Test 6 Flashcards
As defined by George Kelly (1963), personal constructs are:
A. essential determinants of a person’s style of life.
B. mental representations that are used to interpret and predict events.
C. comparable to Jung’s archetypes.
D. comparable to Glasser’s basic innate needs.
B. mental representations that are used to interpret and predict events.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-016 Answer B is correct. If your knowledge of Kelly’s (1963) personal construct theory is limited, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question using the process of elimination. Answer A can be easily eliminated as long as you know that style of life is associated with Adler, not Kelly. Answers C and D can be eliminated as long as you know that Kelly’s personal construct theory does not focus on anything resembling Jung’s archetypes or Glasser’s basic needs. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify answer B as the correct answer if you know that Kelly’s personal construct therapy focuses on how people construe events and proposes that construing involves the use of personal constructs, which are bipolar dimensions of meaning (e.g., friendly/unfriendly, relevant/irrelevant) that arise from a person’s experiences and may operate on an unconscious or conscious level. “Mental representations that are used to interpret and predict events” (answer B) is an alternative (and clearer) way of saying “bipolar dimensions of meaning” that people use to construe events.
A measure of fluid intelligence would include items that assess all of the following except:
A. short-term memory.
B. numerical reasoning.
C. ability to solve novel problems.
D. inductive reasoning.
B. numerical reasoning.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-010 Answer B is correct. Crystallized intelligence (Gc) depends on prior learning and experience, is affected by cultural experiences, and is important for tasks that require the application of acquired knowledge and skills – e.g., general information, vocabulary, and numerical reasoning (which is the ability to understand and apply numerical information). In contrast, fluid intelligence (Gf) does not depend on prior learning or experience, is fairly culture-free, and is important for tasks that involve inductive and deductive reasoning, the ability to solve novel problems, and encode short-term memories.
There’s evidence that, for some patients, depressive symptoms can be alleviated by either a placebo or an antidepressant and that a placebo and antidepressants affect the same area of the brain. More specifically, the research has found that:
A. a placebo and antidepressants both produce increased activity in the prefrontal cortex.
B. a placebo and antidepressants both produce decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex.
C. a placebo produces decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce increased activity.
D. a placebo produces increased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce decreased activity.
D. a placebo produces increased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce decreased activity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-007 Answer D is correct. A. F. Leuchter, I. A. Cook, E. A. Witte, M. Morgan, and M. Abrams compared patients with major depressive disorder who received either a placebo or antidepressant (fluoxetine or venlafaxine) and found that responders to the placebo and responders to an antidepressant exhibited changes in the prefrontal cortex. However, the effects on the prefrontal cortex differed: Patients who had a positive response to the placebo exhibited increased activity in the prefrontal cortex, while those who had a positive response to an antidepressant (fluoxetine or venlafaxine) exhibited decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex (Changes in brain function of depressed subjects during treatment with placebo, American Journal of Psychiatry, 159, 122-129, 2002).
Sam wants a glass of wine and moves the unopened wine bottle on the counter closer to him with one hand and picks up the corkscrew with the other hand. However, he doesn’t open the wine bottle because he doesn’t know what motor actions are necessary to remove the cork from the bottle. This is an example of which of the following?
A. apraxia
B. ataxia
C. akinesia
D. akathisia
A. apraxia
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-015 Answer A is correct. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements in the absence of paralysis, muscle weakness, or impaired coordination and best describes Sam’s inability to remove the cork from the wine bottle. Ataxia (answer B) involves a lack of muscle control and impaired balance and coordination, akinesia (answer C) is the loss of the ability to move, and akathisia (answer D) is a feeling of restlessness that makes it difficult to sit or stand still.
In the context of research, between-methods triangulation involves:
A. including two or more qualitative methods to collect data.
B. including both qualitative and quantitative methods to collect data.
C. using multiple theories to interpret research results.
D. collecting data at different times, in different places, or from different people.
B. including both qualitative and quantitative methods to collect data.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-009 Answer B is correct. Triangulation “refers to the use of more than one approach to the investigation of a research question in order to enhance confidence in the ensuing findings” [A. Bryman, Triangulation, in M. S. Lewis-Beck, A. Bryman, and T. F. Liao (Eds.), The SAGE encyclopedia of social science research methods (pp. 1142-1143), Thousand Oaks, SAGE Publications, 2004]. Methodological, investigator, data, and theory are types of triangulation: Methodological triangulation involves using more than one method to collect data. When the methods are the same (qualitative or quantitative), this is referred to within-method triangulation (answer A); when the methods differ (qualitative and quantitative), this is referred to as between-methods triangulation (answer B). Answer C describes theoretical triangulation, and answer D describes data triangulation.
