Test 6 Flashcards

Question

During your second session with Anita A., she says she wants to tell you something she hasn’t told anyone else. After a few moments of silence, she reveals that she’s been seeing another therapist for three months but started seeing you because she’s concerned about his behavior. She tells you that, in her last few sessions with that therapist, he touched her inappropriately and said he was doing so to help her deal with her fear of physical and sexual intimacy. As an ethical psychologist, you should: A. convince Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and then help her work through her feelings about what has happened. B. encourage Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and file a complaint against him with the ethics committee. C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation. D. tell Anita you’re ethically required to file a complaint against the other therapist because of the seriousness of her allegation.

Answer 1

C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-014 Answer C is the correct. Of the answers given, this is the best one because it respects Anita’s autonomy (i.e., it doesn’t involve convincing or encouraging her to do something) and it does not violate the ethical requirement to address ethical violations by colleagues but to do so in a way that does not violate the client’s confidentiality.

Answer 2

C. major depressive disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-010 Answer C is correct. Variations in prevalence rates in different countries and family and molecular biology studies suggest that cultural and social influences are stronger causal factors for major depressive disorder than for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and panic disorder. See, e.g., Office of the Surgeon General, Center for Mental Health Services, National Institute of Mental Health, Mental health: Culture, race, and ethnicity: A supplement to mental health: A report of the Surgeon General. Rockville, MD, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, 2001.

Answer 3

D. disintegration EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-011 Answer D is correct. Helms’s model of White racial identity development distinguishes between six identity statuses, and each status is characterized by a different information processing strategy (IPS). Disintegration is the second status in this model, and its IPS is suppression of information and ambivalence [J. E. Helms, An update of Helms’s White and people of color racial identity models, in J. G. Ponterotto, J. M. Casas, L. A. Suzuki, and C. M. Alexander (Eds.), Handbook of multicultural counseling (pp. 181-191), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE, 1995].

Answer 4

C. 31 and 36 EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Physical Development-011 Answer C is correct. Reported ages at which gross motor milestones are first evident vary somewhat from author to author, but most identify the skills listed in this question as being acquired when a child is between 31 and 36 months of age.

Answer 5

B. sodium oxybate EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-025 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question because all of the drugs listed in the answers are used to treat narcolepsy. However, only sodium oxybate has been found to be effective for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy. Modafinal, methylphenidate, and other stimulant drugs are useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, while antidepressants (e.g., fluoxetine) are useful for reducing cataplexy. See, e.g., S. V. Kothare and J. Kaleyias, Pharmacotherapy of narcolepsy: Focus on sodium oxybate, Clinical medical insights: Therapeutics, 2, 37-52, 2010.

Answer 6

D. increase the likelihood that participants will engage in future criminal behaviors. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-019 Answer D is correct. A. Petrosino, C. Turpin-Petrosino, M. E. Hollis-Peel, and J. G. Lavenberg’s (2013) meta-analysis of the research found that Scared Straight programs have harmful effects – i.e., they increase the likelihood that juvenile offenders and at-risk juveniles will engage in criminal behavior in the future. The analysis also found that confrontational and nonconfrontational approaches have similar negative effects and that the programs may have even worse outcomes for seriously delinquent youths (“Scared Straight” and other juvenile awareness programs for preventing juvenile delinquency, Cochrane Data Base of Systematic Reviews, Issue 4, Article No. CD002796).

Answer 7

C. CS preexposure EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Classical Conditioning-013 Answer C is correct. Latent inhibition occurs when pre-exposure to the intended CS alone on multiple occasions prior to conditioning trials reduces the likelihood that the intended CS will actually become a CS and elicit a CR after it’s subsequently paired with the US. In other words, preexposure to the intended CS alone inhibits or disrupts learning the association between the intended CS and the US.

Answer 8

C. in early adolescence. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-006 Answer C is correct. The research has found that children’s adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child’s age, with the poorest adjustment occurring when children are in early adolescence at the time a parent remarries. Note that there’s also evidence that, with regard to gender, girls often exhibit more adjustment problems than boys do following the remarriage of their parents. See, e.g., E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage: A focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology, 7, 39-56, 1993.

Answer 9

A. APOE4 EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-020 Answer A is correct. There are three main variants of the APOE (apolipoprotein E) gene: APOE2, APOE3, and APOE4. APOE2 is the rarest variant and its presence reduces the risk for Alzheimer’s disease, while APOE3 is the most common variant and its presence doesn’t seem to affect the risk for Alzheimer’s disease. In contrast, APOE4 has been linked to an increased risk for Alzheimer’s disease and several other neurocognitive disorders including neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy body disease. APOE1 is very rare and has not been linked to Alzheimer’s disease.

