
relationship orientation. With B, the leader should adopt a “participatory” style–low task orientation and high
relationship orientation. With C the leader can use a “delegating style”; both low task and low relationship
orientation.
Which of the following work schedules would most likely result in improved job satisfaction? A five-day fixed day shift B compressed week C rotating shifts on a weekly basis D rotating shifts on a quarterly basis
The Correct Answer is “B”
The research on alternative work schedules is mixed, however, one consistent finding is that rotating shifts result in lowered productivity and satisfaction, higher accident rates, and more physical and mental health problems. Obviously, the more frequent the change in schedule, the more difficult it would be to adapt. On the other hand, compressed work week schedules, such as the 4/40, usually result in improved job satisfaction and decreased absenteeism. However, compressed schedules usually have no effect on productivity or, depending on the job,
possibly a negative affect. (while flextime schedules result in improved productivity, absenteeism, and
satisfaction).
The risk of sampling error is greatest when a: A sample size is small B test has low reliability C test has low validity D confounding variable exists
The Correct Answer is “A”
Sampling error is the extent to which a sample value deviates from the corresponding population value which it is
supposed to represent. Thus, the smaller the sample size, the greater the risk of sampling error. You should have been able to eliminate reliability (“B”) and validity (“C”), since those are characteristics of a test – which is not applied until after the sampling procedure. Sampling error, as it’s name implies, takes place during the sampling or selection of subjects. A confounding variable (“D”), is a variable that is not of interest in a study but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Thus it would threaten the internal validity of a test but it is not related to sampling error.
People diagnosed with PTSD are often successfully treated with psychotherapy and don’t need to be referred
for medication treatment unless:
A
They also have a high level of cognitive functioning
B
They experience feelings of numbness
C
They tolerate exploratory psychotherapy well
D
Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life
The Correct Answer is “D”
PTSD is not usually treated with phamacotherapy unless the target symptoms of intrusive experiences, flashbacks, transient psychosis, marked derealization, and avoidance and numbing markedly interfere with daily life. With
these symptoms, short-term medication is indicated. When the target symptoms of major depression, panic disorder or persistent psychotic symptoms become too intense, long term medication is indicated (Barry Pierce, R
cassidy seminars, Santa Rosa CA).
A person making a “fundamental attribution error” would:
A
overestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting the behavior of
others.
B
overrestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one’s own
behavior.
C
overestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one’s own failures
and underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one’s own successes.
D
underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate dispositional factors in interpreting the behavior of
others.
The Correct Answer is “D”
You need to be able to differentiate between the different types of attributional errors. The fundamental
attribution error or bias only refers to interpretations of others’ behaviors. It occurs when we underestimate
situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors in understanding the behavior of others. For example, if we see someone trip and assume it’s because they’re clumsy. Choice B describes the actor-observer effect. Choice
C describes the self-serving bias.
The inability to perform complex, purposeful movements, which cannot be explained by problems related to comprehension, coordination, or strength is referred to as: A ataxia. B alexia. C agnosia. D apraxia.
The Correct Answer is “D”
You may have been able to answer this one by the process of elimination if you’re not familiar with apraxia. There
are many forms of apraxia including ideomotor, constructional, and dressing apraxia.
Utilization review, an important component of managed health care, refers to the idea that it is useful to
A
review benefits to eliminate or reduce unnecessary health care resources.
B
determine the adequacy of health care standards by comparing them to predetermined standards.
C
make decisions on patient care by a team of medical experts rather than an individual physician.
D
allow a patient to choose from several insurance plans.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Utilization review is concerned with conserving health care monies. It does this through having a utilization review committee assess the use of benefits and reduce or eliminate inappropriate or unnecessary use of health care resources. Answer B is a description of the concept of quality assurance and answer C is describing a medical team management approach to individual health care.
Which of the following is related to minority influence? A Ambiguity B Idiosyncracy credits C Conformity D Psychological reactance
The Correct Answer is “B”
According to Hollander (1985) in order to successfully challenge the majority opinions of a group, a person must first conform to the group in order to establish credibility as a competent insider. By becoming accepted members of the group, we accumulate idiosyncracy credits which are like brownie points.
In regard to substance use, the Americans with Disabilities Act
A
protects alcoholics and drug addicts as “qualified individuals” with a disability.
B
prohibits administering a drug test to an individual who is participating in a drug rehabilitation program.
C
prohibits drug testing from being administered to a prospective employee after a job offer is made.
D
protects individuals participating in a drug rehabilitation program who are no longer using drugs.
The Correct Answer is “D”
The Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) does not consider individuals who are “currently engaging in the
illegal use of drugs” as suffering from a disability on that basis. In other words, it does not protect current drug
users. However, it does protect past substance addicts – as long as the individual is currently participating in or
has completed a supervised rehabilitation program, and the person is not currently using drugs.
In regard to drug testing, the act does not identify any circumstances in which drug testing is prohibited. In fact,
even though it protects former substance addicts, the Act permits employers to use “reasonable means” –
including drug tests – to verify that such persons are no longer using substances.
Form A is administered to a group of employees in Spring and then again in Fall. Using this method, what type of reliability is measured? A split-half B equivalence C stability D internal consistency
The Correct Answer is “C”
Test-retest reliability, or the coefficient of stability, involves administering the same test to the same group on two
occasions and then correlating the scores. Alternative forms reliability, or coefficient of equivalence (response
“B”), consists of administering two alternate forms of a test to the same group and then correlating the scores.
Internal consistency reliability (response “D”) utilizes a single test administration and involves obtaining
correlations among individual test items. Split-half reliability (response “A”) is a method of determining internal
consistency reliability.
. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 applies to:
A
all health care providers
B
only health care providers who transmit patient information by fax and the internet
C
only health care providers who employ someone, such as billing services, with access to patient information
D
only health care providers who transmit patient information electronically
The Correct Answer is “D”
HIPAA does not apply to all health care providers. It only applies to “cover entities” — health plans, health care
clearinghouses and healthcare providers — who transmit health information electronically. A provider who only communicates information by mail, phone, or fax is not a covered entity. Transmitting information electronically refers to use of the internet and includes receiving health information as well as transmitting information. For example, a provider is a covered entity even if she/he never transmits information but receives information, such as a description of benefits e-mail, via the internet. Additionally, a provider employing someone who sends or receives patient information on the provider’s behalf via the internet is also a covered entity.
Following a stroke or head trauma, which of the following memory functions is most likely to be affected? A iconic memory B long-term store C memory for newly learned information D verbal memory
The Correct Answer is “C”
Questions like this can be frustrating because it is really impossible to make blanket generalizations. When the
brain is compromised by a medical problem (or by substance use), the nature of impairment always depends on the location in the brain of damage and the extent of damage. However, if memory is impaired, the ability to
retain newly learned information is most likely to be affected. Impairment in other types of memory, such as
long-term episodic memory or verbal (semantic) memory, usually indicates more severe memory damage in which
impairment in learning new information is also present.
According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership? A consideration and initiating structure B employee-centered and production-centered C autocratic and democratic D authoritarian and laissez-faire
The Correct Answer is “A”
Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership
ranging from employee to production-centered (response “B”). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of
consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people.
Which of the following statements best describes the role of countertransference in the process of
psychoanalytic therapy, according to current psychoanalytic thought?
A
When present, countertransference is invariably detrimental to the therapy process.
B
Countertransference helps the therapist identify his or her own unresolved issues and become a better clinician as
a result.
C
Countertransference can help the therapist identify subtle aspects of the transference and better understand the
patient’s experience.
D
Countertransference allows the therapist to show the patient that he or she is human after all.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Countertransference refers to the therapist’s transference responses to the patient. According to current
psychoanalytic thought, a therapist’s analysis of his or her own countertransference reactions can help the
therapist recognize subtle aspects of the transference relationship and better understand the patient’s experience.
A person with agnosia is unable to identify a familiar object by sight but does identify it when it is placed in her hand. This is most likely due to A a visual impairment. B visual inattention. C a deficit in iconic memory. D visual "not knowing."
The Correct Answer is “D”
The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an
inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, etc.
Which of the following is an example of assimilation?
A
Arranging flowers in a vase
B
Changing your clothes to please your spouse
C
Calling the daisies and ferns arranged in a vase “posies”
D
Putting on a coat in the winter
The Correct Answer is “C”
Assimilation is when a child incorporates and interprets new information in terms of his or her existing schema.
Thinning refers to the process of:
A
switching from a fixed interval to a fixed ratio schedule
B
switching from a variable interval to a variable ratio schedule
C
switching from an intermittent to a continuous schedule
D
switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Continuous schedules, or reinforcing every response, are associated with quick learning, satiation and extinction. The process of thinning, or switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule, is used to increase the resistance to extinction once a behavior is established.
Bandura’s research looking at the impact of punishing a model for acting aggressively on male and female
observers showed that
A
when the model is punished, male and female children are more likely to act aggressively than when the model is
rewarded.
B
when the model is punished, performance (but not learning) of aggressive behaviors is reduced.
C
when the model is punished, learning and performance of aggressive behaviors are both reduced.
D
when the model is punished, male and female children are less likely to agree that aggressiveness is acceptable.
The Correct Answer is “B”
In his work on observational learning, Bandura found evidence for his theory that learning and performance are
separate phenomena and that learning can occur without reinforcement. For example, in the study described in
this question, children learned aggressive responses by watching an aggressive model (even when the model was
punished) and, consequently, were able to imitate the aggressive behavior when told they would be rewarded for
doing so. Interestingly, boys (but not girls) who were rewarded for imitating the aggressive model were more likely to do so when the model had been punished than when the model had been rewarded.
Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to cause: A impaired motor coordination B impaired memory and attention C alterations in the sleep/wake cycle D “psychic blindness”
The Correct Answer is “B”
B. The prefrontal cortex is associated with a variety of cognitive functions, including attention and certain aspects
of memory. An individual with damage to the prefrontal cortex may exhibit distractibility, impaired working memory, a reduced attention span, and impaired prospective memory. “Psychic blindness” (d.) is associated with Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by damage to certain areas of the temporal lobes.
A college psychology instructor gives a battery of psychological tests to some of his students who
volunteered to be participants. Based on these tests, he finds that one of the participants is at risk for emotional
disturbance. He talks to this student and suggests counseling. At the same time, he informs the director of the
college counseling office who is a friend of his. According to APA ethical principles, the professor acted
A
unethically, because he revealed this information to a third party.
B
ethically, because he acted in accord with the student’s welfare.
C
ethically, because he had responsibilities to the college as well as to the student.
D
unethically, because he isn’t a clinician.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Suggesting counseling to the student is ethical and appropriate. However, barring an emergency situation
characterized by imminent danger, informing a third party is unethical.
When developing a treatment plan for a client with a Specific Phobia, it is important to keep in mind that
A
exposure in vivo and exposure in imagination are about equally effective as long as exposure sessions are
sufficiently long in duration.
B
the effectiveness of exposure is increased, especially with regard to long-term effects, when it is used in
conjunction with cognitive techniques.
C
for some Specific Phobias (e.g., dental and animal phobias), two to four sessions are often useful for significantly
reducing phobic reactions in many people.
D
systematic desensitization has recently been found to be more effective than prolonged exposure treatments,
especially in terms of reducing the risk for relapse.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Exposure is currently considered the best intervention for most (if not all) Anxiety Disorders. However, the best way of exposing clients to stimuli that elicit anxiety depends on the particular disorder. For Specific Phobia, brief in vivo exposure is effective for many clients, and adding a cognitive component usually does not improve the
effects of the intervention substantially.
Medications used for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder mostly target: A dopamine B GABA C norepinephrine D serotonin
The Correct Answer is “D”
Knowing that SSRIs are the most prescribed medications for the treatment of OCD should have helped you
choose the correct answer. SSRIs target serotonin, which is believed to reduce the symptoms of OCD. Although
the mechanism of action is not fully understood, and may differ from the mechanism involved in its antidepressant
effects, serotonin is believed to be the primary target.
100. Which of the following theorists related career development to ego identity development? A Anna Freud B Super C Holland D Tiedeman and O'Hara
The Correct Answer is “D”
Tiedeman and O’Hara based their career development model on Erikson’s psychosocial theory of ego identity
development. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of many
differentiations and reintegrations throughout one’s lifespan. Differentiation comes from the realization that a
particular career does not “fit” with one’s personality. Integration involves identification with a career.
With a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the risk of the same diagnosis for a monozygotic twin is how many times greater than the risk for a dizygotic twin? A one time B two and a half times C four times D six and a half times
The Correct Answer is “B”
This is one of those questions that seems to be a favorite of the EPPP. The risk for an identical (monozygotic)
twin to be diagnosed is about 46% and for fraternal (dizygotic) twins it is about 17%. You have to be able to do
the basic math here, and realize that 46 is about two and a half times 17, and thus is the “closest” to correct. This
question is also a good example of how the exam takes a straightforward finding and muddies the water with it.
Which of the “Big Five” personality traits is most associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder?
A
low on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
B
low on neuroticism, low on openness, low on extroversion
C
high on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
D
high on neuroticism, low on openness, low on agreeableness
The Correct Answer is “C”
The Big Five personality traits: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (“OCEAN”) have been matched with several of the personality disorders. Antisocial Personality Disorder was found to be associated with low scores in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness and generally higher scores in Neuroticism and Extroversion. Note that “neuroticism” is sometimes referred to as its opposite: “emotional stability”.
From the perspective of Bandura's social learning theory, "functional value" refers to: A external reinforcements. B anticipated consequences. C self-efficacy beliefs. D relationship to previous learning.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Functional value is pretty much what it sounds like. According to Bandura, a behavior has functional value when the person anticipates that performing it will result in desirable consequences (i.e., when the behavior serves a
function).
Meta-analysis was first used in psychological research by: A Binet B Smith and Glass C Eysenck D Horn and Cattell
The Correct Answer is “B”
Gene Glass coined the term “meta-analysis” in 1976 and Smith and Glass first used the technique in their
psychotherapy outcome studies in 1977. A prior version of the technique was actually developed by Karl Pearson
in 1904 (who is better known for his correlation coefficient); however, it was Smith & Glass’ classic study which modified and popularized the technique. The benefit of meta-analysis is that it allows researchers to statistically compare the results of several independent studies to yield a single effect size indicating the magnitude of an independent variable’s effect.
Which of the following statements regarding the results of research into the correlates of smoking is not
true?
A
The majority of people who quit smoking gain weight, with typical weight gain being between 20-25 pounds.
B
Fear of weight gain often inhibits people from attempting to quit smoking, and signs of weight gain often trigger
relapse in quitters.
C
Depression is found at a higher rate among smokers than among non-smokers.
D
Cessation of smoking can trigger depressive episodes in smokers with a history of Major Depression.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Though 80% of quitters gain weight, the average weight gain is only between 7-9 pounds. The other choices are
true statements.
You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they’re
being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to
A
explain the nurses’ concerns to the hospital administrators.
B
conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the
hospital administrators.
C
act with the best interests of the hospital’s patients in mind.
D
help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.
The Correct Answer is “D”
A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization’s
underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can
solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By
comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and “fix” the problem; these interventions
would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.
A psychologist is undertaking a research program in an elementary school on the effect of a new counseling
program on enhancing children’s self-esteem. The psychologist has received permission from the school’s
principal, the teachers, and from the parents of each student. However, when she explained the program to the
children, some of them objected to being part of the study. The psychologist should
A
not use these children in her study.
B
call the parents of these children and ask them to try to convince the children to participate.
C
use the children in her study because she has all necessary legal consents.
D
re-design the study to eliminate the objection the children have to participating.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The best idea is to just leave out these children. Participants have the right to decline to participate in research,
even if they are children. It wouldn’t be practical or prudent to ask her to re-design the whole experiment because a handful of children object to being participants. Thus, the best answer is to just do the study without using the
children who object to participating.
You have a client who does not want their records released under any circumstances. The attorney has
subpoened you. Your best course of action is to:
A
Respond in-person, but don’t take the records
B
Take the records, but don’t turn them over
C
Ignore the entire matter
D
Destroy the records
The Correct Answer is “B”
You should respond to the subpoena by asserting the psychotherapist-client privilege on the client’s behalf. If you cannot be released from the subpoena, you should appear at the legal proceeding with the documents requested, however, you should not actually release any information in the records, unless the judge orders you to do so. Keep in mind that a subpoena duces tecum requires a person to appear at a designated time and place with a copy of the records. It does not necessarily require the person to release those records.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder?
A
The rate for prepubescent girls is twice that of prepubescent boys
B
The rate for adolescent females is half that of adult females
C
The rate for adolescent and adult females is half that of adolescent and adult males
D
The rate for adolescent and adult females is twice that of adolescent and adult males
The Correct Answer is “D”According to the DSM-IV-TR, Major Depressive Disorder occurs at twice the rate for adolescent and adult females as compared to adolescent and adult males. The rates for prepubertal boys and girls are equal.
In a positively skewed distribution, one would most likely find, ranked from lowest to highest in value, the: A median, mean, mode. B median, mode, mean. C mean, mode, median. D mode, median, mean.
The Correct Answer is “D”
You have to picture the positively skewed curve in order to get this correct. Positive skewness means there are
some outliers (extreme scores) way over on the positive side. That’s where the tail is, way off to the right, or
positive, end. Since the mean takes into account the magnitude of the scores, these outliers can be pictured as “pulling” the mean to the positive side, or the right. So, in any ordering of measures of central tendency, the mean would be the highest value. Thus, you can eliminate the two distractors that don’t list the mean as the highest value. To distinguish between the remaining answers, let’s go back to consider what the median is. The median is the middlemost point irrespective of value. If you’ve pictured the curve correctly you can see that more than half the cases fall on the right side because some are way over on the positive side. If you put a line where the highest point is on the curve, which is the mode, you’d see that more than half the cases fall to the right of that line. Hence the median, the 50% point, is to the right of the high point, the mode. This should have gotten you to the correct answer.
Signs of the personality characteristic of social inhibition are usually present A at birth. B by the age of four months. C by the age of nine months. D by the time the child attends school for the first time.
The Correct Answer is “B”
About ten percent of all children are socially inhibited. Typically, these children cling to their parents, are socially
timid, and are scared of the unfamiliar. Reliable predictors of social inhibition have been detected in early infancy
– as early as the ages of 2-4 months. For instance, infants who display high levels of negative affect and motor
activity in response to novel stimuli tend to display social inhibition later on in life. These and other findings
suggest that inhibition and other personality characteristics related to basic temperament are stable and have a strong genetic basis.
Which statement is most true about validity?
A
Validity is never higher than the reliability coefficient.
B
Validity is never higher than the square of the reliability coefficient.
C
Validity is never higher than the square root of the reliability coefficient.
D
Validity is never higher than 1 minus the reliability coefficient.
The Correct Answer is “C”
A test’s reliability sets an upper limit on its criterion-related validity. Specifically, a test’s validity coefficient can
never be higher than the square root of its reliability coefficient. In practice, a validity coefficient will never be
that high, but, theoretically, that’s the upper limit.
Using the deviation IQ is preferred to using the ratio IQ because the deviation IQ:
A
can be ascertained more easily by simply referring to the IQ tables.