To decrease an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific alternative desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally, you would use which of the following?
A. DRL
B. DRA
C. DRO
D. DRI
B. DRA
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-008 Answer B is correct. DRA (differential reinforcement for alternative or appropriate behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally. It involves removing all reinforcement (e.g., attention) following the undesirable behavior and providing reinforcement whenever a specified alternative behavior occurs. DRL (differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior) is used to reduce a behavior to a more acceptable level by providing reinforcement only when the behavior occurs at or below that level. It does not involve reinforcing alternative behaviors. DRO (differential reinforcement of other behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior by providing reinforcement after specified intervals of time only when the individual hasn’t engaged in the undesirable behavior during each interval. In contrast to DRA, DRO does not require the individual to engage in any specific alternative behaviors during each interval, only that he/she doesn’t engage in the undesirable behavior. DRI (differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase a desirable and physically incompatible behavior (i.e., a behavior that cannot be performed at the same time as the undesirable behavior is performed). Because the question doesn’t mention that the desirable behaviors are incompatible with the undesirable behavior, this is not the best answer.
Which of the following is most useful for explaining racial/ethnic disparities in mental and physical health?
A. cultural encapsulation
B. minority stress theory
C. diagnostic overshadowing
D. social identity theory
B. minority stress theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-014 Answer B is correct. Minority stress theory provides “a framework for conceptualizing how experiences unique to minority groups – prejudice and discrimination, in particular – confer chronic psychological stress and heightened physiological responses that impact mental and physical health over time” [J. H. Ng, L. M. Ward, M. Shea, L. Hart, P. Guerino, and S. H. Scholle, Explaining the relationship between minority group status and health disparities: A review of selected concepts, Health Equity, 3(1), 47-60, 2019]. Cultural encapsulation (answer A) refers to a lack of understanding of how culture affects behavior and explains why some mental health professionals are unable to work effectively with members of different cultural groups. In the context of multicultural counseling, diagnostic overshadowing (answer C) occurs when a therapist minimizes or misinterprets a client’s presenting problem due to focusing on the client’s age, race/ethnicity, sexual orientation, or other characteristic. Social identity theory (answer D) is used to explain racial prejudice and discrimination and is based on the assumptions that people have a natural tendency to categorize people into groups, identify with one or more groups, and favor in-groups.
When test scores represent an interval or ratio scale and the distribution of scores is skewed, the best measure of central tendency for the distribution is usually which of the following?
A. mode
B. mean
C. median
D. minuend
C. median
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-010 Answer C is correct. The choice of the appropriate measure of central tendency not only depends on the scale of measurement of the data but also on several other factors including the shape of the data distribution. When the data represent an interval or ordinal scale, the mean is ordinarily the appropriate measure of central tendency. However, when the distribution is skewed, the mean may provide misleading information because its magnitude is affected by the extreme outliers. Consequently, for a skewed distribution, the median is a better measure of central tendency because it’s not affected by the extreme outliers and is more representative of the typical score in the distribution. (The minuend is the first term in a subtraction problem – e.g., 30 in the problem 30 – 10. It’s NOT something you need to be familiar with for the exam.)
Which of the following best describes the results of research investigating the relationship between behavioral inhibition and psychopathology?
A. Behavioral inhibition has been found to be associated with anxiety and depression in childhood but not during adolescence or adulthood.
B. Behavioral inhibition has been found to be associated with anxiety and depression with depression leading to anxiety.
C. Behavioral inhibition has been found to be associated with anxiety and depression with anxiety leading to depression.
D. Behavioral inhibition has not been found to be associated with anxiety or depression.
C. Behavioral inhibition has been found to be associated with anxiety and depression with anxiety leading to depression.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-021 Answer C is correct. A number of studies have confirmed that behavioral inhibition is a vulnerability factor for an anxiety disorder in childhood, adolescence, and adulthood (especially social anxiety disorder and social phobia). There’s also some evidence that it’s associated with depression, with the link between behavioral inhibition and depression being mediated by anxiety. In other words, behavioral inhibition increases the risk for an anxiety disorder and the anxiety disorder then increases the risk for comorbid depression. See, e.g., P. Muris, Normal and abnormal fear and anxiety in children and adolescents, Burlington, MA, Elsevier, 2007.
