Test 2 Flashcards
If x = 3 and y=3, then what is the solution to x^y?
a. 9
b. 27
c. 18
d. 1
b. 27
EXPLANATION
3^3 can be expressed as 3 * 3 * 3 = 9 * 3 = 27
The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a measure of:
A. general mental ability.
B. work-related motivation.
C. occupational interests.
D. work-related integrity.
A. general mental ability.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-077 Answer A is correct. The Wonderlic Personnel Test – Revised (WPT-R) is a 12-minute test of general mental ability that’s used to predict job success.
Violation of the psychological contract between employees and their employers has been identified as a contributor to:
A. work-family conflict.
B. job burnout.
C. low organization-based self-esteem.
D. downsizing survivor syndrome.
D. downsizing survivor syndrome.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-209 Answer D is correct. Downsizing survivor syndrome has been attributed to a sense of unfairness and reduction in trust caused by the organization’s violation of the psychological contract – i.e., of the unwritten expectations that employees and employers have about their responsibilities and obligations to each other.
Which of the following is true about obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males and males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
B. The onset of symptoms is earlier in females and females are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
C. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males but females are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
D. The onset of symptoms is earlier in females but males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
A. The onset of symptoms is earlier in males and males are more likely to have a comorbid tic disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-142 Answer A is correct. According to DSM-5, “males have an earlier age at onset of OCD than females and are more likely to have comorbid tic disorders” (p. 240).
A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery that affects a patient’s dominant hemisphere is most likely to produce which of the following symptoms?
A. contralateral hemiparesis, mutism, apathy, confusion, and impaired judgment
B. contralateral homonymous hemianopia, unilateral cortical blindness, visual agnosia, and memory loss
C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia
D. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, apraxia, and sensory neglect
C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-178 Answer C is correct. The symptoms listed in this answer are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and the dominant hemisphere. You may have been able to identify this as the correct answer as long as you know that aphasia is caused by damage to certain areas of the dominant hemisphere. The symptoms listed in answer D are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and the non-dominant hemisphere; the symptoms listed in answer A are caused by a stroke involving the anterior cerebral artery; and the symptoms listed in answer B are caused by a stroke involving the posterior cerebral artery.
When using the _____________ heuristic, people judge the likelihood of an event based on the extent to which it resembles a prototype.
A. confirmation
B. anchoring and adjustment
C. representativeness
D. availability
C. representativeness
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-026 Answer C is correct. Use of the representativeness heuristic involves ignoring base rates and other important information and basing judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on the extent to which the event resembles a prototype (typical case).
When a patient with schizophrenia is taking a neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drug and develops the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, the drug should be:
A. gradually decreased until the symptoms stop.
B. gradually increased until the symptoms stop.
C. discontinued immediately.
D. gradually decreased or discontinued immediately depending on the severity of the patient’s symptoms.
C. discontinued immediately.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-202 Answer C is correct. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare side effect of neuroleptic drugs that produces hyperthermia, severe muscle rigidity, difficulty swallowing, tachycardia, and altered consciousness. Because NMS is life-threatening, the drug must be discontinued as soon as symptoms develop.
According to Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory, which of the following affects the size of a person’s latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment?
A. the person’s use of the peripheral or central route to process the information contained in the persuasive message
B. the person’s belief about his/her ability to perform the behavior advocated by the persuasive message
C. the person’s prior exposure to the arguments presented in the persuasive message
D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message
D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-048 Answer D is correct. Social judgment theory predicts that the more ego-involved a person is with one side of the issue addressed by a persuasive message, the smaller his/her latitudes of acceptance and non-commitment and the larger his/her latitude of rejection. In other words, the greater the person’s ego-involvement in his/her position, the less likely the person is to be persuaded by a message advocating an opposing position.
What is most likely to happen when Behavior A and Behavior B are being reinforced on the same reinforcement schedule and the reinforcement for Behavior A is suddenly stopped?
A. Behaviors A and B will both increase.
B. Behaviors A and B will both decrease.
C. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will stay the same.
D. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase.
D. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LEA-Operant Conditioning-063 Answer D is correct. This question is asking about positive behavioral contrast, which occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is stopped while reinforcement for the other behavior stays the same. In this situation the behavior that is no longer reinforced will decrease, while the behavior that is still receiving the same amount of reinforcement will increase. Note that behavioral contrast can also be negative: Negative behavioral contrast occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is increased. In this situation, the behavior that receives more reinforcement will increase, while the behavior that receives the same amount of reinforcement will decrea
A realistic job preview is used to:
A. identify newly hired employees who are likely to benefit from training.
B. reduce turnover by ensuring that new employees have accurate job expectations.
C. identify the most important job requirements when conducting a job analysis.
D. help new employees feel as though they’re part of the organization.
B. reduce turnover by ensuring that new employees have accurate job expectations.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-056 Answer B is correct. A realistic job preview involves informing job applicants about the positive and negative aspects of the job in order to reduce the risk for turnover after they’re hired by ensuring they have realistic job expectations.
A(n) __________ therapist is most likely to agree that helping a client achieve awareness of his/her thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the here-and-now is a primary goal of therapy.
A. reality
B. Rogerian
C. interpersonal
D. Gestalt
D. Gestalt
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-031 Answer D is correct. Gestalt therapy is based on the assumption that awareness of one’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the present is a curative factor that enables a person to make better choices, satisfy his/her needs, and become a unified whole.
A therapist believes that depression, anxiety, and other disorders are similar for all individuals regardless of their cultural background and that the same treatment approaches are effective for all clients. This therapist has adopted which of the following perspectives?