B
is a more reliable measure of performance for the lower and upper ranges than was the ratio IQ.
C
is comparable across all ages because the standard deviations are the same for all ages.
Dall of the above.
The Correct Answer is “C”
The ratio IQ was a simple formula used when mental tests were first developed. It was a way of determining how the child’s mental age differed from his or her chronological age. A problem with the ratio IQ is that IQ scores are
not comparable across age groups. For this reason, the deviation IQ was developed. Here the IQs are related to
the average score for each age group and the derived IQ is presented in terms of how far the score deviates from
that average. In this way, the scores can be more easily compared across ages.
Reactive Attachment Disorder, Inhibited Type involves
A
indiscriminate attachments.
B
hypervigilance.
C
over-attachment to a primary caretaker and fear of others.
D
symptoms of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder in children.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Reactive Attachment Disorder occurs in children below the age of 5 and is characterized by disturbed social
relatedness. There are two subtypes: inhibited and disinhibited type. This question is about the former, which involves inhibition, hypervigilance, and ambivalent responses in social situations. The other subtype, disinhibited type, involves indiscriminate attachments and sociability (e.g., familiarity with strangers, lack of selectivity in choice of attachment figures). In both subtypes, evidence of pathogenic care (e.g., disregard for the child’s basic physical or emotional needs) must be present before the diagnosis can be made.
An athlete is requested to take a drug screening test used to identify individuals with performance enhancing
substances in their systems. Despite the player’s actual usage of steroids, the test fails to identify the substances.
In the context of decision-making theory, this individual is a:
A
false positive
B
false negativeC
true positive
D
true negative
The Correct Answer is “B”
B. Based on performance on the predictor and the criterion, individuals may be classified as false positives, true positives, false negatives, or true negatives. False negatives, like the athlete, are not identified as having used substances when, in fact, they have. Conversely, false positives (a.) are identified by the drug screening test as having used or having substances present, when they have not. True positives are individuals identified by the screening test as having substances present and they do. True negatives are individuals not identified by the
screening test to have substances present and do not.
A 16-year-old girl tells her therapist that she wants to kill herself and that she’s been thinking of using her
mother’s prescription pain pills to overdose. The therapist then tells her that he will have to tell her parents about
her suicide risk. The girl becomes enraged and says that she would not have disclosed the information if she knew
that the therapist would tell her parents. The therapist should:
A
agree not to tell the parents if the girl agrees to a no-harm contract
B
agree not to tell the parents, but tell them without the girl’s knowledge
C
tell the parents and refer the girl to another therapist because she will probably not be able to trust the therapist
again
D
tell the parents and apologize to the girl for having to do so
The Correct Answer is “D”
According to both ethics and law, a psychologist may disclose confidential information without the client’s
consent to protect the client from harm. This applies to minors and adults alike. In this case, it would most likely
be appropriate to inform the girl’s parents about her suicide risk. The reasons for this should be explained to the
girl and the therapist should apologize for the breach of confidentiality. Given the apparent level of risk involved,
it would probably not be sufficient to rely on a no-harm contract (A). It would certainly be inappropriate and
countertherapeutic to lie to the client (B). And it may not be necessary to refer the client (C). If handled empathically, it is likely that the girl will come to understand the therapist’s reasons for disclosing to the parents and may come to appreciate that her safety was his overriding concern.
A minority group member who is a client of yours expresses very strong negative feelings towards her own culture in a therapy session. This client is most likely in which stage of the Minority Identity Development model developed by Atkinson, Morten, and Sue? A resistance B dissonance C conformity D denial
The Correct Answer is “C”
The authors mentioned in the question have developed a model of cultural identity development in minority group
members, called the Minority Identity Development (MID) model. The model’s five stages are conformity,
dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and synergetic articulation and awareness. Individuals in the
conformity stage prefer the dominant culture’s values to those of their own culture. They are likely to have
feelings of racial self-hatred, negative beliefs about their own culture, and positive feelings toward the dominant
culture.
According to current research, the most predictive variable for adult IQ scores among infant responses
would be
A
scores on the Bayley Scale of Infant Development.
B
scores on the Gesell Development Schedule.
C
attention to a visual recognition task.
D
auditory orientation.
The Correct Answer is “C”
While standard developmental scales don’t predict later IQ score, a baby’s responses to a visual attention task do.
How much time it takes the baby to assimilate a novel stimulus is moderately predictive of later IQ score since, it
is hypothesized, the mental functioning involved is similar.
Overcorrection typically involves:
A
restitution, guided movement, and positive practice.
B
restitution, positive practice, and negative reinforcement.
C
positive practice, cognitive reattribution, and community reintegration.
D
restitution, negative reinforcement, and cognitive reattribution.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Overcorrection is a behavioral technique designed to eliminate undesirable behaviors and promote alternative
ones. In overcorrection, the person is required first to correct the consequences of a negative behavior (e.g., clean up the shards of a vase he broke); this is called restitution. Then, the person must repeatedly practice alternative behaviors; this is referred to as positive practice. In many cases, the person is physically guided through the restitution and/or positive practice phases.
The tendency of sports teams to win more often when they are playing on their home court is referred to as the “home advantage.” This phenomenon is best explained by: A home court familiarity B expectations of the players C social support from fans D demoralization of the visiting team
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. The home advantage in team sports has generated various explanations; however, it most consistently has been linked to a supportive home audience.
Prenatal alcohol exposure is most likely to adversely affect the fetus during the: A first trimester B second trimester C third trimester D the first or third trimester
The Correct Answer is “A”
Drinking alcohol anytime during pregnancy can have adverse effects on the fetus. However, alcohol consumption during the first trimester is more likely to cause structural and anatomical defects, characteristic of fetal alcohol
syndrome. Consumption during the second and third trimesters is more likely to result in growth restriction and
functional impairment.
What is the most stressful thing abut staying in a hospital for a child? A Fear of death B The hospital environment itself C Separation from their parents D The hospital food
The Correct Answer is “C”
The most stressful thing about staying in a hospital for a child is separation from parents. Many hospitals are
beginning to institute “sleeping rooms” for parents to spend the night in.
What is the least helpful suggestion you can give to parents when they are going through a divorce or
marital conflict?
A
avoid exposing the children to any conflicts
B
allow the children to participate in decisions regarding visitation rights
C
in the long run, it is better for the children if you divorce than if you remain in an unhappy marriage
D
remarry as soon as possible
The Correct Answer is “D”
Research has identified a number of factors associated with poorer adjustment in children whose parents divorce.
For instance, rapid remarriage of one or both parents is predictive of poorer adjustment. The other suggestions
are likely to be helpful (or at worst, benign): exposure to parental conflict, parental continuance of an unhappy
marriage, and failure to allow children to establish a relationship with the noncustodial parent are all factors
associated with poorer long-term adjustment in children of divorce.
. In terms of divorce, the “sleeper effect” refers to:
A
the gradual improvement of children (especially males) who initially displayed a high degree of maladjustment
after the divorce.
B
the persistence of symptoms in males who exhibited a high degree of maladjustment at the time of the divorce ten
years earlier.
C
the appearance of symptoms in females who seemed to be doing well at the time of the divorce ten years earlier. D
the appearance of symptoms in husbands and wives who seemed to be doing well at the time of the divorce ten
years earlier.
The Correct Answer is “C”
The term “sleeper effect” has been used by Wallerstein and others to describe the finding that some children
(especially girls) who seemed well-adjusted immediately after the divorce of their parents show significant
problems in adolescence and early adulthood. Note that not all research has found evidence of this sleeper effect.
The most effective treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder is: A systematic desensitization B flooding C cognitive-behavioral therapy D benzodiazepines
The Correct Answer is “C”
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) has been found to be the most effective treatment for Generalized Anxiety
Disorder, probably because it combines a number of behavioral and cognitive interventions.
Which of the following techniques will exacerbate of chronic pain rather than reduce it? A Religious coping B Cognitive therapy C Active coping D Passive coping
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Passive pain-coping strategies, a category described in Brown and Nicassio’s (1987) dichotomy of active
versus passive coping strategies, are associated with worse pain and adjustment among chronic pain patients.
Passive coping strategies are those that involve giving responsibility for pain management to an outside source or allowing other areas of life to be adversely affected by pain. They may also serve as psychological enforcers of
pain. Examples of passive coping strategies are focusing on where the pain is and how much it hurts, restricting
or cancelling social activities, or thoughts such as “ There’s nothing I can do to lessen this pain,” or “I wish my
doctor would prescribe me better pain medication.” In contrast, active coping strategies entail the patient taking
responsibility for pain management including attempts to control the pain or to function in spite of it. Examples of
active coping strategies include engaging in physical therapy or exercise, staying busy/active, relaxation
techniques, clearing distracting thoughts and attention from the pain. Cognitive (b.) and cognitive behavior
therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing the experience of pain and improving positive behavior
expression, appraisal and coping in individuals with chronic pain. Evidence supports a
relationship between positive health outcomes and the use of religious coping to manage pain. Pargament (1990)
identified three possible interactions between religion and coping: religion can influence the parts of the coping
process (appraisal, coping activities, results, assistance, and motivation); contribute to the coping process by
influencing perception (attribution of meaning and the feeling of control) and preventing certain events from
happening (through a beneficiary life style); and it can be the resultant of the coping process through religious
attributes.
Which of these pairs is most similar?
A
posttraumatic amnesia and retroactive inhibition.
B
retrograde amnesia and proactive inhibition.
C
anterograde amnesia and proactive inhibition.
D
anterograde amnesia and retroactive inhibition.