Dr. Stein is a family therapist who believes therapy is most effective when all members of the immediate family attend all therapy sessions. During his second session with the Miller family, Mr. Miller is absent and Mrs. Miller says that, while her husband came to the first therapy session, he is unwilling to attend any additional sessions. The best course of action in this situation is for Dr. Stein to:
A. continue seeing Mrs. Miller and the children but encourage Mrs. Miller to convince Mr. Miller to attend at least some of the therapy sessions.
B. continue seeing Mrs. Miller and the children only if Mr. Miller agrees to see Dr. Stein in individual therapy.
C. continue seeing Mrs. Miller and the children only if his initial impression is that the family’s presenting problem is due primarily to Mrs. Miller’s relationships with her children.
D. refer Mrs. Miller to another family therapist who is willing to see only some members of the family.
D. refer Mrs. Miller to another family therapist who is willing to see only some members of the family.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-024 Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to notice that the question states that Dr. Stein “believes therapy is most effective when all members of the immediate family attend all therapy sessions.” Some family therapists are amenable to seeing only some family members. However, Dr. Stein is not one of these therapists, so a referral to another therapist is the best course of action.
Sally S., age 14, began therapy at the request of her parents who were concerned about her increasing moodiness and oppositional behaviors. During her fifth therapy session, Sally tells you she’s been thinking about killing herself. When you express your concern, she says she’s “just kidding” and asks you not to say anything to her parents. Your best course of action would be to:
A. maintain Sally’s confidentiality but monitor her suicidal ideation in future therapy sessions.
B. continue to discuss Sally’s feelings about killing herself to determine if she is actually at risk for attempting suicide.
C. contact her parents immediately to inform them of her suicidal ideation and discuss their options in this situation.
D. tell Sally you won’t contact her parents as long as she signs a no-suicide contract.
B. continue to discuss Sally’s feelings about killing herself to determine if she is actually at risk for attempting suicide.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-020 Answer B is correct. Suicide threats should always be taken seriously and, in this situation, you’d want to determine if Sally is actually at risk for attempting suicide before contacting her parents or taking any other action. Note that there’s evidence that no-suicide contracts (answer D) do not guarantee a person’s safety and should be used only as one element of a comprehensive intervention.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease ordinarily has an:
A. insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
B. insidious onset that’s followed by a gradual progression of impairment.
C. acute onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
D. acute onset that’s followed by a gradual progression of impairment.
A. insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-009 Answer A is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in DSM-5 as neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. Like other neurocognitive disorders due to prion disease, it typically has an insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
Which of the following best describes the prediction of goal-setting theory about the relationship between a supervisee’s participation in goal setting and his or her commitment to goals?
A. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is always necessary to ensure his/her acceptance of and commitment to goals.
B. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is likely to affect his/her commitment to goals only when the supervisor has a participative leadership style.
C. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when a supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals.
D. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not necessary for his/her commitment to goals unless the supervisee is low in need for achievement and is not likely to accept assigned goals.
C. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when a supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-ORG-Theories of Motivation-005 Answer C is correct. Goal-setting theory predicts (a) that a supervisee’s acceptance of goals is most important for ensuring that the supervisee will be committed to achieving those goals and (b) that participation in goal-setting is not always necessary for ensuring a supervisee’s commitment to goals but is useful when the supervisee is high in need for achievement and/or is not likely to accept goals assigned by the supervisor.
Rods and cones are the two types of photoreceptors in the eye. The cones are responsible for all of the following except:
A. color vision.
B. vision in bright light.
C. peripheral vision.
D. visual acuity.
C. peripheral vision.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Sensation and Perception-019 Answer C is correct. The cones work best in bright light and are responsible for visual acuity (sharpness and precise detail) and the perception of color. The rods do not perceive color but are most important for peripheral vision and, because they’re more sensitive to light, are responsible for vision in dim light.
Damage to the frontal lobe is least likely to have an adverse effect on which of the following?
A. motivation
B. judgment
C. memory
D. IQ
D. IQ
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-017 Answer D is correct. Frontal lobe damage often has an adverse effect on motivation, judgment, and memory but not on IQ test scores. One explanation for this is that frontal lobe damage seems to have a negative impact on divergent thinking but not on convergent thinking which is what is measured by standard IQ tests [B. Kolb and I. Q. Whishaw, Fundamentals of human neuropsychology (6th ed.), New York, Worth Publishers, 2009].