Answer 10

C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Cognitive Development-007 Answer C is correct. L. T. O’Brien and M. L. Hummert found that late middle-aged adults who had an older identity had significantly poorer word recall when they were told their performance would be compared to that of older adults than did those who were told their performance would be compared to that of younger adults or were not given any comparison information. In contrast, adults who had a youthful identity exhibited similar levels of word recall whether they were told their performance would be compared to older adults or younger adults or were not given comparison information. O’Brien and Hummert conclude that their results support the self-stereotyping hypothesis by showing that internalized stereotypes about aging can impair performance on memory tasks [Memory performance of late middle-aged adults: Contrasting self-stereotyping and stereotype threat accounts of assimilation to age stereotypes, Social Cognition, 24(3), 338-358, 2006].

Answer 11

B. Deception is never acceptable when a study’s procedures may cause participants physical pain or severe emotional distress. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-006 Answer B is correct. This situation is covered in Standard 8.07(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards I.20 and III.23 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07(b) states that “psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress.”

Answer 12

D. does not apply in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-017 Answer D is correct. The original Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn” an intended victim of a therapy client, but this was changed in a 1976 rehearing of the case to a “duty to protect” an intended victim by warning him or her directly, notifying the police, or taking other appropriate action (e.g., hospitalizing the client). Many experts agree that Tarasoff isn’t relevant in situations like the one described in this question because (a) it doesn’t apply to past behavior, (b) it applies only when potential victim(s) are identifiable (it’s not clear if the client’s partners are identifiable), and (c) the risk for harm does not necessarily rise to the level of foreseeable harm (dangerousness) required by Tarasoff since unsafe sex involves risk but not certainty that HIV will be transmitted. Note that there are other options in this situation – e.g., educating clients about safe-sex practices and encouraging clients to inform sexual partners of their HIV status, possibly with the assistance of the therapist. In addition, it’s important for psychologists to be familiar with state and provincial laws that address the actions that should be taken in situations involving HIV (e.g., partner notification laws). See, e.g., T. Chenneville, Tarasoff and HIV: Some considerations for therapists, Focus, 22(5), 5-8, 2007.

Answer 13

A. have higher levels of self-esteem and are more popular with peers. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-014 Answer A is correct. There’s evidence that androgynous female adolescents have higher levels of self-esteem and are more popular with peers than gender-typed female adolescents [e.g., D. R. Shaffer and K. Kipp, Developmental psychology: Childhood and adolescence (8th ed.), Belmont, CA, Wadsworth, 2010]. Note, however, that research on the effects of androgyny for male adolescents has provided somewhat less consistent results with some studies suggesting that highly masculine male adolescents have the highest levels of self-esteem (e.g., J. J. Arnett, Adolescence and emerging adulthood: A cultural approach, Upper Saddle River, NJ, Pearson Prentice Hall, 2004).

Answer 14

A. predicts the effects of two or more concurrent schedules of reinforcement on the behaviors that are being reinforced. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Operant Conditioning-004 Answer A is correct. According to the matching law, the relative rate of responding to two or more stimuli is equal to the relative rate of reinforcement received for responding. For example, if a pigeon is reinforced with a food pellet after every 20 pecks on key #1 and is concurrently reinforced with a food pellet after every 10 pecks on key #2, the pigeon will peck key #2 twice as often as it pecks key #1.

Answer 15

B. universal EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-019 Answer B is correct. The three types of prevention listed in answers A, B, and C were described by Gordon (1983). Universal prevention programs are aimed at a designated population or specific members of that population regardless of their level of risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all pregnant women in a community). Selective prevention programs (answer C) are aimed at members of a subgroup of a designated population who are known to be at above-average risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women in a community). Indicated prevention programs (answer A) are aimed at individuals who are known to have a characteristic that puts them at high risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women who have had a miscarriage or whose newborns had problems that were due to inadequate prenatal care). Another method for describing prevention programs is to classify them as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Secondary prevention programs (answer D) are aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at elevated risk for a disorder or condition.

Answer 16

B. shame EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-016 Answer B is correct. Feelings of shame and guilt can both motivate a person to change him/herself, but Lickel and his colleagues found that shame was the strongest motivator. They suggest that shame may have a stronger effect because it’s the result of a dispositional appraisal (“I’m a bad person”) while guilt is the result of a behavioral appraisal (“I did a bad thing”), and a dispositional appraisal is more likely to lead to the desire to change oneself.

Answer 17

C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-013 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question you have to know (a) that second-generation antipsychotics exert their effects by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors and (b) that an antagonist blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter and an agonist increases or mimics the effects of a neurotransmitter.

Answer 18

C. A friend tends to attribute his own behaviors to situational factors but the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-001 Answer C is correct. The actor-observer bias is an attributional bias and refers to the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational (external) factors and the behavior of other people to dispositional (internal) factors.

