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Pathology > Test Bank for Exam One > Flashcards

Test Bank for Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

The inhibition of ATP production caused by hypoxia will result in which cellular outcome?
a. Increased ribosome production
b. Dilation and fragmentation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Mitochondrial multiplication
d. Increased alkalinity of the hyaloplasm

A

Dilation and fragmentation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum

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2
Q

Which of the following is a nuclear sign of irreversible cell injury?
a. Dysplasia
b. Pyknosis
c. Hydropic change
d. Vacuolar degeneration

A

Pyknosis

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3
Q

Which of the following is an oxygen radical?
a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Acid hydrolase
c. Carbon tetrachloride
d. Lipofuscin

A

a. Hydrogen peroxide

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4
Q

Which of the following organs undergoes physiological atrophy during childhood and
adolescence?
a. Uterus
b. Thymus
c. Thyroid
d. Adrenals

A

b. Thymus

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5
Q

Enlargement of the heart, caused by hypertension, is a result of which physiologic process?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Atrophy
c. Metaplasia
d. Dysplasia

A

a. Hypertrophy

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6
Q

When irritated by chronic exposure to cigarette smoke, columnar bronchial epithelium
changes into stratified squamous epithelium. What is this physiologic change an example of?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Hyperplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Metaplasia

A

d. Metaplasia

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7
Q

Chronic hemolysis of red blood cells is characterized by accumulation of an iron-containing
brown pigment in the cytoplasm of liver cells. What is this brown pigment called?
a. Melanin
b. Tyrosine
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

c. Hemosiderin

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8
Q

Which type of necrosis is found in the granulomas of pulmonary tuberculosis?
a. Coagulation necrosis
b. Liquefactive necrosis
c. Caseous necrosis
d. Fibrinoid necrosis

A

c. Caseous necrosis

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9
Q

Liquefactive necrosis caused by infarction is typically seen in which organ?
a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Liver
d. Kidney

A

b. Brain

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10
Q

What type of irreversible cell injury is seen in myocardial infarction?
a. Dystrophic calcification
b. Metastatic calcification
c. Fibrinoid necrosis
d. Coagulation necrosis

A

d. Coagulation necrosis

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11
Q

What best describes hydropic change at the cellular level?
a. An equal level of water inside and outside the cell
b. A decrease of water in the cytoplasm
c. An increase of water in the cytoplasm
d. A result of irreversible cell injury

A

c. An increase of water in the cytoplasm

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12
Q

Minerals like copper and zinc play what role in cellular function?
a. They assist maintaining cytoplasm homeostasis.
b. They assist in the removal of cellular waste products.
c. They are necessary for ATP production.
d. They enable several important enzymes to function

A

d. They enable several important enzymes to function

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13
Q

Which of the following would not be considered a pathogenetic mechanism for causing
cellular injury?
a. Toxins
b. Microbial pathogens
c. Genetic disturbances
d. Coagulation

A

d. Coagulation

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14
Q

Metastatic calcification occurs most likely in which organ?
a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Pancreas
d. Kidney

A

d. Kidney

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14
Q

Which statement best describes a fatty liver?
a. There is an extracellular accumulation of intermediate metabolites.
b. There is an intracellular accumulation of triglycerides.
c. There is intracellular accumulation of sodium in the liver.
d. There is extracellular accumulation of sodium in the liver.

A

b. There is an intracellular accumulation of triglycerides.

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15
Q

What is the result of arteriole dilation?
a. Anemia
b. Hyperemia
c. Vasoconstriction
d. Hemorrhage

A

b. Hyperemia

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16
Q

Which of the following mechanisms plays an important role in acute inflammation?
a. The release of histamine to increase vascular permeability
b. The release of sodium to stabilize blood pressure
c. The production of bradykinin to decrease pain
d. The production of arachidonic acid to prevent blood loss

A

a. The release of histamine to increase vascular permeability

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17
Q

Activation of which mediator of inflammation in circulating blood leads to formation of
bradykinin?
a. Bradykinin factor
b. Histamine
c. Complement membrane attack complex
d. Hageman factor (coagulation factor XII)

A

d. Hageman factor (coagulation factor XII)

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18
Q

Aspirin functions as an antiinflammatory agent by inhibiting the production of which
enzyme?
a. Catalase
b. Cyclooxygenase
c. Peroxidase
d. Phospholipase

A

b. Cyclooxygenase

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19
Q

What is a characteristic feature of acute inflammation?
a. It has a rapid onset but usually has a prolonged healing phase.
b. It has a relatively slow onset, but healing occurs rapidly.
c. It involves scar tissue.
d. It involves the rapid migration of neutrophils (PMNs) to the site of inflammation.