A hypertensive crisis may occur when foods containing tyramine are consumed while taking which of the following drugs?
A. imipramine
B. phenelzine
C. sertraline
D. fluoxetine
B. phenelzine
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-006 Answer B is correct. A hypertensive crisis may result when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with foods containing tyramine or with certain drugs (e.g., antihistamines, amphetamines). Of the antidepressants listed in the answers, only phenelzine is an MAOI.
Providing adults with training on a demanding working memory task is likely to:
A. have no effect on their fluid intelligence.
B. improve their fluid intelligence only when the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.
C. improve their fluid intelligence even when the working memory task is not similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.
D. improve their fluid intelligence whether or not the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task but only for individuals with initially low levels of fluid intelligence.
C. improve their fluid intelligence even when the working memory task is not similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-005 Answer C is correct. This answer best describes the results of research conducted by S. M. Jaeggi, M. Buschkuchi, J. Jonides, and W. J. Perrig, who found that training on a demanding working memory task produced increases in fluid intelligence even though the working memory task was entirely different from the fluid intelligence task [Improving intelligence with training on working memory, PNAS, 105(19), 6829-6833, 2008]. This is a very difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer as long as you know that performance on working memory tasks correlates with performance on fluid intelligence tasks and that tasks designed to measure working memory and fluid intelligence may require the same underlying abilities but are not likely to be the same in terms of format.
A number of studies have investigated the effects of parental ethnic/racial socialization on various outcomes for African American children and adolescents. With regard to ethnic identity, these studies suggest that:
A. cultural socialization and preparation for bias have both been consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity.
B. cultural socialization has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than preparation for bias has.
C. preparation for bias has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than cultural socialization has.
D. cultural socialization and preparation for bias have not been consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity.
B. cultural socialization has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than preparation for bias has.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-019 Answer B is correct. Racial-ethnic socialization refers to the implicit and explicit practices of parents that communicate information about race and ethnicity to their children and takes the form of cultural socialization, preparation for bias, promotion of mistrust, and/or egalitarianism. Of these, cultural socialization (which focuses on teaching children about their cultural history and traditions and promoting cultural pride) and preparation for bias (which emphasizes making children aware of discrimination and teaching them ways to cope with it) have been studied the most. The results of these studies indicate that cultural socialization is most consistently linked to positive outcomes for children and adolescents (including the development of a positive ethnic identity), while preparation for bias is associated with both positive and negative outcomes [D. Hughes, J. Rodriguez, E. Smith, D. Johnson, H. Stevenson, and P. Spicer, Parents’ ethnic–racial socialization practices: A review of research and directions for future study, Developmental Psychology, 42(5), 747-770, 2006].
Piferi, Jobe, and Jones (2006) asked college students why they donated money or provided other assistance to victims of 9/11. The results of a follow-up study indicated that students who gave which of the following reasons were most likely to continue to give assistance one year later?
A. because others would do the same thing for them
B. because it was the patriotic thing to do
C. because the victims were suffering
D. because it helped reduce their own pain
C. because the victims were suffering
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-004 Answer C is correct. R. L. Piferi, R. L. Jobe, and W. H. Jones’s study found that altruistic motivation for helping victims of a tragedy (helping to improve the victims’ well-being) was more predictive than egoistic motivation (helping to alleviate one’s own suffering) for predicting future helping [Giving to others during national tragedy: The effects of altruistic and egoistic motivations in long-term giving, Journal of Social and Personal Relationships, 23(1), 171-184, 2006].
Which of the following is not one of the factors identified by the Health Belief Model as contributing to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk that he/she will develop a disorder?
A. self-efficacy
B. perceived barriers
C. behavioral norms
D. cues to action
C. behavioral norms
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-007 Answer C is correct. The Health Belief Model identifies the following factors as contributors to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk for developing a disorder: perceived susceptibility to the disorder, perceived severity of the consequences of having the disorder, perceived benefits of taking action, perceived barriers to taking action, self-efficacy, and cues to action.
McGuire’s (1973) attitude inoculation hypothesis addresses the usefulness of __________ for increasing resistance to persuasion.