Answer 19

C. knowledge is situational and nonverbal messages are most important. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-021 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, for members of cultural groups that emphasize high-context communication, knowledge depends largely on the nature of the situation and communication relies primarily on nonverbal messages. In contrast, for members of cultural groups that emphasize low-context communication, knowledge depends less on the situation and, instead, is viewed as something that is easily transferred from one person to another. In addition, communication relies primarily on verbal messages. (Even if the statements about knowledge are unfamiliar or confusing, a good “guess” would have been to choose answer C because “situational” seems compatible with the importance of the context for high-context communications.)

Answer 20

A. the principle of identical elements EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-Training Methods and Evaluation-ORG-017 Answer A is correct. According to the principle of identical elements, the more similar the training and work situations are, the greater the transfer of training. Identical elements is also known as physical and psychological fidelity: Physical fidelity refers to the extent to which the physical training and work conditions are similar, while psychological fidelity refers to the degree to which training addresses the KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics) needed to perform the job satisfactorily. [The principle of equipotentiality (answer B) is another name for the principle of multifinality and predicts that systems can achieve dissimilar outcomes when they have the same starting point.]

Answer 21

D. maintenance: counterconditioning EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Brief Therapies-006 Answer D is correct. The transtheoretical model is based on the assumptions that change occurs in stages and, to help clients progress to the next stage, interventions must match their current stage. According to this model, consciousness raising is an optimal strategy for clients in the precontemplation stage and contemplation stages, stimulus control is optimal for clients in the action or maintenance stage, self-liberation is optimal for clients in the preparation stage, and counterconditioning is another optimal intervention for clients in the action or maintenance stage. See, e.g., J. O Prochaska and C. DiClemente, The transtheoretical approach, in J. C. Norcross and M. R. Goldfried (Eds.), Handbook of psychotherapy integration (pp. 147-171), New York, Oxford University Press, 2005.

Answer 22

A. mesolimbic EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-001 Answer A is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is also known as the brain’s reward pathway. Elevated activity in this pathway is responsible for the reinforcing (addictive) effects of drugs that increase levels of dopamine. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway consists of the ventral tegmental area, nucleus accumbens, and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (Ballard et al., 2011).

Answer 23

B. reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the client or other person. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-009 Answer B is correct. Denial of access to protected health information is addressed in 45 CFR 164.524(a)(2)-(4), and the language of this answer is most similar to Section (a)(3)(i). It states that a licensed health care professional can deny an individual access to his/her protected health information, when the “professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgment, that the access requested is reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the individual or another person.” Note that, in this situation, the client has the right to have the denial reviewed by another designated licensed health care professional.

Answer 24

B. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and increased activity in the amygdala. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-020 Answer B is correct. Neuroimaging studies have linked PTSD to several brain abnormalities, including a hyperactive amygdala and anterior cingulate cortex, a hypoactive ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC), and a reduced volume of the hippocampus, with some studies finding increased activity of the hippocampus and other studies finding decreased activity.

Answer 25

C. the mediator effectiveness hypothesis EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-007 Answer C is correct. The “testing effect” is the increased ability to remember information when learning not only includes studying but also repeated opportunities to retrieve the information. According to M. A. Pyc and K. A. Rawson’s mediator effectiveness hypothesis, “testing improves memory by supporting the use of more-effective mediators during encoding” and the mediators that are “generated during testing … are more likely to be subsequently retrieved and decoded, [thereby] increasing recall of target responses” (Why testing improves memory: Mediator effectiveness hypothesis, Science, 330, 335, 2010).

Answer 26

C. an information filter. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-018 Answer C is correct. As described by Janis (1982), self-appointed mindguards shield group members from disconfirming or problematic information that might have an adverse effect on the group’s cohesiveness. In other words, they act as an information filter.

Answer 27

B. larger than .75. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-011 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that the magnitude of a test’s reliability coefficient (or any correlation coefficient) is affected by several factors, including the range (heterogeneity) of scores: All other things being equal, the greater the range of scores, the larger the reliability coefficient will be. Because the second sample has a larger range of GPA scores than the first sample did, the reliability coefficient for the second sample will most likely be larger than .75.

Answer 28

D. FDG-PET EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-024 Answer D is correct. Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) is the most commonly used radioactive tracer in PET imaging, and FDG-PET provides information on glucose metabolism in the brain. Because different subtypes of neurocognitive disorder produce distinct patterns of glucose metabolism, FDG-PET can help clinicians distinguish between different disorders – for example, between neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder. See, e.g., V. K. N. Shivamurthy, A. K. Tahari, C. Marcus, and R. M. Subramaniam, Brain FDG-PET and the diagnosis of dementia, AJR, 204, W76-W85.

Answer 29

A. 72% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-004 Answer A is correct. Based on his review of 24 psychotherapy outcome studies, Eysenck concluded that 72% of untreated patients, 66% of patients receiving eclectic psychotherapy, and 44% of patients receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy experienced a substantial decrease in symptoms. In other words, many untreated patients were better off than the treated patients, and he attributed the improvement of untreated patients to spontaneous recovery.