The Correct Answer is “C”
To answer this you need to know two concepts in forgetting: one related to neuropsychological functioning, and the other related to cognitive psychology. If amnesia starts from a time of trauma and extends forward into new
experiences (e.g., the person can’t remember anything occurring after a head trauma), it’s anterograde. If the amnesia extends backwards into experiences before the trauma, it’s retrograde. So keep this in mind: anterograde
for new experiences, retrograde for past experiences. Now let’s move to cognitive psychology and compare
memory inhibitory processes. Retroactive inhibition occurs when new learning interferes with previous learning. Proactive inhibition occurs when previous learning interferes with new learning. Now, if we make a comparison between the two sets of terms, we will combine proactive inhibition with anterograde amnesia. This is because, in proactive inhibition, the forgetting is for information occurring after a particular event, and in anterograde amnesia, the person cannot retain any information that occurs after a trauma. Retroactive inhibition and retrograde amnesia are analogous for similar reasons, except that the word “before” rather than “after” applies.
Which statement is most correct? A High reliability assumes high validity. B High validity assumes high reliability. C Low validity assumes low reliability. d Low reliability assumes low validity.
The Correct Answer is “B”
This question is difficult because the language of the response choices is convoluted and imprecise. We don’t
write questions like this because we’re sadistic; it’s just that you’ll sometimes see this type of language on the
exam as well, and we want to prepare you. What you need to do on questions like this is bring to mind what you know about the issue being asked about, and to choose the answer that best applies. Here, you should bring to mind what you know about the relationship between reliability and validity: For a test to have high validity, it must be reliable; however, for a test to have high reliability, it does not necessarily have to be valid. With this in mind, you should see that “high validity assumes high reliability” is the best answer. This means that a precondition of high validity is high reliability. The second best choice states that low reliability assumes low
validity. This is a true statement if you interpret the word “assume” to mean “implies” or “predicts.” But if you
interpret the word “assume” to mean “depends on” or “is preconditioned by,” the statement is not correct. So B is
the best answer.
From the perspective of Beck's cognitive therapy, suicidal individuals are characterized by a high degree of hopelessness coupled with: A maladaptive interpretations. B poor problem-solving skills. C the "cognitive triad." D impulsivity.
The Correct Answer is “B”
This is a difficult question if you are not familiar with Beck’s work on suicide. Maladaptive interpretations and
beliefs are, of course, an important focus in Cognitive Therapy regardless of the client’s problem. However, since
this question is asking specifically about suicide, you’d want to choose the response that fits that problem.
According to Beck, suicide risk is heightened by a combination of hopelessness and poor problem-solving skills.
An adolescent is unhappy with her recent haircut and feels that everyone is looking at her and laughing about her "bad hair." This is an example of A a social trap. B social referencing. C personal fable. D imaginary audience.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Elkind identified two aspects of the adolescent’s renewed egocentrism. The imaginary audience is the belief that
one is always “on stage”; the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and invulnerable.
Which of the following statements best reflects the research findings on suicide risk among adolescents?
A
Males from dual-parent families have a higher suicide rate than males from single-parent families
B
Females from dual-parent families have a higher suicide rate than females from single-parent families
C
Males and females from single-parent families have a higher suicide rate than those from dual-parent families
D
There is no significant relationship between adolescent suicide rates and family configuration
The Correct Answer is “C”
Several studies have found that the risk for suicide and suicide attempts is higher among both male and female
adolescents in single-parent homes as compared to dual-parent homes.
The differential diagnosis between Schizoid Personality Disorder and Avoidant Personality Disorder is based on A degree of isolation. B odd behaviors. C self-centeredness. D fear of rejection.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of indifference to social relations and a limited range of emotional expression in social situations. Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. Individuals with both these disorder are likely to avoid social relationships. However, those with Avoidant Personality Disorder do so due to timidity and fear of criticism, disapproval, or rejection. Individuals with Schizoid Personality Disorder, by contrast, do so out of indifference to social relationships and a preference for solitary activities.
During the sixth month of group therapy, two co-leaders have a disagreement in session about how to run
the group. According to Yalom, they should
A
allow the senior therapist to take control of the group.
B
divide the group into two sub-groups, each led by one of the co-leaders.
C
resolve the conflict in front of the group.
D
agree to discuss the conflict later, outside the presence of the group.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Yalom believes that co-leaders should not express conflict in front of the group during the early stages of therapy.
However, in his book The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, he notes that mature resolution of
conflict in the later stages can serve as a healthy model for the group members.
Differential prediction is one of the causes of test unfairness and occurs when:
A
members of one group obtain lower scores on a selection test than members of another group, but the difference
in scores is not reflected in their scores on measures of job performance
B
a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion
C
a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups
D
a test has differential validity
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. As described in the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, differential prediction is a potential
cause of test unfairness. Differential prediction occurs when the use of scores on a selection test systematically
over- or under-predict the job performance of members of one group as compared to members of another group.
Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her
ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion (b.). Differential validity, also a possible cause of adverse impact, occurs when a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups (c.). When a test has differential validity (d.), there is a slope bias. Slope bias refers to differences in the slope of the regression line.
A therapist working from the perspective of Beck’s cognitive therapy would approach the treatment of Panic
Disorder by
A
having the client identify maladaptive thoughts that precede panic attacks and then restructuring those thoughts.
B
connecting the panic attacks to the client’s overall attributional styles.
C
teaching the client methods of self-reinforcement to use when he or she is not having a panic attack and methods
of self-punishment to use when he or she is having one.
D
identifying and modifying the client’s interpretation of panic attacks and their associated physical symptoms.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Cognitive therapists believe that Panic Disorder is connected to “catastrophic misinterpretations” of bodily
sensations, symptoms, and mentation. The client’s “overcastrophization” of early signs of the attack such as
hyperventilation results in a full-blown attack. Thus, at least initially, therapy focuses on identifying and modifying
the client’s misinterpretations of symptoms and thoughts immediately before and during the attack.
It is estimated that 60 percent of children with Tourette’s syndrome also have AD/HD. In treating Tourette’s and other Tic Disorders, which of the following medications requires the greatest caution when used for treatment? A pimozide B fluoxetine C clonidine D methylphenidate
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Tourette’s syndrome is a chronic tic disorder that involves vocal and motor tics. Recent estimates indicate 60 percent of children with Tourette’s have AD/HD, and approximately 7 percent of children with AD/HD have tics
or Tourette’s syndrome. The symptoms are often mild, and a significant social impact only occurs in rare severe cases. According to recent research, psychostimulant medication is not related to the development of Tourette’s syndrome in children with AD/HD. However, when there is a family history of tics or Tourette’s syndrome, a cautious treatment approach is recommended as some individuals will experience worsening of their tics with stimulant treatment.
An elderly male displays paranoid ideations. Dementia and psychosis have been ruled out. The best intervention in this case would likely be to
A
refer him to a psychiatrist for phenothiazines.
B
challenge his dysfunctional thought disturbances.
C
alter his environment to make it seem less threatening.
D
explore his early experiences to determine the roots of the problem.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Questions like this are certainly frustrating, since in real life you would conduct a comprehensive assessment of
the person before planning interventions. For the exam, however, you must do your best with the information you
have at hand.
Paranoid ideations in elderly clients are often wholly or partially due to what is happening around them. For
instance, elderly people often live in high crime areas, are victimized by unscrupulous businessmen, and are
plotted against in various ways by family members. If the person is mildly memory impaired, depressed, and/or
hearing impaired, these events can seem even more threatening and the ideations can intensify. Thus, of the
choices listed, the best option would be to alter the environment to make it seem less threatening.
Rutter (1985) believes that there are six family risk factors that are particularly accurate predictors of child psychopathology. They include all of the following except: A low socioeconomic status. B paternal psychopathology. C severe marital discord. D large family size.
The Correct Answer is “B”
For answer B to be correct, the answer should be maternal psychopathology. Rutter listed low socioeconomic
status, severe marital discord, large family size, parental criminality, and placement of children outside the home,
to be predictors of child psychopathology.
According to Nancy Chodorow (1978) roles in society will change only when we have a system of parenting
in which men and women are equally responsible for child rearing. Chodorow feels:
A
The present system doesn’t reflect the gendered division of labor
B
The present system teaches girls to remain attached to their mothers
C
The present system teaches boys to remain attached to their mothers
D
The present system cannot be explained through object relations theory
The Correct Answer is “B”
Chodorow uses the principles of object relations theory (thus D is incorrect) to show that girls are taught to stay
attached to their same sex mother while boys are taught to differentiate (opposite of answer C) from their
mothers. Chodorow argues that the present system represents a gendered division of labor and that changes in
gender relations will only occur when men and women are equally responsible for child rearing.
Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of: A dopamine B epinephrine C GABA D norepinephrine
The Correct Answer is “C”
Huntington’s Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal
ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of
GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle
movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).
According to the APA’s Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults, which of the following
statements regarding psychotherapy effectiveness is most accurate?
A
older adults do not respond as well as younger adults
B
older adults respond better than younger adults
C
older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond quicker
D
older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond slower
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. The American Psychological Association, in its Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults
[American Psychologist, 2004, 59(4), 236-260] concluded that older adults may respond more slowly to various
forms of psychotherapy but there are few significant differences in effectiveness relative to younger adults.
Additionally, tailoring an intervention to the specific needs of an older client may increase its effectiveness.
Of the following, which would be the most important factor to keep in mind when deciding whether to
prescribe tricyclic anti-depressants to a patient?
A
the patient’s suicide risk.
B
the patient’s history of treatment success or failure with tricyclics.
C
whether or not the patient’s symptoms are atypical.
D
whether or not the patient’s symptoms are primarily vegetative.
The Correct Answer is “A”
All of these factors would be important to consider in deciding whether to prescribe tricyclics to a patient.