A. forewarning
B. reactance
C. a supportive defense
D. a refutational defense
D. a refutational defense
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-SOC-Persuasion-002 Answer D is correct. McGuire’s attitude inoculation hypothesis is based on the medical model of immunization and proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to “immunize” people against attempts to change their attitudes. This involves providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments (i.e., a refutational defense) before they’re exposed to a persuasive message.
Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?
A. convenience sampling
B. quota sampling
C. cluster sampling
D. snowball sampling
C. cluster sampling
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-011 Answer C is correct. Cluster sampling is a type of random (probability) sampling that can involve one or two stages: One-stage cluster sampling involves dividing the population of interest into clusters (groups) and then using simple random sampling to select clusters from the population and including all individuals in the selected clusters to participate in the research study. Two-stage cluster sampling begins in the same way as one-stage cluster sampling but ends with randomly selecting individuals from each of the selected clusters to participate in the research study. The other sampling techniques listed in the answers are nonrandom (non-probability) sampling techniques: Convenience sampling (answer A) involves including any individuals in the study who are available and meet specified criteria (e.g., all clients in a clinic who have received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder). When using quota sampling (answer B), the researcher identifies the major groups of interest, determines the number of participants to include from each group, and then selects convenience samples of the desired size from each group. When using snowball sampling, participants are obtained by asking the first person who is located or volunteers for the study to identify other possible participants who meet specified criteria, then asking those people to identify other possible participants, and so on until a sufficient number of participants is obtained. This method is useful when it’s difficult to locate members of a special population (e.g., homeless individuals, gang leaders).
Data from the National Latino and Asian American Study (NLAAS) and National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCSR) indicate that:
A. Mexican Americans have lower rates of major depressive disorder than non-Latino White Americans and, among Mexican Americans, those born in the United States have lower rates than those who are immigrants.
B. Mexican Americans have lower rates of major depressive disorder than non-Latino White Americans and, among Mexican Americans, those born in the United States have higher rates than those who are immigrants.
C. Mexican Americans have higher rates of major depressive disorder than non-Latino White Americans and, among Mexican Americans, those born in the United States have lower rates than those who are immigrants.
D. Mexican Americans have higher rates of major depressive disorder than non-Latino White Americans and, among Mexican Americans, those born in the United States have higher rates than those who are immigrants.
B. Mexican Americans have lower rates of major depressive disorder than non-Latino White Americans and, among Mexican Americans, those born in the United States have higher rates than those who are immigrants.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-014 Answer B is correct. Data from the NLAAS and NCSR indicate that Mexican Americans have lower rates of major depressive disorder than non-Latino White Americans do. In addition, the data provide some support for the “immigrant paradox” – i.e., that members of some groups have higher rates of mental disorders when they were born in the United States than when they were foreign-born and immigrated to the United States. Specifically, these studies have found that the immigrant paradox applies to mood and substance use disorders for Mexican Americans but only to substance use disorders for Cuban Americans. See M. Alegria, G. Canino, P. E. Shrout, M. Woo, N. Duan, D. Vila, M. Torres et al., Prevalence of mental illness in immigrant and non-immigrant U. S. Latino groups, American Journal of Psychiatry, 165(3), 359-369, 2008.
Dyslexia is the most common reading disorder and, of the types of dyslexia, _______ is most common.
A. surface dyslexia
B. deep dyslexia
C. phonological dyslexia
D. pure alexia
C. phonological dyslexia
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-027 Answer C is correct. There are several types of dyslexia, and different experts use different names for them. The three types listed in answers A, B, and C are developmental forms of dyslexia. Phonological dyslexia is the most common type and is also known as dysphonic, dysphonetic, and auditory dyslexia. People with phonological dyslexia cannot sound out words very well and, as a result, have trouble pronouncing new words and pseudowords. Individuals with surface dyslexia have trouble reading words that have irregular pronunciations (e.g., chalk, steak); and individuals with deep dyslexia have trouble with function words (e.g., read “at” for “in”), and they often substitute words that have similar meanings or are related in some other way to the printed word (e.g., read “man” for “boy” and “comb” for “brush”). Alexia is an acquired type of reading disorder that’s caused by brain pathology. It’s also known as acquired dyslexia and is characterized by an inability to read normally (e.g., to read very slowly) and to understand written language.