Answer 30

D. group attribution error. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-009 Answer D is correct. For the exam you want to be sure you know the difference between the ultimate attribution error and the group attribution error, which are sometimes confused because they both address attributions made about groups rather than individuals. The ultimate attribution error occurs when the negative behaviors of members of one’s own in-group are attributed to situational factors while the negative behaviors of members of out-groups are attributed to dispositional factors, and vice versa for positive behaviors. The group attribution error occurs when people believe that an individual group member’s beliefs, attitudes, and preferences are the same as those of all members of the group. Note that the false consensus error (answer B) is actually known as the false consensus effect and is not an attributional bias. It refers to the tendency to overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.

Answer 31

C. competency EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-Professional Issues-016 Answer C is correct. Like other developmental models, IDM focuses on the developmental levels of supervisees and proposes that supervision is most effective when a supervisor’s actions match a supervisee’s developmental level. IDM distinguishes between three developmental levels that differ in terms of a supervisee’s level of self-other awareness, motivation, and autonomy.

Answer 32

A. suprachiasmatic nucleus EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-003 Answer A is correct. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in the hypothalamus and controls the body’s circadian rhythms (24-hour cycles), which include the sleep-wake cycle and daily changes in core body temperature and the secretion of several hormones.

Answer 33

D. Rothbart and Derryberry EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-013 Answer D is correct. Rothbart and Derryberry (1981) describe temperament as “constitutional differences in reactivity and self-regulation, with ‘constitutional’ seen as the relatively enduring biological makeup of the organism influenced over time by heredity, maturation, and experience” (p. 37).

Answer 34

B. depolarization occurs as positively charged sodium ions enter the neuron. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-023 Answer B is correct. In its resting state, the fluid inside a neuron is negatively charged relative to fluid outside the neuron. However, when the dendrites of a neuron are sufficiently stimulated, channels in the membrane of the neuron open, allowing positively charged sodium ions to enter the neuron, which causes it to become depolarized (less negative). When stimulation reaches a minimum threshold, complete depolarization occurs and triggers an action potential, which is an electrical impulse that travels through the neuron. After an action potential occurs, the neuron returns to its resting state.

Answer 35

B. tracking EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-009 Answer B is correct. Tracking, mimesis, and maintenance are methods used by structural family therapists to facilitate joining. Tracking involves adopting the content of a family’s communications; mimesis involves adopting the family’s communication, affective, and behavioral style; and maintenance involves providing the family with support.

Answer 36

D. visual hallucinations and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-013 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of probable major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies requires that (a) the patient meet the criteria for major or mild neurocognitive disorder, (b) the patient’s symptoms had an insidious onset and gradual progression, and (c) the patient’s symptoms include at least two core features or one core feature and one suggestive feature. Visual hallucinations are a core feature and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder is a suggestive feature. Absence seizures are not a core or suggestive feature of this disorder.

Answer 37

D. secondary EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Emotions and Stress-005 Answer D is correct. Cognitive appraisal theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and reappraisal. It proposes that the immediate response to an external event is primary appraisal, which involves determining if the event is relevant and, if so, whether it’s nonstressful or stressful. If the event is stressful, the person then engages in secondary appraisal, which involves determining what personal and environmental resources he/she has to help cope with the event.

Answer 38

A. cerebellum and basal ganglia EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Memory and Sleep-021 Answer A is correct. Knowing that implicit memories include memories of learned skills and actions (procedural memory) and conditioned responses would have helped you identify the cerebellum and basal ganglia as the correct answer since these areas of the brain mediate motor responses. The prefrontal cortex and hippocampus are responsible for explicit memory.

Answer 39

C. resistance EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-024 Answer C is correct. According to Maslach, Schaufeli, and Leiter (2001), job burnout has three core characteristics: exhaustion, depersonalization and cynicism, and a sense of inefficacy. Resistance is the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

Answer 40

A. 4 and 6 years. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-016 Answer A is correct. According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is typically between 4 and 6 years of age, with the severity of tics ordinarily peaking between 10 and 12 years of age.

Answer 41

D. conditioned stimulus. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-003 Answer D is correct. When using aversive counterconditioning to treat a fetishistic disorder, the fetish object is the conditioned stimulus, and presentation of the fetish object is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., electric shock) that naturally elicits fear or other undesirable response. As a result, the sexual arousal elicited by the fetish object is replaced with fear or other undesirable response.

Answer 42

C. the organization’s primary values, goals, and strategies. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-008 Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s values, goals and strategies. Therefore, specifying these values, goals, and strategies is an initial step when using competency modeling.

Answer 43

D. work with tools and machinery. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Career Choice and Development-015 Answer D is correct. People who obtain the highest score on Holland’s realistic scale prefer to work with things (e.g., tools and machinery) rather than people. People who obtain the highest score on the conventional scale prefer jobs that involve following set procedures and routines (answer A). Those who obtain the highest score on the enterprising scale like to lead and persuade people (answer B), and those who obtain the highest score on the investigative scale prefer to work with ideas and solve problems (answer C).