A

d. It involves the rapid migration of neutrophils (PMNs) to the site of inflammation.

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20
Q

What might fibrinous inflammation be indicative of?
a. Serous inflammation
b. Greater blood vessel damage and vessel permeability
c. The presence of liver disease
d. Gangrene

A

b. Greater blood vessel damage and vessel permeabilit

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21
Q

n which way is chronic inflammation different from acute inflammation?
a. It has less involvement of fibroblasts but more involvement of neutrophils.
b. It involves less tissue destruction resulting from an extended healing time.
c. It involves greater tissue destruction resulting from an extended inflammatory period.
d. It is less likely to be characterized by functio laesa, or loss of function.

A

c. It involves greater tissue destruction resulting from an extended inflammatory period.

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22
Q

What does the center of an abscess contain?
a. Caseous necrosis
b. Calcification
c. Pus
d. Eosinophils

A

c. Pus

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23
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of granulomatous inflammation?
a. Fibrinoid necrosis
b. Formation of keloid
c. Accumulation of mast cells
d. Accumulation T-lymphocytes and macrophages

A

d. Accumulation T-lymphocytes and macrophages

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24
Q

What is the term used to describe a hypertrophic scar?
a. Granuloma
b. Granulation tissue
c. Proud flesh
d. Keloid

A

d. Keloid

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24
Q

Which of the following contributes to the delayed healing of a skin wound?
a. Increased corticosteroid levels
b. Increased testosterone levels
c. Exposure to sunshine
d. Surgical sutures

A

a. Increased corticosteroid levels

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25
Q

A diabetic patient has a wound that is slow to heal. Why is this so?
a. There is dysfunctional blood clotting.
b. Microangiopathy leads to tissue ischemia.
c. There is irregular vasomotor control.
d. Leukopenia (low white blood cell count) is typical of people with diabetes.

A

b. Microangiopathy leads to tissue ischemia.

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26
Q

Which vitamin is known to prevent scurvy and promote wound healing?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin C

A

d. Vitamin C

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27
Q

Under what circumstance will inflammation fail to occur?
a. In surgical wounds
b. In situations where the wound is small
c. In gangrenous tissue
d. In an infected wound

A

c. In gangrenous tissue

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27
Q

Which of the following cells produce antibodies?
a. B-lymphocytes
b. T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Plasma cells

A

d. Plasma cells

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27
Q

A massive release of histamine into the circulation causing bronchial spasm, laryngeal edema,
and shock are symptoms of what reaction?
a. Allergic rhinitis
b. Hay fever
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Anaphylactic shock

A

d. Anaphylactic shock

27
Q

What happens when prostaglandins are released by pyrogens in the hypothalamic
thermoregulatory center?
a. Swelling
b. Pain
c. Sweating
d. Fever

A

d. Fever

28
Q

For blood transfusion, which blood type is found in universal recipients?
a. A blood
b. B blood
c. AB blood
d. O blood

A

c. AB blood

28
Q

What physiologic reaction takes place when incompatible blood types are mixed?
a. Agglutination
b. Rh incompatibility
c. Maternofetal incompatibility
d. Hemolytic disease

A

a. Agglutination

29
Q

Surgeon removed a patellar tendon to repair a torn anterior cruciate ligament of the same
patient. What type of procedure is this?
a. Allograft
b. Autograft
c. Macrograft
d. Xenograft

A

b. Autograft

29
Q

A patient undergoing treatment for Graves’ disease has what condition?
a. Renal disease
b. Widespread idiopathic granulomas
c. An overactive thymus
d. An overactive thyroid