During your second session with Anita A., she says she wants to tell you something she hasn’t told anyone else. After a few moments of silence, she reveals that she’s been seeing another therapist for three months but started seeing you because she’s concerned about his behavior. She tells you that, in her last few sessions with that therapist, he touched her inappropriately and said he was doing so to help her deal with her fear of physical and sexual intimacy. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
A. convince Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and then help her work through her feelings about what has happened.
B. encourage Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and file a complaint against him with the ethics committee.
C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation.
D. tell Anita you’re ethically required to file a complaint against the other therapist because of the seriousness of her allegation.
C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-014 Answer C is the correct. Of the answers given, this is the best one because it respects Anita’s autonomy (i.e., it doesn’t involve convincing or encouraging her to do something) and it does not violate the ethical requirement to address ethical violations by colleagues but to do so in a way that does not violate the client’s confidentiality.
Studies conducted in various countries suggest that cultural and social factors play the most significant role in the causation of which of the following disorders?
A. schizophrenia
B. bipolar disorder
C. major depressive disorder
D. panic disorder
C. major depressive disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-010 Answer C is correct. Variations in prevalence rates in different countries and family and molecular biology studies suggest that cultural and social influences are stronger causal factors for major depressive disorder than for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and panic disorder. See, e.g., Office of the Surgeon General, Center for Mental Health Services, National Institute of Mental Health, Mental health: Culture, race, and ethnicity: A supplement to mental health: A report of the Surgeon General. Rockville, MD, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, 2001.
As described by Helms (1995), each stage of White racial identity development involves a different information processing strategy (IPS). For example, the IPS for the __________ status is suppression of information and ambivalence.
A. contact
B. pseudoindependence
C. immersion/emersion
D. disintegration
D. disintegration
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-011 Answer D is correct. Helms’s model of White racial identity development distinguishes between six identity statuses, and each status is characterized by a different information processing strategy (IPS). Disintegration is the second status in this model, and its IPS is suppression of information and ambivalence [J. E. Helms, An update of Helms’s White and people of color racial identity models, in J. G. Ponterotto, J. M. Casas, L. A. Suzuki, and C. M. Alexander (Eds.), Handbook of multicultural counseling (pp. 181-191), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE, 1995].
Balancing on one foot for three seconds, catching a ball with stiff arms, and pedaling a tricycle are skills that are usually first evident when toddlers are between ________ months of age.
A. 18 and 23
B. 24 and 30
C. 31 and 36
D. 37 and 42
C. 31 and 36
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-Physical Development-011 Answer C is correct. Reported ages at which gross motor milestones are first evident vary somewhat from author to author, but most identify the skills listed in this question as being acquired when a child is between 31 and 36 months of age.
Behavioral treatments for narcolepsy are often not adequate and, consequently, are usually combined with medications. Which of the following medications is most useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy?
A. modafinil
B. sodium oxybate
C. fluoxetine
D. methylphenidate
B. sodium oxybate
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-025 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question because all of the drugs listed in the answers are used to treat narcolepsy. However, only sodium oxybate has been found to be effective for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy. Modafinal, methylphenidate, and other stimulant drugs are useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, while antidepressants (e.g., fluoxetine) are useful for reducing cataplexy. See, e.g., S. V. Kothare and J. Kaleyias, Pharmacotherapy of narcolepsy: Focus on sodium oxybate, Clinical medical insights: Therapeutics, 2, 37-52, 2010.
The goal of Scared Straight programs is to reduce the likelihood that juvenile offenders and youth at risk for becoming juvenile offenders will engage in future criminal behaviors by having them visit prisons and interact with adult inmates. Research evaluating the effectiveness of these programs has found that they:
A. are effective only when they rely on confrontational techniques.
B. are effective only for seriously delinquent youth.
C. decrease the likelihood that participants will engage in future criminal behaviors.
D. increase the likelihood that participants will engage in future criminal behaviors.
D. increase the likelihood that participants will engage in future criminal behaviors.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-019 Answer D is correct. A. Petrosino, C. Turpin-Petrosino, M. E. Hollis-Peel, and J. G. Lavenberg’s (2013) meta-analysis of the research found that Scared Straight programs have harmful effects – i.e., they increase the likelihood that juvenile offenders and at-risk juveniles will engage in criminal behavior in the future. The analysis also found that confrontational and nonconfrontational approaches have similar negative effects and that the programs may have even worse outcomes for seriously delinquent youths (“Scared Straight” and other juvenile awareness programs for preventing juvenile delinquency, Cochrane Data Base of Systematic Reviews, Issue 4, Article No. CD002796).