However, safety considerations generally supercede all others; thus, choice “A” is the best answer. The risk of
suicide in depressed patients must always be considered by physicians when writing prescriptions – particularly
for potentially dangerous drugs such as tricyclics.
Complex Partial Seizure Disorder, formerly known as Temporal Lobe Epilepsy, is known to originate in the temporal lobe. However, absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are believed to originate in the: A cerebelum B thalamus C occipital lobe D parietal lobe
The Correct Answer is “B”
Absence or Petit Mal Seizures are very brief (30 seconds or less) and are characterized by minimal motor activity
and a lack of awareness. Absence seizures usually begin in childhood and most outgrow the condition by
adulthood. Researchers believe that absence seizures originate in the thalamus (the central relay station for
sensory information going to the cortex).
Following a stroke involving the MCA (middle cerebral artery), an elderly man experiences weakness and loss of sensation in his left arm and leg. In addition, he exhibits A left visual field loss. B Wernicke's aphasia. C left-right disorientation. D finger agnosia.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Because this man’s symptoms involve the left side of his body, this indicates that the stroke affected the right side
of his brain. Depending on the location of the brain damage, the man may also be experiencing left visual field
loss, anosognosia (denial of deficits), and left-sided neglect. The symptoms listed in answers B, C, and D are
caused by damage to the left side of the brain.
According to Bowen, to reduce tension between them, family members often resort to: A scapegoating. B retribalization. C triangulation. D emotional divorce.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Of the terms listed in the responses, only two are associated with Bowen (triangulation and emotional divorce). Bowen described triangles as a means of reducing tension and conflict between two family members who refocus their attention on the triangulated member.
The findings of the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) research project regarding the relative
effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressant medication in the treatment of depression
indicate that
A
both treatments are about equally effective.B
cognitive/behavioral therapy is more effective in the short-term, while medication is more effective in the
long-term.
C
cognitive-behavioral therapy has an immediate effect, while medication has a delayed effect.
D
cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The findings of the NIMH research project were that, on an overall level, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and
antidepressant medication are about equally effective in the treatment of depression. There was some evidence
that the treatments differed in the types of depression for which they are most effective. Specifically, some
evidence suggested that CBT is more effective for milder forms of depression, while medication is more effective
for relatively severe forms. But in terms of overall effectiveness, both treatments were found to be about equal.
At the beginning of the work day, an employer tells Salesperson A to “do the best he can” but Salesperson B
to make at least 20 sales in order to break his previous record. At the end of the eight-hour shift, Salesperson A
has made 15 sales and Salesperson B has made 22 sales. This outcome is predicted by
A
goal-setting theory
B
need for achievement theory
C
two-factor theory
D
path-goal theory
The Correct Answer is “A”
In this situation, Salesperson A has been given an ambiguous goal, while Salesperson B has been given a specific and, presumably, difficult goal. Goal-setting theory predicts that the latter results in the greatest effort and
performance.
Research investigating the brain areas that may be linked to the symptoms of ADHD suggests that degree of
impulsivity is associated with the
A
size of the caudate nucleus.
B
extent of neural abnormalities in the thalamus.
C
extent of structural abnormality of the corpus callosum.
D
size of the RAS.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The size of the caudate nucleus (especially in the right hemisphere) has been linked to impulsivity in children with
ADHD – the smaller the caudate, the greater the impulsivity. (Abnormalities in the corpus callosum are also
found at higher-than-normal rates in children with ADHD, but they have not been consistently linked to
impulsivity.)
Kuder-Richardson reliability applies to A split-half reliability. B test-retest stability. C Likert scales. D tests with dichotomously scored questions.
The Correct Answer is “D”
The Kuder-Richardson formula is one of several statistical indices of a test’s internal consistency reliability. It is
used to assess the inter-item consistency of tests that are dichotomously scored (e.g., scored as right or wrong).
An actress portrays a philanthropist in a TV series. In each show, she performs an act of kindness toward a downtrodden individual or group. The actress receives a great deal of mail from fans who tell her what a fantastic
person she is because she is so willing to share her time and wealth with others who are in need. The response of
the actress’s fans illustrates which of the following.
A
the ultimate attribution error
B
the fundamental attribution bias
C
the self-serving bias
D
the selectivity bias
The Correct Answer is “B”
The fundamental attribution bias (error) refers to the tendency of people to overestimate the contribution of
dispositional factors to an actor’s behavior. In the situation described in the question, the actress’s fans attribute
her good deeds to her rather than to the role she plays in the TV series.
Children’s memory for early events: A cannot be recalled by most after age 3 B is limited and constant C changes after age 2 D changes as it develops over time
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Recent research has found that babies memories are not lost, rather they are updated continually as learning
progresses. Their ability to recall is influenced by the same factors and conditions that impact recall in older
children and adults. These include: the nature of the events; the number of times they experience them; and the availability of cues or reminders. Children from ages one to three are all capable of both immediate and long-term recall of specific events in their lives. Infants tested at two, four, and six months can recall details about hidden objects, their location, and size. The failure in retrieving memories from the first years of life (a.) refers to the phenomenon of infantile amnesia. Infantile amnesia has been theorized to be the result of a lack of schematic
organization of experience, a different in way of encoding in early childhood, and, more recently, the importance
of language development. Studies on memory and language development suggest that memories are made initially as the result of the child talking about them with someone else. As the ability to reason develops, the memory securing conversations are carried out within the child him/herself
Which of the following best describes the ethical requirements of a licensed clinical psychologist who tests
positive for HIV?
A
inform clients of his/her medical condition “as early as is feasible”
B
obtain supervision to ensure that the medical condition does not interfere with the performance of work-related
duties
C
refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by the medical condition
D
there is no obligation to take precautions or special actions in this situation
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Being diagnosed with HIV, when considering the ethical obligations of a psychologist, would be considered a health-related personal issue. Personal problems, including emotional, social, health-related and other personal issues, are addressed in Standard 2.06: Psychologists “refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner.” If a psychologist thinks the condition may impair his/her ability to provide effective services or perform work-related duties then the psychologist would “take appropriate measures.” However, there is no evidence that this is the case, so (b.) is not the best answer. Informing clients of the condition (a.) is not necessary and may not be in the best interests of some of the clients to do so.
Tumors, head injuries, viral infection, vascular or other neurological disorders that damage the medial
temporal region of the brain affect:
A
retrograde and anterograde memory
B
retrograde memory and general intellectual abilities
C
anterograde memory and general intellectual abilities
D
retrograde and anterograde memory and general intellectual abilities
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Neurological disorders that damage the medial temporal region can cause organic amnesia. In organic amnesia,
anterograde amnesia (an impaired ability to form new permanent memories) is often the outstanding cognitive
impairment, though retrograde amnesia (impairment of memory for events that occurred before the onset of
amnesia) can also occur. Despite the severe impairment in new learning ability, general intellectual or language
abilities and short-term memory are generally intact.
ECT would most likely be given to A an older depressed woman. B a female schizophrenic threatening suicide. C a male schizophrenic during an acute psychotic episode. D an elderly person with Dementia.
The Correct Answer is “A”
ECT is used to treat depression that has not responded to other forms of treatment. Since choice A is the only
one that directly refers to depression, it is the best answer. It’s also a good answer since women are more likely than men to suffer from the major depressive disorders, and because it’s more likely that this situation would occur in middle and late adulthood, when the symptoms become more intractable to other treatments. Dementia might have a depressive component along with it, but one wouldn’t recommend ECT strictly for Dementia.
One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors in the therapy process is that
A
more seriously disturbed clients have better outcomes in therapy.
B
higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcomes.
C
age is significantly related to therapy outcome.
D
men are more likely to seek therapy.
The Correct Answer is “B”
One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors is that higher levels of intelligence predict
better therapy outcome (Luborsky, 1989). Answer A is incorrect because seriously disturbed individuals actually
have poorer outcomes (Garfield, 1994). In regard to answer C, age appears to be unrelated to therapy outcome
and answer D would have to state that women are more likely to seek therapy to be correct (Luborsky et al.,
1989).
All of the following are true regarding young children’s long-term recall except:
A
children 6 months old can retain learned responses 14 days later
B
children exposed to an event at 14 months can remember it 8 months later.
C
preschoolers can provide verbal reports of events that occurred during their second year of life.
D
children under the age of 2 years old can not recall past events
The Correct Answer is “D”
Contrary to previous beliefs that children under the age of 3 years old are unable to recall events in their lives,
more recent research has found early childhood memories to be more enduring. By the end of the first year of life,
children have the capacity to recall at least some aspects of past events.
Bandura completed the classic study on aggression in children and learned that:
A
children tend to imitate the aggressive behavior of adults
B
children are less likely to imitate adults they admire
C
children only imitate aggression seen on television
D
children only imitate live models
The Correct Answer is “A”
Bandura (1963) showed the effect on children of witnessing either live or filmed models. He showed that not only
do children imitate the aggressive behaviors of adults, but that the more important, liked, and familiar the adults
are, the more the children will imitate them.
The statement "I'm afraid because I run" would be supported by the theory of A Cannon and Bard B James and Lange C Yerkes and Dodson D Miller and Dollard
The Correct Answer is “B”
Historically, two competing theories of emotion have been the Cannon and Bard theory and the James and Lange theory. Cannon and Bard (A) proposed that emotions and thoughts occur more or less simultaneously. William James in America and Lange in Europe had a different idea. They contended that we first observe our behavior and then we make an attribution of that behavior in terms of some emotion. Therefore, the notion that if we observe ourselves running we must have felt afraid is most consistent with the James and Lange theory. Yerkes and Dodson (C) are known for identifying the inverted “U” relationship between arousal and performance. Miller and Dollard (D) are known for a few theories including the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which proposed that frustration always precedes aggression.