Answer 44

A. challenging problematic cognitions related to the trauma and writing and reading a detailed description of the trauma EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-005 Answer A is correct. CPT has received considerable research support as a treatment for PTSD and combines cognitive therapy with exposure. The cognitive therapy component focuses on identifying and challenging negative beliefs (“stuck points”) that keep the person from recovering from the trauma. The exposure component involves writing a detailed description of the traumatic event and reading it aloud to the therapist.

Answer 45

C. Chemotherapy and cranial irradiation are both associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Cognitive Development-012 Answer C is correct. Research has found that, when used to treat ALL, chemotherapy and cranial irradiation are both associated with subsequent neurocognitive deficits and problems related to academic achievement [e.g., A. Kingma, L. A. Rammeloo, A. van Der Does-van den Berg, L. Rekers-Mombarg, and A. Postma. Academic career after treatment for acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Archives of disease in childhood, 82(5), 353–357, 2000]. Note that this is an example of the very difficult questions you’ll encounter on the exam. Fortunately, there won’t be very many of these and, when you encounter them, you won’t want to spend too much time trying to determine the correct answer if you’re unfamiliar with what is being asked about.

Answer 46

B. scores on one or more explanatory variables are highly correlated with scores on one or more of the other explanatory variables. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-RMS-Correlation and Regression-005 Answer B is correct. The term multicollinearity is used in the context of multiple regression and similar multivariate techniques to describe high correlations between predictors, which means that the predictors are providing redundant (rather than unique) information about the factors that contribute to performance on the criterion. Even if you’re familiar with multicollinearity, this may have been a difficult question because it uses unfamiliar terms – i.e., explanatory variable instead of predictor and response variable instead of criterion. Unfortunately, exam questions sometimes contain unfamiliar or unexpected language; however, as long as you’re sufficiently familiar with the concept that’s being asked about, you should be able to identify the correct answer.

Answer 47

C. benzodiazepines that are used to treat anxiety and insomnia. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-016 Answer C is correct. Diazepan (Valium), alprazolam (Xanax), and lorazepam (Ativan) are benzodiazepines and are one type of sedative-hypnotics (barbiturates are another type). The benzodiazepines increase GABA activity and are used to treat anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and alcohol withdrawal.

Answer 48

C. medulla oblongata EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-002 Answer C is correct. The medulla oblongata is part of the hindbrain. Because it regulates a number of vital life functions, damage can result in death.

Answer 49

D. both positive and negative effects on the child and the parent-child relationship. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Language Development-015 Answer D is correct. As defined by A. Morales, O. F. Yakushko, and A. J. Castro, language brokering “is the act of translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children and adolescents for their parents, other family members, and other adults” [Language brokering among Mexican-immigrant families in the Midwest: A multiple case study, The Counseling Psychologist, 40(4), 520-553, 2012]. Studies on the effects of language brokering have produced mixed results. For example, with regard to the parent-child relationship, language brokering has been linked to a greater sense of connection between the child and his/her parents but also to role reversals within the family that force the parents to become overly dependent on the child [e.g., A. J. Umana-Taylor, Language brokering as a stressor for immigrant children and their families, in M. Coleman and L. Ganong (Eds.), Points and counterpoints: Controversial relationship and family issues in the 21st century (pp. 157-159), Los Angeles, Roxbury, 2002].

Answer 50

B. point biserial EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-RMS-Correlation and Regression-004 Answer B is correct. The point biserial correlation coefficient is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale. High school diploma (yes or no) is a true dichotomy and yearly income in dollars is measured on a continuous scale.

Answer 51

D. Down syndrome. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-015 Answer D is correct. Genetic causes account for about 45% of all cases of intellectual disability with an identifiable cause and include chromosomal abnormalities, single gene disorders, mitochondrial disorders, and multifactorial disorders that involve an interaction between the environment and the actions of multiple genes. Down syndrome is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability and is due to a chromosomal abnormality. Fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause and is an abnormality on a single gene. Note that, if the question asked which disorder is the most common inherited genetic cause of intellectual disability, fragile X syndrome (answer C) would be the correct answer because Down syndrome is not inherited. Phenylketonuria (answer A) is a rare inherited disorder which, if untreated, can cause intellectual disability and a number of serious health problems. Tay Sachs disease is also a rare inherited disorder. Its symptoms include loss of motor skills, vision and hearing loss, seizures, and delays in mental and social development. See, e.g., M. L. Batshaw, N. J. Roizen, and G. R. Lotrecchiano, Children with disabilities: A medical primer (7th ed.), Baltimore, Brookes, 2013.