In the context of classical conditioning, latent inhibition is due to which of the following?
A. blocking
B. overshadowing
C. CS preexposure
D. US preexposure
C. CS preexposure
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LEA-Classical Conditioning-013 Answer C is correct. Latent inhibition occurs when pre-exposure to the intended CS alone on multiple occasions prior to conditioning trials reduces the likelihood that the intended CS will actually become a CS and elicit a CR after it’s subsequently paired with the US. In other words, preexposure to the intended CS alone inhibits or disrupts learning the association between the intended CS and the US.
The studies suggest that children exhibit the greatest number of internalizing and externalizing behaviors and other problems when their divorced parents remarry when the children are:
A. between five and eight years old.
B. between nine and 12 years old.
C. in early adolescence.
D. in late adolescence.
C. in early adolescence.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-006 Answer C is correct. The research has found that children’s adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child’s age, with the poorest adjustment occurring when children are in early adolescence at the time a parent remarries. Note that there’s also evidence that, with regard to gender, girls often exhibit more adjustment problems than boys do following the remarriage of their parents. See, e.g., E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage: A focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology, 7, 39-56, 1993.
The ______ gene variant has been identified as a high risk factor for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.
A. APOE4
B. APOE3
C. APOE2
D. APOE1
A. APOE4
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-020 Answer A is correct. There are three main variants of the APOE (apolipoprotein E) gene: APOE2, APOE3, and APOE4. APOE2 is the rarest variant and its presence reduces the risk for Alzheimer’s disease, while APOE3 is the most common variant and its presence doesn’t seem to affect the risk for Alzheimer’s disease. In contrast, APOE4 has been linked to an increased risk for Alzheimer’s disease and several other neurocognitive disorders including neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy body disease. APOE1 is very rare and has not been linked to Alzheimer’s disease.
In their study comparing the effects of age-based stereotype threat and self-stereotyping on memory performance, O’Brien and Hummert (2006) found that late middle-aged adults ages 48 through 62 who had:
A. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.
B. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults.
C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.
D. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults.
C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-Cognitive Development-007 Answer C is correct. L. T. O’Brien and M. L. Hummert found that late middle-aged adults who had an older identity had significantly poorer word recall when they were told their performance would be compared to that of older adults than did those who were told their performance would be compared to that of younger adults or were not given any comparison information. In contrast, adults who had a youthful identity exhibited similar levels of word recall whether they were told their performance would be compared to older adults or younger adults or were not given comparison information. O’Brien and Hummert conclude that their results support the self-stereotyping hypothesis by showing that internalized stereotypes about aging can impair performance on memory tasks [Memory performance of late middle-aged adults: Contrasting self-stereotyping and stereotype threat accounts of assimilation to age stereotypes, Social Cognition, 24(3), 338-358, 2006].
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding the use of deception in research studies that may subject participants to pain?
A. Deception is never acceptable when a study’s procedures may cause participants physical pain.
B. Deception is never acceptable when a study’s procedures may cause participants physical pain or severe emotional distress.
C. Deception may be acceptable when a study’s procedures may cause participants pain when the deception is justified by the study’s prospective value.
D. Deception may be acceptable when a study’s procedures may cause participants pain when the deception is justified by the study’s prospective value and alternative procedures are unavailable.
B. Deception is never acceptable when a study’s procedures may cause participants physical pain or severe emotional distress.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-006 Answer B is correct. This situation is covered in Standard 8.07(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards I.20 and III.23 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07(b) states that “psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress.”
During his third therapy session, a client tells his therapist that he’s HIV positive. He also says that he engaged in unsafe sex with three partners after receiving his test results 18 months ago but is no longer doing so. The 1976 Tarasoff decision:
A. applies in this situation and the therapist must file a report with the local health department or other appropriate agency.
B. applies in this situation and the therapist should contact the three partners of the client to notify them of the client’s HIV status.