Protocol analysis typically involves
A
specifying the unstated rules of communication between two individuals.
B
analyzing a behavior in terms of its antecedents and consequences.
C
recording specific behaviors that allow one to understand the subject’s problem-solving methodology.
D
standardizing psychotherapy procedures.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Protocol analysis is sort of an umbrella term used to refer to qualitative research studies that involve collecting
verbatim reports. These reports could consist of an examinee’s verbal statements, a descriptive account of a
subject’s behavior, or both. The term is commonly applied to research where the subject is asked to “think aloud” as he or she is performing a task. The researcher then records what the subject does and says, and analyzes the data to determine what cognitive processes are used to solve the problem. The analysis, by the way, is not quantitative or statistical; rather, it is qualitative, or based on the researcher’s own interpretations.
When a multiple regression analysis is employed to predict outcome, there should be
A
low intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
B
high intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
C
low intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
D
high intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
The Correct Answer is “A”
This question has come up in other examples throughout the tests. Simply stated, we need to have a high
correlation between the predictor and the criterion we’re making predictions about (this eliminates two of the four
alternatives). Also, we need to have the predictors themselves be more or less independent of each other. That is, they shouldn’t intercorrelate. If they do, then there’s no point in using all of them – if they all measure the same
thing, why not use just one? So, you don’t want the predictors to intercorrelate.
The most resilient children are raised by parents who are:
A
low in control and high in warmth
B
high in control and high in warmth
C
high in demandingness and low in responsiveness
D
low in demandingness and low in responsiveness
The Correct Answer is “B”
According to the research of Baumrind, authoritative parents, who are described as being high in control
(demandingness) and high in warmth (responsiveness) tend to raise children who are most resilient to the stresses of life. These children have better coping skills, are more mature, responsible, and perform better on cognitive measures. Permissive or Laissez fairre parents (A) express warmth but use little discipline. Their children have difficulty controlling their impulses and, although they are intelligent, they are not motivated to achieve.
Authoritarian parents (C) are high in control, but low in warmth. Their children are often insecure, dependent,
and perform more poorly on cognitive tests. Finally, uninvolved/rejecting/neglecting parents (D) are low in both
control and warmth and their children have the worst coping skills. The children tend to be antisocial, lack
self-regulation, are more immature, and score lower on cognitive tests.
Which of the following is not true about work samples as a selection technique?
A
less likely to discriminate against members of minority groups
B
good predictor of job performance
C
work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills
D
work samples of verbal skills have more validity than work samples of motor skills
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Work samples provide standardized, job-like conditions to measure work behavior. They are used as a
selection technique, as an indicator of individuals likely to benefit from training, and as a means of reducing
turnover through a job preview. Research indicates that work samples are generally good predictors of job
performance; however, work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills.
Additionally, work samples are less likely to discriminate against individuals from different groups and are
acceptable to applicants.
Which of the following is a statistical measure of the degree of difference among scores of subjects within the same experimental or treatment group? A F ratio B mean square between C mean square within D standard error of the mean
The Correct Answer is “C”
Mean square within (or MSW) is a measure of within-group variance – the degree to which subjects within the
same experimental group differ from each other. MSW is the denominator of the F ratio, and is referred to as the
error term. The larger the magnitude of MSW, the less likely the F ratio will be significant.
A sixteen-year-old has just received her driver's license and drives the new car her parents have given her as fast as possible in all situations. This is an example of: A Imaginary audience B Personal fable C Acceleration D Decentration
The Correct Answer is “B”
This type of thinking is an example of the “personal fable” or the idea that one is unique and not subject to the
natural laws that govern others (such as the concept of mortality). Elkind (1984) “All Grown Up and No Place to
Go” Reading, MA. Addison-Wesley, wrote about the personal fable and also the “imaginary audience” which is
the idea that one is always the center of other’s attention.
Psychodrama seeks to examine and resolve difficult situations through guided dramatization and the release of creative forces inherent in the individual. The issue or problem to be explored in the psychodrama is chosen by the: A protagonist B antagonist C director D audience
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Most associated with Jacob L. Moreno, psychodrama employs experiential methods, role theory, sociometry
and group dynamics to facilitate insight, personal growth, and integration on cognitive, behavioral and affective
levels. Psychodrama provides participants a safe, supportive environment in which to practice new and more effective roles and behaviors. There are three distinct components of group interaction in a classically structured psychodrama session: the warm-up, the action and the sharing phases. In the warm-up phase, the group theme is identified and a protagonist (a.), individual(s) who represents the theme in the drama, is selected. In the action phase the problem is dramatized and the protagonist explores new methods of resolving it. Then in the sharing phase, group members or the audience (d.) may express or share their associations, experience or connection with the protagonist’s work. The other components of psychodrama include: auxiliary egos (b.), or group members who assume the roles of significant others in the drama; the director (c.), a trained psychodramatist who guides participants through each phase of the session; and the stage, the physical space in which the drama is conducted.
The four main stages of neural development are:
A
meiosis, mitosis, migration, myelination
B
mitosis, meiosis, differentiation, myelination
C
differentiation, mitosis, migration, myelination
D
proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Neural development involves the stages of proliferation, migration, differentiation, and myelination. The proliferation stage includes the production of cells. Migration is the second stage of development during which the cells move or migrate to its ultimate destination in the nervous system. Following migration is differentiation, in which cells develop the unique characteristics of nerve cells. During the fourth stage, myelination, the axons of some cells become surrounded (insulated) by glial cells. Meiosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with one-half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
From the perspective of Beck’s cognitive-behavioral model, automatic thoughts are
A
basic irrational beliefs that underlie depression and other maladaptive behaviors.
B
interpretations of a situation that determine one’s behavioral and emotional responses.
C
central, firmly-held beliefs about the self.
D
misinterpretations of situations that reflect some type of cognitive distortion.
The Correct Answer is "B"
According to Beck, everyone has automatic thoughts – they're not necessarily associated with cognitive
distortions or psychological distress. However, when automatic thoughts provide an unrealistic interpretation of
the situation ("This is awful!"), they may lead to maladaptive behavioral or emotional responses.Communication networks in which information passes along a chain of command are associated with:
A complex job tasks B simple job tasks C increased individual satisfaction D collaborative job tasks
The Correct Answer is “B”
Centralized communication networks, where all communication passes through one position or person, have beenshown to be more efficient when tasks are mundane and simple. Formal communication networks where information moves between many positions or people (decentralized communication networks) work best with complex and/or collaborative job tasks. Research indicates decentralized networks also result in more individual satisfaction.
Which of the WAIS-III factors is most stable across the lifespan? A perceptual organization B processing speed C verbal comprehension D working memory
The Correct Answer is “C”
Of the four WAIS-III factors, Verbal Comprehension is the most stable across the lifespan, followed by Working
Memory, Perceptual Organization, and Processing Speed.
The idea that watching violent television shows reduces aggressive impulses is predicted by A catharsis theory. B negative affect theory. C the model of incompatible responses. D the deindividuation model.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The catharsis model of aggression holds that an aggressive act (or witnessing an aggressive act) can reduce a person’s inclination to engage in other aggressive acts. The idea, first put forth by Dollard and his colleagues as an outgrowth of the frustration-aggression hypothesis, is that activities such as observing fictional violence or making hostile jokes could drain energy away from violent tendencies. However, this theory has not been supported by empirical research, which suggests that engaging in or witnessing aggression may actually increases aggressive behavior.
Therapists who become sexually involved with their clients
A
usually do so because they believe they are in love with the client as a result of the client’s unique and desirable
characteristics.
B
usually do so as a result of a lack of experience and poor judgment.
C
usually do so to fulfill personal needs resulting from events in their own life.
D
do not show any characteristics that distinguish them from therapists who do not become sexually involved with
their clients.
The Correct Answer is “C”
The experts generally agree that therapists who have sexual relationships with their clients are not only exhibiting
poor judgment but are also usually suffering from some type of impairment, often related to boundary issues or
unfulfilled needs. See J. D. Guy, The Personal Life of the Psychotherapist, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1987.
During the course of a research experiment, subjects witness someone who is apparently hurt, needing
immediate help, and are unable to help or know if the person is assisted. The subjects become immediately
distressed. In this situation:
A
debriefing occurs at the conclusion of participation
B
group debriefing occurs at the conclusion of collection of data
C
debriefing occurs when subjects become distressed
D
debriefing occurs at the conclusion of research
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. This question involves deception in research, distress and debriefing. Due to the use of deception and the
resultant participant distress, debriefing immediately following participation is the best option as described by
Standard 8.07(c) Deception in Research: “Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the
design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their
participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection.” The Ethics Code on Debriefing, Standard
8.08(a), notes, “Psychologists provide a prompt opportunity for participants to obtain appropriate information
about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research, and they take reasonable steps to correct any
misconceptions that participants may have of which the psychologists are aware,” and in Standard 8.08(c) “When
psychologists become aware that research procedures have harmed a participant, they take reasonable steps to
minimize the harm.”
Reduced incidence of substance abuse among Native American adolescents would most likely result from:
A
normalizing substance use within tribal communities
B
increasing the legal consequences of substance use
C
aversive conditioning
D
increasing bicultural competence
The Correct Answer is “D”
Interventions designed to increase “bicultural competence” have been found effective in preventing substance
abuse among Native American adolescents. These interventions help individuals develop coping skills that “blend
the adaptive values and roles of both the culture in which they were raised and the culture by which they are
surrounded” (LaFromboise, Assertion training with American Indians: Cultural/behavioral issues for trainers. Las
Cruces: New Mexico State University, 1982, p. 12). Normalizing substance use (A) would likely increase the
incidence of substance abuse and has been regarded as one of the factors that contributes to the high rate of
substance abuse among Native Americans. Increasing legal consequences of substance use has not been found to
be a very effective deterrent for adolescents presumambly because adolescents do not always make rational
decisions based on consideration of the perceived consequences of committing a crime. (D. M. Kahan, Between
economics and sociology: The new path of deterrence. Michigan Law Review, 1997, 95, 2477-2497). Finally,
aversive conditioning (C) is more likely to be used as a treatment, rather than a method of prevention.