Answer 52

D. age and gender have little or no consistent impact on psychotherapy outcomes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-023 Answer D is correct. Studies investigating the effects of age and gender on psychotherapy outcomes have not produced entirely consistent results, but the best overall conclusion is that age and gender have little or no impact on outcomes and that apparent differences are actually due to other factors. For example, one study found that, when the initial severity of symptoms was controlled, the age of clients explained essentially none of the variance in psychotherapy outcomes. See, e.g., J. F. Boswell, M. J. Constantino, and L. M. Anderson, Potential obstacles to treatment success in adults: Client characteristics, in S. Maltzman (Ed.), The Oxford handbook of treatment processes and outcomes in psychology: A multidisciplinary biopsychosocial approach (pp. 183-205), New York, Oxford University Press , 2016.

Answer 53

D. the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are both gradual and blurred and the defendant can recall fragments of some events that occurred during that period. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-024 Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are typically gradual and blurred for people with genuine memory loss (e.g., memory loss due to a traumatic brain injury). In contrast, for those with feigned memory loss, the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are sudden. Also, being able to recall fragments of some events that occurred during the period of memory loss (“islands of memory”) is characteristic of genuine memory loss, while a complete loss of memory for events that occurred during that period is characteristic of feigned memory loss.

Answer 54

D. high in growth-need strength. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Theories of Motivation-021 Answer D is correct. According to Hackman and Oldham, the effects of the five core job characteristics on job outcomes are moderated by an employee’s growth-need strength: Workers with high growth-need strength (those who seek to fulfill higher-order needs) are more likely than those with low growth-need strength to be positively affected by a job that provides the five core characteristics (skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback). Self-monitoring (answers A and B) is not identified by Hackman and Oldham as a characteristic related to their job characteristics model. It refers to the extent to which people rely on internal or external cues to guide their behaviors: People low in self-monitoring rely on their own attitudes, beliefs, and feelings to determine how to act in social situations and, therefore, act similarly in different social situations. In contrast, people who are high in self-monitoring are concerned about the impressions that others have of them and adapt their actions to fit the emotions and behaviors of other people. As a result, they may act differently in different social situations.

Answer 55

C. fluent (but paraphasic) speech, relatively intact comprehension, poor word repetition, and impaired naming. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-009 Answer C is correct. Conduction aphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Wernicke’s area with Broca’s area and produces the symptoms listed in this answer.

Answer 56

B. Bottom-up EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Sensation and Perception-008 Answer B is correct. Bottom-up processing is data driven (driven by information), while top-down processing is concept-driven. In terms of perception, bottom-up processing begins with incoming sensory information and continues upward to the brain where it is perceived, interpreted, and stored. In contrast, top-down processing begins with the brain’s use of preexisting knowledge and expectations to interpret incoming sensory information.

Answer 57

B. stimulus control EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-012 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question because all four interventions listed in the answers are used to treat insomnia and may be included in a comprehensive cognitive-behavioral intervention. However, most authorities report that stimulus control has the most evidence for its effectiveness, while sleep restriction and paradoxical intervention have some support and sleep hygiene has little support. See, e.g., A. Y. Avidan, Review of sleep medicine (4th ed.), Philadelphia, Elsevier, 2018.

Answer 58

A. excitation transfer theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-010 Answer A is correct. Excitation transfer “occurs when the arousal caused by one stimulus is added to the arousal from a second stimulus and the combined arousal is attributed (erroneously) to the second stimulus” (C. A. Sanderson, Social psychology, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, Inc, 2010, p. 423) In the situation described in this question, Tom experienced physiological arousal from watching the violent movie and, when his friend stepped on his foot, the arousal from that event combined with the arousal from the movie. Consistent with the prediction of excitation transfer theory, Tom attributed the combined arousal to having his foot stepped on and overreacted by becoming angry and yelling at and shoving his friend. Note that the frustration-aggression hypothesis (answer D) predicts that the inability to achieve a goal leads to frustration which, in turn, leads to aggressive behavior. This doesn’t describe Tom’s experience.

Answer 59

D. increases subsequent pain responsivity for full-term infants but reduces pain responsivity for preterm infants. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Physical Development-002 Answer D is correct. A. Taddio and J. Katz reviewed the research on the effects of exposure to painful medical procedures soon after birth and found that it affects subsequent reactivity to pain, with different effects for preterm and full-term infants: Early exposure to pain increases behavioral responsivity to pain for full-term infants but decreases it for preterm infants [The effects of early pain experience in neonates on pain responses in infancy and childhood, Paediatric Drugs, 7(4), 245-257, 2005].

Answer 60

A. a programmed decision. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-019 Answer A is correct. Organizational decisions can be categorized as programmed or nonprogrammed: Programmed decisions are repetitive and routine and are governed by rules, policies, and procedures, while nonprogrammed decisions are non-repetitive and complex and rely on the decision-maker’s judgment and problem-solving skills. Automatically ordering inventory when the level of inventory falls below a certain point is an example of a programmed decision. The terms allocentric and idiocentric (answers C and D) are not relevant to decision-making but are applied to several phenomena including personality: A person with an allocentric personality is group centered, while a person with an idiocentric personality is self-centered.