C. applies in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws.
D. does not apply in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws.
D. does not apply in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-017 Answer D is correct. The original Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn” an intended victim of a therapy client, but this was changed in a 1976 rehearing of the case to a “duty to protect” an intended victim by warning him or her directly, notifying the police, or taking other appropriate action (e.g., hospitalizing the client). Many experts agree that Tarasoff isn’t relevant in situations like the one described in this question because (a) it doesn’t apply to past behavior, (b) it applies only when potential victim(s) are identifiable (it’s not clear if the client’s partners are identifiable), and (c) the risk for harm does not necessarily rise to the level of foreseeable harm (dangerousness) required by Tarasoff since unsafe sex involves risk but not certainty that HIV will be transmitted. Note that there are other options in this situation – e.g., educating clients about safe-sex practices and encouraging clients to inform sexual partners of their HIV status, possibly with the assistance of the therapist. In addition, it’s important for psychologists to be familiar with state and provincial laws that address the actions that should be taken in situations involving HIV (e.g., partner notification laws). See, e.g., T. Chenneville, Tarasoff and HIV: Some considerations for therapists, Focus, 22(5), 5-8, 2007.
Studies investigating the effects of psychological androgyny have found that, compared to gender-typed female adolescents, androgynous female adolescents:
A. have higher levels of self-esteem and are more popular with peers.
B. have lower levels of self-esteem and are less popular with peers.
C. have higher levels of self-esteem but are less popular with peers.
D. have lower levels of self-esteem but are more popular with peers.
A. have higher levels of self-esteem and are more popular with peers.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-014 Answer A is correct. There’s evidence that androgynous female adolescents have higher levels of self-esteem and are more popular with peers than gender-typed female adolescents [e.g., D. R. Shaffer and K. Kipp, Developmental psychology: Childhood and adolescence (8th ed.), Belmont, CA, Wadsworth, 2010]. Note, however, that research on the effects of androgyny for male adolescents has provided somewhat less consistent results with some studies suggesting that highly masculine male adolescents have the highest levels of self-esteem (e.g., J. J. Arnett, Adolescence and emerging adulthood: A cultural approach, Upper Saddle River, NJ, Pearson Prentice Hall, 2004).
In the context of operant conditioning, the matching law:
A. predicts the effects of two or more concurrent schedules of reinforcement on the behaviors that are being reinforced.
B. predicts the effects of gradually reducing a reinforcement schedule on a well-established behavior.
C. is used to determine the most effective reinforcement schedule based on the current frequency of the target behavior.
D. is used to identify the optimal discriminative stimulus-behavior-consequence sequence when using chaining to establish a new behavior.
A. predicts the effects of two or more concurrent schedules of reinforcement on the behaviors that are being reinforced.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LEA-Operant Conditioning-004 Answer A is correct. According to the matching law, the relative rate of responding to two or more stimuli is equal to the relative rate of reinforcement received for responding. For example, if a pigeon is reinforced with a food pellet after every 20 pecks on key #1 and is concurrently reinforced with a food pellet after every 10 pecks on key #2, the pigeon will peck key #2 twice as often as it pecks key #1.
A prenatal care program that’s available to all pregnant women in a community is an example of which of the following types of prevention?
A. indicated
B. universal
C. selective
D. secondary
B. universal
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-019 Answer B is correct. The three types of prevention listed in answers A, B, and C were described by Gordon (1983). Universal prevention programs are aimed at a designated population or specific members of that population regardless of their level of risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all pregnant women in a community). Selective prevention programs (answer C) are aimed at members of a subgroup of a designated population who are known to be at above-average risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women in a community). Indicated prevention programs (answer A) are aimed at individuals who are known to have a characteristic that puts them at high risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women who have had a miscarriage or whose newborns had problems that were due to inadequate prenatal care). Another method for describing prevention programs is to classify them as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Secondary prevention programs (answer D) are aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at elevated risk for a disorder or condition.
Research by Lickel et al. (2014) found that experiencing which of the following self-conscious emotions elicits the greatest motivation to change oneself?
A. embarrassment
B. shame
C. regret
D. guilt
B. shame
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-016 Answer B is correct. Feelings of shame and guilt can both motivate a person to change him/herself, but Lickel and his colleagues found that shame was the strongest motivator. They suggest that shame may have a stronger effect because it’s the result of a dispositional appraisal (“I’m a bad person”) while guilt is the result of a behavioral appraisal (“I did a bad thing”), and a dispositional appraisal is more likely to lead to the desire to change oneself.
Risperidone and other second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic drugs are:
A. serotonin agonists and dopamine antagonists.
B. serotonin antagonists and dopamine agonists.
C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists.
D. serotonin and dopamine agonists.
C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-013 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question you have to know (a) that second-generation antipsychotics exert their effects by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors and (b) that an antagonist blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter and an agonist increases or mimics the effects of a neurotransmitter.