The primary associated feature of the Somatoform Disorders is A panic attacks. B anxiety and depression. C addiction to analgesics or mild tranquilizers. D somatic delusions.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The Somatoform Disorders (such as Somatization Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatoform Pain Disorder, Hypochondriasis, and Body Dysmorphic Disorder) are characterized by physical symptoms which have no known physical cause and are believed to be caused by psychological factors. The DSM identifies anxiety and depression as associated features of each of these disorders. You might have gone for addiction to analgesics or tranquilizers, since it seems to make sense. However, excessive use of analgesics (which are not addictive anyway) is identified as a possible associated feature of Somatoform Pain Disorder only.
A “needs assessment” is used to:
A
identify the worth of a job so that an equitable wage can be determined.
B
determine if and what kind of training is needed in an organization.
C
describe the requirements of a job.
D
identify which type of job would be most satisfying for an individual.
The Correct Answer is “B”
A “needs assessment” or “needs analysis” is the first step in developing a training program. Not surprisingly, this
involves identifying the needs of the organization. This is very different than a job evaluation (A), which is used to
determine the relative worth of a job, or a job analysis (C) which is used to describe the requirements of a job.
When a study has two or more independent variables the research design used is: A MANOVA B ANOVA-one way C Factorial ANOVA D ANCOVA
The Correct Answer is “C”
The factorial ANOVA is used when a study involves more than one independent variable. A one way ANOVA is
used when a study has one independent variable and more than two independent groups. MANOVA is used when
the study has two or more dependent variables and ANCOVA is used to adjust dependent variable scores to
control for the effectiveness of an extraneous variable.
An external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of: A a self-confident person B a hostile personC a depressed person D most minorities
The Correct Answer is “C”
The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in
regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the “internal” factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called “personalization,” a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control – seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them. A self-confident person (A) is most likely to have an internal locus of control and responsibility. A hostile person (B) is more likely to blame
others, that is, would have an external locus of responsibility. And, contrary to D, only marginalized minorities are likely to have an external locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility.
Individuals who recall memories under hypnosis, compared to non-hypnotized individuals,
A
have more confidence in their memories and are more likely to recall events accurately.
B
have more confidence in their memories but are less likely to recall events accurately.
C
have less confidence in their memories and are less likely to recall events accurately.
D
have less confidence in their memories but are more likely to recall events accurately.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Research shows that memories retrieved under hypnosis tend to be less accurate than other memories.
Nonetheless, individuals who recall information while under hypnosis have greater confidence in their memories
as compared to controls. In some research studies, hypnotized subjects were reluctant to admit that their
memories were inaccurate even when confronted with clear evidence demonstrating this to be the case.
In principal components analysis, an eigenvalue would indicate
A
the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by an independent statistical component.
B
the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by a statistical component that shares variability
with other statistical components in the analysis.
C
the amount of variability in one measured variable accounted for by all the independent statistical components in
the analysis.
D
the amount of variability in all measured variables accounted for by all the statistical components in the analysis.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Principal components analysis and factor analysis are two complex statistical techniques designed to determine
the degree to which a large set of variables can be accounted for by fewer, underlying constructs (referred to as “factors” or “principal components”). In principal components analysis and factor analysis, an eigenvalue is a
statistic that indicates the degree to which a particular factor is accounting for variability in the variables studied.
In other words, a factor’s eigenvalue indicates its strength or explanatory power. The reason choice “A” rather
than “B” is correct is that in principal components analysis, the factors or components are always independent, or
uncorrelated.
You have been court-ordered to evaluate a prisoner who is being tried for murder. You explain the purpose
of the evaluation and complete it. As you are packing up your testing materials, the prisoner smirks, and says, “I
agreed to this but I didn’t sign anything. You are out of luck, doctor.”
A
You should go ahead and complete the report, but leave out the prisoner’s comments.
B
The prisoner is correct – you should refer for a new assessment.
C
You should add this verbal comment to the report, noting the prisoner’s passive-aggressive tendencies.
D
You should have read the case file because you would have learned that the accused is also an attorney; this
would affect how you would treat this prisoner.
The Correct Answer is “A”Because this evaluation was court-ordered you were not actually required to obtain informed consent. However
Standard IV.E.1 of the Speciality Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists states that “if the client appears unwilling
to proceed after receiving a thorough notification of the purposes, methods, and intended uses of the forensic
evaluation, the psychologist should take steps to place the client in contact with his or her attorney for the
purpose of legal advice on the issue of participation.” Remember, you always want to take the most careful and
conservative approach if possible. While you may be tempted to choose answer C and add the client’s comments
to your report, this would contradict Standard V.C. of the Forensic Guidelines which states that, “In situations
where the right of the client to confidentiality is limited, the forensic psychologist makes every effort to maintain
confidentiality with regard to any information that does not bear directly upon the legal purpose of the
evaluation.”
Finally, as a thorough evaluator you should have read the case file closely; however, you would not proceed with
an evaluation differently just because your client is an attorney.
A family seeks therapy due to on-going conflicts between the parents and their 16-year-old daughter. A
solution-focused therapist would LEAST likely:
A
use direct and indirect compliments
B
tell them to solve the conflict by themselves
C
work with the family to generate solutions to the conflict
D
ask future-oriented questions
The Correct Answer is “B”
Solution-focused therapy is a form of brief therapy that focuses on solutions rather than problems or their causes.
Underlying this approach is the assumption that clients possess the resources needed to achieve their goals.
However, contrary to Choice B, a solution-focused therapist would not likely tell clients to solve the conflict by
themselves. Rather, the therapist would work with them to generate solutions to their problem (C).
Solution-focused therapists also use direct and indirect compliments (A) and future-oriented questions (D) – such
as the miracle question.
Kubler-Ross proposed people go through which of the following stages when faced with their own death:
A
denial, anger, depression, acceptance and hope
B
denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance and hope
C
denial, anger, bargaining, depression and hope
D
denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance
The Correct Answer is “D”
Kubler-Ross (1969) proposed five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance (DABDA).
Research indicates that these feelings don’t necessarily occur in a fixed sequential order. Although the feeling of
hope was not identified by Kubler-Ross, it is a common emotion in the terminally ill.
As a successfully licensed psychologist, you are supervising your first intern. You need to
A
inform your intern that he should use your name as a pseudonoym.
B
inform your intern that he needs to let his clients know he is in supervision.
C
let his clients know his limitations as a clinician.
D
have the intern get informed assent from the clients; you are responsible for informed consent.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Your intern needs to let his clients know his professional status, just as you as a licensed psychologist would
explain your own status. According to Standard 10.01(c) “When the therapist is a trainee and the legal
responsibility for the treatment provided resides with the supervisor, the client/patient, as part of the informed
consent procedure, is informed that the therapist is in training and is being supervised and is given the name of the supervisor.” Your intern is responsible for getting informed consent, not assent (answer D) from the clients.
Alzheimer's Dementia often results in problems in the executive functions such as: A aphasia and agnosia B apraxia and disorientation C planning and organizing D recalling and recognizing
The Correct Answer is “C”
According to the DSM-IV-TR, a diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer’s type, or any other type, requires
evidence of impairment in memory, and at least one other cognitive impairment such as aphasia (language
disturbance), apraxia (impaired ability to carry out motor activities), agnosia (failure to recognize objects), or
disturbance in executive functioning. All the choices in this question are symptoms of dementia, however,
problems with executive functions refers specifically to planning, organizing, and abstract thinking.
The medication considered most effective for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is: A Lithium B Clomipramine C Disulfiram D Diazepam
The Correct Answer is “B”
Most of the antidepressant drugs such as clomipramine, imipramine, as well as the SSRIs are believed to increase
serotonin activity which seems to lessen the effects of OCD. Lithium is often used in treating mood disorders, (C)
disulfiram is the generic name for Antabuse and (D) diazepam as well as the other “pams” are benzodiazephines–
sometimes used in the treatment of anxiety.
According to Donald Super, career development can be described in terms of progress through a
developmental sequence of vocational stages. One’s standing in this developmental sequence, in relation to where
one should be, given his or her chronological age, is referred to as
A
vocational maturity.
B
vocational consistency.
C
vocational resolution.
D
vocational level.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Super postulated a developmental sequence of vocational development occurring through the life span and
consisting of five stages: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. Each of these stages also consists of a number of substages. Super coined the term “vocational maturity” to refer to the degree to which a
person’s progress in this sequence is appropriate given the person’s chronological age. In fact, Super and his
colleagues constructed a number of assessment instruments specifically designed to measure vocational maturity.
Research on psychotherapy outcomes suggest that, overall, culturally diverse groups do about as well as Anglo clients. However, as a specific group, less favorable outcomes are shown by A African-Americans. B Asian-Americans. C Hispanics. D Anglo-Americans.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Using a Global Assessment Scale, Sue (1991) found that patients from all groups show improvement in scores
following therapy, but as a group, African-Americans have less favorable outcomes than Asian, Hispanic, or
Anglo Americans.
In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion
A
never.
B
if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it.
C
if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants.
D
if age is directly related to job performance.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude
people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically
demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let’s say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn’t do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.
A child receives a Performance IQ score that is higher than her Verbal IQ score on the WISC-III. When
interpreting this difference, it is important to keep in mind that:
A
the difference is not significant unless it is 20 points or more.