Answer 61

B. identifying the relevant client(s) for addressing the organization’s problems. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-025 Answer B is correct. T. G. Cummings and C. G. Worley’s (2009) general model of planned change distinguishes between the following phases: entering and contracting, diagnosing, planning and implementing change, and evaluating and institutionalizing change [Organization development and change (9th ed.), Mason, OH, South-Western Cengage Learning, 2009]. As described by these investigators, an OD practitioner’s initial tasks during the entering and contracting phase include clarifying the organization’s problems, determining the relevant clients (organizational members) for addressing the problems, and establishing a collaborative relationship with those individuals. Identifying the causes and consequences of the organization’s problems and best practices (answer A) occurs during the diagnosing phase and helps determine the most appropriate interventions. Specifying how the OD practitioner and client(s) will work together (answer C) is a final step in the contracting process, not an initial step in the entering and contracting phase. Fostering clients’ readiness for change and overcoming resistance to change (answer D) are part of the planning and implementing change phase.

Answer 62

A. men and women experience similar levels of work-family conflict. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-020 Answer A is correct. In contrast to the commonly held belief that women experience greater work-family conflict than men do, the Shockley et al. meta-analysis found that men and women report similar levels of conflict. These investigators identified some gender differences when certain moderator variables were considered, but these differences were small. Answers C and D can be eliminated because these investigators found some differences in the magnitude of family interference with work (FIW) and work interference with family (WIF); however, these differences were small and varied by gender and subgroup. For example, women with children reported slightly greater FIW, while men in dual-earner couples reported slightly greater WIF [K. M. Shockley, W. Shen, M. M. DeNunzio, and E. A. Knudsen, Disentangling the relationship between gender and work-family conflict: An integration of theoretical perspectives using meta-analytic methods, JJournal of Applied Psychology, 144(3), 284-314, 2018].

Answer 63

B. dismissing EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-005 Answer B is correct. The AAI categorizes adults as either autonomous, dismissing, preoccupied, or unresolved based on the way they describe their childhood attachment experiences. Adults who are categorized as dismissing are unable to recall attachment related experiences, deny the importance of those experiences, or present contradictory information about them – e.g., say their attachment experiences were very positive but present examples of actual events that were very negative.

Answer 64

D. The studies have not yet identified a pharmacological treatment that is consistently effective for this disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-021 Answer D is correct. The research has not yet identified a pharmacological treatment that’s consistently effective for cocaine addiction, and there are no FDA-approved medications for this disorder. Consequently, psychosocial treatments (e.g., cognitive behavior therapy, contingency management) are currently the primary treatment options, with medications being used to treat specific symptoms such as antidepressants for reducing depression.

Answer 65

B. identity vs. role confusion EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-023 Answer B is correct. Erikson (1963) identified moratorium as a characteristic of his identity vs. role confusion stage of development and described it as follows: “The adolescent mind is essentially the mind of the moratorium, a psychosocial stage between childhood and adulthood, between the morality learned by the child, and the ethics to be developed by the adult” [E. H. Erikson, Childhood and society (2nd ed.), New York, Norton, 1963, p. 263]. If you’re unfamiliar with Erikson’s use of the term, knowing that Marcia (1966) expanded Erikson’s ideas about adolescent identity to describe four identity statuses (moratorium, diffusion, foreclosure, and achievement) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer 66

C. send the counselor only information you believe is relevant to Tyler’s problems at school. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-003 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code, which requires psychologists to “include in written and oral reports and consultations only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made.” It’s also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.37 and I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Because Tyler’s mother has signed an authorization to release information, it would be acceptable to provide the counselor with information relevant to Tyler’s problems at school.

Answer 67

C. job performance EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Interest Inventories-012 Answer C is correct. Research evaluating the validity of interest inventories has found that they are good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence. However, they are less valid than intelligence tests for predicting academic and job performance, apparently because performance depends more on ability than interests.

Answer 68

B. action research. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-008 Answer B is correct. CBPR is a type of community-engaged research that “encourages engagement and full participation of community partners in every aspect of the research process from question identification to analysis and dissemination” [K. Hacker, Community-based participatory research, Los Angeles, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2013, p. 2]. It’s categorized as a type of action research, which was originally developed by Lewin in the 1940s as a way of using research to facilitate planned social change. Action research subsequently became the basis for a number of participatory action research approaches including CBPR. Like other forms of action research, CBPR involves formulating a research question, planning the study, collecting and analyzing the data, developing action plans from the data, carrying out the action plan, evaluating the results, and disseminating the results.