A

d. An overactive thyroid

30
Q

A patient has had an acute reaction to a renal transplant. What physiologic process has
occurred?
a. Thrombosis during the surgical procedure
b. A thrombotic reaction 6 months after the transplant
c. An immune reaction involving pulmonary congestion and fluid retention
d. Antibody and cell mediated graft rejection within weeks of the transplant

A

d. Antibody and cell mediated graft rejection within weeks of the transplant

31
Q

Which of the following is considered a systemic form of autoimmune disease?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

32
Q

A patient with circulating immune complexes in blood had also renal symptoms and a
“butterfly rash” on her face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Dermatomyositis
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Graves’ disease

A

a. Systemic lupus erythematosus

32
Q

What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?
a. Type-III hypersensitivity response involving the arteries
b. Type-IV cell-mediated hypersensitivity response to an RNA virus
c. It is an IgA-mediated condition of the muscles
d. Type-II hypersensitivity response affecting acetylcholine receptors on striated muscle

A

d. Type-II hypersensitivity response affecting acetylcholine receptors on striated muscle

33
Q

Which of the following potential manifestations of AIDS involves a disease of the endothelial
cells?
a. Chronic rhinitis
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Kaposi sarcoma

A

d. Kaposi sarcoma

34
Q

The human immunodeficiency virus is classified as what type of virus?
a. An RNA retrovirus
b. AIDS
c. A DNA retrovirus
d. A MHC retrovirus

A

a. An RNA retrovirus

35
Q

Protective proteins, the epidermis, phagocytic cells, and neutrophils are all examples of what
type of immunity?
a. Innate (natural) immunity
b. Active immunity
c. Secondary immune reactions
d. Immunopreventive immunity

A

a. Innate (natural) immunity

35
Q

Which of the following procedures will most likely provide a definitive diagnosis for
amyloidosis?
a. CT scan
b. Ultrasound
c. MRI
d. Biopsy

A

d. Biopsy

36
Q

A child with DiGeorge syndrome has what condition?
a. A secondary immunodeficiency disorder
b. A primary (congenital) immunodeficiency disorder
c. A condition resulting in IgA deficiency
d. An acquired immunodeficiency disorder

A

b. A primary (congenital) immunodeficiency disorder

37
Q

What is involved in maternal-fetal Rh incompatibility?
a. The Rh+ mother is sensitized to Rh- fetal blood.
b. The Rh- mother is sensitized to Rh+ fetal blood.
c. The fetus develops a congenital immunodeficiency disorder.
d. ABO antibodies become inefficient during pregnancy.

A

b. The Rh- mother is sensitized to Rh+ fetal blood.

38
Q

Which type of cell is primed to differentiate into immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells?
a. Natural killer cells
b. Monocytes
c. B cells
d. T cells

A

c. B cells

38
Q

Which prelymphoid stem cells migrate to the thymus for maturation?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Monocytes
c. B cells
d. T cells

A

d. T cells

39
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins serves as an opsonin to facilitate phagocytosis?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

b. IgG

40
Q

Which of the following best describes an exudate?
a. Interstitial fluid accumulation that is low in albumin
b. Interstitial fluid accumulation that is high in protein and cells
c. Interstitial fluid accumulation limited to the lungs
d. Interstitial fluid accumulation limited to the brain

A

Interstitial fluid accumulation that is high in protein and cells

40
Q

Which immunoglobulin mediates anaphylactic reactions?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE

A

d. IgE

41
Q

Which of the following is not an example of edema?
a. Anasarca
b. Ascites
c. Hydrothorax
d. Hematopericardium

A

d. Hematopericardium

42
Q

Oncotic edema is a typical feature of what condition?
a. Heart failure
b. White infarct
c. Passive congestion of the lung
d. Cirrhosis of the liver

A

d. Cirrhosis of the liver

42
Q

What condition typically results in pulmonary edema?
a. Right-sided heart failure
b. Left-sided heart failure
c. Pulmonary saddle embolus
d. Cor pulmonale

A

b. Left-sided heart failure

43
Q

The red cheeks of someone who has been exercising is a result of which event?
a. Local microhemorrhage
b. Petechiae
c. Ecchymoses
d. Active hyperemia

A

d. Active hyperemia

44
Q

What are “heart failure cells”?
a. Myocardial cells
b. Hemolyzed red blood cells
c. Endothelial cells damaged by hemorrhage
d. Platelets

A

b. Hemolyzed red blood cells

45
Q

How do you know an external hemorrhage is an arterial hemorrhage?
a. It is bright red and flows in a pulsating manner.
b. It is a dark bluish-red and oozes continually.
c. It is slightly brownish and rich in bilirubin if near the liver.
d. It flows more slowly when the person is standing.