B
the difference may be significant if it is 12 points or more.
C
the difference may be significant if it is 12 points or more and the scatter on the Performance subtests is less than
9 points and the scatter on the Verbal subtests is less than 7 points.
D
the difference may be significant if it is 18 points or more and the scatter on the Performance subtests is 9 points
or more and the scatter on the Verbal subtests is 7 points or more.
The Correct Answer is “C”
In general, a 12 point difference between Verbal IQ and Performance IQ on the WISC-III is considered
significant. For example, a Performance IQ that is 12 or more points higher than the Verbal IQ might indicate autism, a learning disability, or delinquency. However, if there is also wide scatter of the Verbal and/or
Performance subtest scores, the difference between Verbal and Performance IQ may be meaningless.
In children, positive outcome following a traumatic event is most likely if the child: A has adequate social support and a high level of skill in at least one activity. B has a high level of intelligence. C is male. D has experienced a traumatic stressor.
The Correct Answer is “A”
In both children and adults, high levels of social support is one of the best predictors of positive psychological
outcome following a traumatic event. Having skill in at least one activity is associated with self-efficacy beliefs,
which are also associated with positive outcome following a trauma in both children and adults.
The error inherent in the best fit regression line is called the standard error of the: A estimate. B mean. C measurement. D coefficient.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The standard error of estimate tells us how far we can expect to be off when making predictions based on a
regression (prediction) equation. It’s a way to assess how well the equation “fits” the data. Try to keep the term
“standard error of the estimate” in a box in your mind labeled “correlation coefficient” since, the higher the correlation coefficient, the lower the error of estimate.
The other errors relate to different situations. The standard error of the mean tells us how closely our sample
mean approximates the population mean. Keep this one in a box in your mind labeled “experiments and samples.”
The standard error of measurement tells us how accurately an obtained score on a test estimates someone’s true
score on that test, if a true score were ever possible to obtain. So keep this one in a box labeled “reliability of a
test.” And the fourth choice, standard error of the coefficient is a foil. There is no such thing.
National surveys comparing rural and urban areas rates of mental disorders indicate:
A
prevalence rates are not statistically different
B
prevalence rates are significantly higher in rural areas for most mental disorders
C
prevalence rates are significantly higher in urban areas for most mental disorders
D
prevalence rates are statistically different with some disorders more common in rural or urban areas
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. While study to study reported rates of mental illness have varied somewhat, the most consistent finding is that
there are few statistically significant differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas.
Epidemiological surveys like the National Comorbidity Survey, the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and a
recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas, found no
significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (See: Tang, L., et al., (2001), Report
on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles,
Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA).
With parental consent, a psychologist has been providing therapy to a 12-year-old boy for a couple of
months. Unexpectedly, both parents suddenly withdraw their consent. The psychologist believes that continuing
therapy is in the best interests of the boy. The psychologist’s best course of action would be to:
A
seek judicial intervention
B
obtain a signed consent from the girl and continue treatment
C
stop the treatment because both parents have withdrawn their consent but provide them with referrals to other
therapists
D
continue to see the girl without the parents’ consent
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. The psychologist’s ethical obligation is to serve the best interests of the child, but legally, he/she cannot
proceed with treatment if the parents do not give consent to do so. While some states have laws that allow
psychologists to provide services without parental consent, no information is given in this question regarding the relevant law or whether the child’s problem(s) would be covered by this type of law. The Ethics Code Standard 1.02 states that “If psychologists? ethical responsibilities conflict with law, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict in a responsible manner.” Therefore, the psychologist would not just terminate without attempting to advocate for the patient (c.); nor continue to treat the child without the parents consent (d.), as violating the law is not consistent with resolving the conflict in a responsible manner. (See: M. DeKrai and S. D. Sales in Liability in child therapy and research, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 59(6), 1991, 853-860.)
Which of the following best describes universality of the transactional-transformational leadership theory?
A
universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations within Western culture.
B
universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations and cultures
C
universality has been observed in business and government organizations within Western culture.
D
universality has been observed in business and government organizations in a wide range of cultures.
The Correct Answer is “B”
B. Research indicates the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcends organizational and
national boundaries. The same relationships and conception of phenomena can be observed in a wide range of cultures and organizations. Studies of organizations such as business, education, the military, the government, and the private sector have provided evidence supporting universality across a variety of organizations. The applicability of the paradigm has also received evidence of wide support internationally in most continents. Unusual attributes of the organizations or cultures have been indicated as the source of exceptions to the universality of the leadership paradigm. (See: Bass, Bernard M. (1997). Does the transactional-transformational
leadership paradigm transcend organizational and national boundaries? American Psychologist, 52(2),130-139.)
A distinguishing characteristic of the Montessori teaching method is
A
children are grouped by developmental level rather than by age.
B
children are free to select their own learning activities.
C
it emphasizes emotional development and academic achievement.
D
its focus on group activities and learning experiences.
The Correct Answer is “B”
In the Montessori classroom, children are encouraged to select their own activities; the teacher observes the
children and assists them when they truly need help. There is very little didactic group teaching. The method is
based on the assumption that the child is an active learner whose drive for self-development is aided by an orderly
but stimulating environment. Regarding the other choices, “A” is incorrect because the Montessori classroom is
heterogeneous in regard to both age and developmental level – older children are viewed as good role models for
younger children. Choice “C” is not an incorrect statement about the Montessori method, but it is not something
that distinguishes it from other educational methods. And contrary to choice “D”, critics of the
Montessori method have cited its lack of opportunity for group learning experiences as one of its weaknesses.
Alcohol Abuse and Dependence has a male to female ratio of about: A 10 to 1 B 1 to 10 C 5 to 1 D 2 to 1.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Alcohol Abuse and Dependence are more common in males than females with a male to female ratio as high as 5
to 1 according to DSM-IV. However, the ratio varies substantially, depending on the age group. Females tend to start drinking heavily later in life than do males and may develop Alcohol-Related Disorders later
George Kelly emphasized that:
A
people view the world through cognitive schemas
B
individuals progress from infantile dependency to mature interdependency
C
psychopathology is caused by past traumatic events
D
psychopathology is caused by a maladaptive “style of life”
The Correct Answer is “A”
George Kelly was perhaps the first cognitive theorist and introduced his “psychology of personal constructs” in
1955. A construct, which is synonymous with a schema, is a cognitive template through which the world is
interpreted. Choice B represents a major tenet of Self-in-Relation Theory. Choice D uses the language of Adler.
And choice C is contrary to what Kelly believed. He believed that individuals’ interpretations of events are more
important than the events themselves.
In a normal distribution of scores, the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 50 to
55 is _______ the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 90 to 95.
A
less than
B
greater than
C
the same as
D
depending on the standard deviation, either less than, greater than, or the same as
The Correct Answer is “A”
This question is a bit tricky and requires careful reading and a good grasp of the concepts of percentile rank and normal distribution. The easiest way to understand it is in terms of an example. Say that you have a test, with a
mean of 70 and a range of possible raw scores from 0-100. The raw score mean is 70; in a normal distribution,
the mean is equivalent to a percentile rank of 50 and is in the exact middle of the distribution (if you don’t know
why this is, go back and review the Statistics section before attempting to understand this question). In a normal
distribution, most of the raw scores are near or at the middle of the distribution; thus, most of the raw scores will
be near or at 70. Similarly, the PR score range of 50 to 55 is in the middle part of the distribution, which is to say
that most of the raw scores in this part of the distribution will be at or near 70. So the raw score range set by PR
50 to PR 55 will not be wide.
Now if you look at a normal curve, you will see that in the high end of the raw score distribution, there is a long
tail spread across the bottom. This reflects the fact that there are relatively few high scorers, and the scores of
these individuals are spread out (over the length of this tail). Since the 90 to 95 PR range is in the high end of the
distribution, the range of raw scores here will be relatively higher than the range of raw scores in the middle of the
distribution.
If you chose C, you probably did so based on the fact that the percentile rank distribution is flat. This means that
the same amount of people will score between 50 and 55 and 90 and 95. However, the question is not about how
many people will score within this PR range. Instead, it’s asking about the raw score ranges these PR ranges
correspond to.
If you didn’t understand the above explanation, it might be useful to read it again with the normal curve in front of
you. As you’re looking at the curve, remember that it is a raw score distribution, and try to approximate where
the percentile ranks in the question would be placed on this distribution. If you still don’t understand, don’t worry
too much. As you review this concept and practice with more questions, these things will be come clearer and
clearer. Remember that difficult technical content requires repeated review, so you should keep track of those
particular concepts you need to review on a regular basis.
According to Erik Erikson, an adolescent who is unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit: A fidelity B repudiation C mainstream behaviors D hopelessness
The Correct Answer is “B”
According to Erikson, adolescents who are unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage
experience either the extreme of “fanaticism” or “repudiation.” Fanaticism occurs when the person becomes overzealous in identification to a particular role to the point that he or she is intolerant of others. Repudiation is the other maladaptive tendency in which the adolescent compensates for a lack of identity by fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity: religious cults, military organizations, or hate groups. The adolescent repudiates his or her membership in the world of adults. Successful resolution of the conflict, on the other hand, results in the virtue Erikson called “fidelity” (A). Fidelity refers to loyalty, although not blind loyalty, to society’s standards.
A child who is not putting together two-word phrases, by which of the following ages, should be taken in for an evaluation? A 12 months B 18 months C 24 months D 30 months
The Correct Answer is “D”
The use of two-word sentences, called telegraphic speech, normally appears between the age of 1-2 years. It
would rarely be absent by the age of 30 months; if it is, a developmental evaluation is justified.