Answer 69

C. see older adults in therapy if she’s able to obtain consultation while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with members of this population. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-002 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 2.01 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.6 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to obtain appropriate education, training, and consultation when they want to provide professional services to members of new populations or use new therapeutic techniques. While obtaining additional education would be useful, taking a single continuing education course (answer B) or obtaining additional education when a problem arises (answer D) would not be adequate.

Answer 70

C. Level V EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Clinical Tests-006 Answer C is correct. Ratings on the Rancho Scale range from Level I to Level X. A patient who receives a rating of Level V (Confused/Inappropriate Nonagitated) is confused but nonagitated; responds to simple, familiar commands; is not oriented to person, place, or time; has difficulty learning new information; and may wander randomly with a vague intention of going home.

Answer 71

D. habit reversal training EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-002 Answer D is correct. Positive practice involves having the individual practice appropriate behaviors that are alternatives to his or her inappropriate behavior. Habit reversal training similarly involves eliminating an undesirable behavior by having the individual practice an alternative, usually incompatible, behavior.

Answer 72

D. consider the nature of your therapeutic relationship with Maggie and the potential effect on her of your acceptance or refusal of her invitation before deciding whether or not to accept the invitation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-019 Answer D is correct. Standard 3.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code prohibits multiple relationships that “could be reasonably expected to impair the psychologist’s objectivity, competence, or effectiveness … or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person.” And Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics requires psychologists to “avoid dual relationships … that are not justified by the nature of the activity, by cultural or geographic factors, or where there is a lack of reasonably accessible alternatives.” Neither document prohibits all types of multiple relationships; and, in the situation described in this question, your first action would be to consider the nature of your therapeutic relationship with Maggie and the possible effects on that relationship of accepting or refusing her invitation. Discussing potential conflicts with Maggie (answer C) isn’t a better answer because it implies that you would accept her invitation regardless of the outcome of that discussion.

Answer 73

A. onset and course of the disorder and rate of remission EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-017 Answer A is correct. Studies of patients who have received a diagnosis of schizophrenia have found that patients residing in non-Western developing countries are more likely than those residing in Western industrialized countries to experience an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter course of the disorder, and a higher rate of remission (e.g., Hopper & Wanderling, 2000).

Answer 74

A. Among children, the rates are about the same for males and females but, by late-adolescence, the rate for females is about twice the rate for males. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-003 Answer A is correct. The prevalence rates of major depressive disorder are about the same for boys and girls until puberty when there’s a substantial increase in the rates for girls and the difference begins to approach the 2:1 female-to-male ratio that is found among adults. See, e.g., R. Wicks-Nelson and A. C. Israel, Abnormal child and adolescent psychology: DSM-5 update (8th ed.), New York, Taylor and Francis Group, 2015.

Answer 75

C. locus coeruleus EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-029 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that the term “ground zero” is used to refer to the starting point of an event and that the locus coeruleus (an area in the brain stem) has been identified as the first area of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer’s disease (Mather & Harley, 2016). As the disorder progresses, many other areas of the brain are affected including the amygdala, thalamus, and corpus callosum.

Answer 76

C. participants were chosen for inclusion in the study because they obtained extremely low scores on a pretest. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-012 Answer C is correct. Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extremely high and low scores to “regress to the mean” on retesting. It can threaten a study’s internal validity because, when extremely high and low scores become less extreme on retesting, this may be due to statistical regression rather than the effects of the independent variable.

Answer 77

B. ambiguous and difficult. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-006 Answer B is correct. Informational influence occurs when people conform to the judgments of others because they think others know more than they do and, consequently, is stronger than normative influence when the task is ambiguous and difficult.

Answer 78

B. cingulate cortex. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-025 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question. However, even if you’re not familiar with the meta-analysis being asked about, you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the cingulate cortex has been linked to depression or, if not, know that the cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system and, therefore, seems like it would be accurate to describe it as an emotional processing area of the brain. The study referred to in this question found that, following cognitive-behavior therapy, patients with major depressive disorder showed decreased activation in the left precentral gyrus (an area in the prefrontal cortex) and, following cognitive-behavior therapy or psychodynamic psychotherapy, increased activation in the left rostral anterior cingulate cortex (A. Sankar, A. Melin, V. Lorenzetti, P. Horton, S. G. Costafreda, and C. H. Y. Fu, A systematic review and meta-analysis of the neural correlates of psychological therapies in major depression, Psychiatry Research: Neuroimaging, 30, 31-39, 2018).

Answer 79

B. selective abstraction EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-003 Answer B is correct. Selective abstraction is a type of cognitive distortion that involves drawing a conclusion based on one detail while ignoring the “bigger picture.” In the situation described in this question, the employee has decided that he’s worthless and not likely to be promoted based on a single criticism while ignoring the fact that he received a very positive performance review. Selective abstraction is sometimes confused with arbitrary inference (answer D). However, selective abstraction involves drawing a conclusion based on a detail that’s taken out of context, while arbitrary inference involves drawing a conclusion without any corroborating evidence.

Test 6 Flashcards

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