A

a. It is bright red and flows in a pulsating manner.

46
Q

Bleeding from which organ results in hemoptysis?
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Stomach
d. Large intestine

A

b. Lungs

47
Q

What condition does a patient with melena likely have?
a. Rectal ulcer
b. Gastric ulcer
c. Skin ulcer
d. Heart failure

A

b. Gastric ulcer

48
Q

Where are arterial thrombi most likely to be found?
a. In atherosclerotic arteries
b. In the arteries of all adults over the age of 65
c. In the endocardium of the heart
d. In conditions of metrorrhagia

A

a. In atherosclerotic arteries

49
Q

What composes the meshwork that holds a thrombus together?
a. Collagen
b. Elastic fibers
c. Fibrin
d. Fibrinogen

A

c. Fibrin

50
Q

Which of the following contributes to the formation of a thrombus?
a. Thrombolytic agents released by platelets
b. The release of thromboxane from platelets
c. Coagulation factors released by damaged macrophages
d. Heparin, released by damaged endothelial cells

A

b. The release of thromboxane from platelets

51
Q

An older person with chronic illness has marantic (or sterile) thrombotic endocarditis. What
type of thrombus is present?
a. Intramural
b. Valvular
c. Arterial
d. Venous

A

b. Valvular

52
Q

A long-standing venous thrombus will develop what feature?
a. Conglutination
b. Sedimentation
c. Margination
d. Granulation

A

b. Sedimentation

53
Q

What is the embolus found in decompression sickness (or caisson disease) composed of?
a. Air
b. Fat
c. Platelets
d. Fibrin

A

a. Air

53
Q

What type of embolus is most commonly found in clinical practice?
a. Amniotic fluid
b. Foreign particulate material
c. Fat
d. Thromboembolus

A

d. Thromboembolus

54
Q

What is a serious manifestation of a venous embolus?
a. A pulmonary embolism in a pulmonary artery
b. A pulmonary embolism in a pulmonary vein
c. A renal embolism
d. A cranial embolism

A

a. A pulmonary embolism in a pulmonary artery

54
Q

Which organ is most affected by venous embolism?
a. The brain
b. The heart
c. The lungs
d. The liver

A

c. The lungs

55
Q

Where do emboli that cause cerebral infarcts originate?
a. The right ventricle
b. The left ventricle
c. A pulmonary artery
d. The abdominal aorta

A

b. The left ventricle

56
Q

Where are red infarcts typically found?
a. The heart
b. The kidney
c. The thyroid
d. The small intestine

A

d. The small intestine

57
Q

How is shock resulting from massive bleeding best classified as?
a. Hypotonic
b. Hypovolemic
c. Cardiogenic
d. Neurogenic

A

b. Hypovolemic

58
Q

What is the outcome of an infarct in the brain?
a. Fibrous tissue will be laid down.
b. Tissue regeneration by mitotic cells will occur over time.
c. Postmitotic cells will migrate to the area to facilitate healing.
d. Liquefied necrotic tissue will be resorbed, leaving a cavity.

A

d. Liquefied necrotic tissue will be resorbed, leaving a cavity.

59
Q

What condition could develop from the heart failure seen in decompensated shock?
a. ARDS
b. Active hyperemia
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Tachycardia

A

a. ARDS

60
Q

Abscess is a complication of
a. septic embolism.
b. marantic endocarditis.
c. air embolism.
d. fat embolism.

A

a. septic embolism.

61
Q

Which of the following is a component of Virchow triad?
a. Hypercoagulability of the blood
b. Hypocoagulability of the blood
c. Platelet deficiency
d. Hypertension

A

a. Hypercoagulability of the blood

Pathology (14 decks)

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