A. autoplastic
B. alloplastic
C. emic
D. etic
D. etic
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-213 Answer D is correct. A therapist who has an etic (culturally universal) perspective believes that culture has little or no impact on diagnosis and treatment, while a therapist who has an emic (culturally specific) perspective believes that culture affects how psychological symptoms are experienced and expressed and how clients respond to therapeutic interventions.
A client whose symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for dissociative amnesia is unable to recall any events that occurred for about six weeks after she was brutally raped two years ago. This type of dissociative amnesia is referred to in the DSM-5 as:
A. selective.
B. localized.
C. continuous.
D. generalized.
B. localized.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-162 Answer B is correct. Dissociative amnesia is characterized by an inability to recall important autobiographical information that’s often related to exposure to a stressful or traumatic event and is more severe than normal forgetting. As described in DSM-5, memory loss associated with this disorder can take several forms including localized amnesia. This type occurs when the person is unable to recall events that happened during a limited period of time (e.g., for several weeks after the person experienced a traumatic event).
You have just moved to Springfield and, to build your private practice, you plan to contact several psychologists in the Springfield area whom you met at a recent APA convention and offer them a fee for referring clients to you. With regard to ethical requirements, this is:
A. acceptable since ethical guidelines do not prohibit the payment or receipt of referral fees.
B. acceptable as long as you do not raise the fee you charge referred clients to obtain reimbursement for the referral fee.
C. acceptable only if the fee represents the psychologists’ actual costs for referring the clients to you.
D. unacceptable under any circumstances since ethical guidelines prohibit the payment or receipt of referral fees.
C. acceptable only if the fee represents the psychologists’ actual costs for referring the clients to you.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-157 Answer C is correct. Standard 6.07 of the APA Ethics Code addresses referral fees. It states that “when psychologists pay, receive payment from, or divide fees with another professional, other than in an employer-employee relationship, the payment to each is based on the services provided (clinical, consultative, administrative, or other) and is not based on the referral itself.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.14 and II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
In a negatively skewed distribution of scores, the __________ is the lowest score and the __________ is the highest score.
A. mode; mean
B. mean; mode
C. median; mean
D. mean; median
B. mean; mode
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-058 Answer B is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores “piled up” in one tail of the distribution and a few scores in the other tail: In a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution); in a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution) – i.e., the “tail tells the tale.” In both types of skewed distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is the lowest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the highest score. Conversely, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the highest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the lowest score.
As described by Piaget, children in the heteronomous stage of moral reasoning base their judgments about a person’s behavior on which of the following?
A. the consequences of the behavior
B. the person’s intentions
C. what they would have done in the same situation
D. their familiarity with the behavior or situation
A. the consequences of the behavior
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-200 Answer A is correct. Piaget distinguished between three stages of moral development: premoral, heteronomous, and autonomous. Children in the heteronomous stage base their moral judgments of a person’s behavior on its consequences, while children in the autonomous stage base their moral judgments on the person’s intentions.
Assuming that a woman’s symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for a diagnosis of delusional disorder, the appropriate type of delusion is erotomanic if she’s convinced that:
A. her husband is having sexual relations with several of the neighbors.
B. a local celebrity she met at a fundraiser six months ago is in love with her.
C. every man she meets wants to have sex with her.
D. no “decent man” could ever be in love with her.
B. a local celebrity she met at a fundraiser six months ago is in love with her.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-035 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 states that the erotomanic type “applies when the central theme [of the delusion] is that another person is in love with the individual” (p. 90).
The course of ____________ varies and may involve an acute onset of symptoms or a stepwise or progressive decline in functioning with fluctuations in symptoms or plateaus of varying length.
A. vascular neurocognitive disorder
B. alcohol-induced neurocognitive disorder
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
D. neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease
A. vascular neurocognitive disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-221 Answer A is correct. The course of vascular neurocognitive disorder depends on the nature and severity of the cerebrovascular disease, the areas of the brain that are affected, and other factors, and it may involve an acute onset of symptoms or a stepwise or fluctuating decline in functioning.
A meta-analysis of the research led Rhodes and Wood (1992) to conclude that _______________ are associated with the greatest susceptibility to persuasion.
A. low levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
B. moderate levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
C. low levels of self-esteem and moderate levels of intelligence
D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence
D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-SOC-Persuasion-081 Answer D is correct. Rhodes and Wood found an inverted U-shaped relationship between self-esteem and influenceability with moderate levels of self-esteem being associated with the greatest susceptibility to influence. In contrast, they found a linear relationship between intelligence and influenceability, with lower levels of intelligence being associated with greater influenceability.
For most infants, separation anxiety begins when the infant is between __________ months of age.
A. 2 and 4
B. 4 and 6
C. 6 and 8
D. 8 and 10
C. 6 and 8
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-188 Answer C is correct. The age at which separation anxiety begins varies somewhat but, for most infants, it’s first evident between the ages of 6 and 8 months, peaks in intensity between 14 and 18 months, and then gradually decreases. See, e.g., D. R. Shaffer and K. Kipp, Developmental psychology: Childhood and adolescence (9th ed.), Belmont, CA, Wadsworth, 2014.
The ____________ is based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and provides scores on five factors derived from that model: knowledge, fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, and working memory.
A. SB5
B. WAIS-IV
C. KABC-II
D. WJ-IV
A. SB5
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-011 Answer A is correct. The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive ability integrates Horn and Cattell’s distinction between fluid and crystallized intelligence with Carroll’s three-stratum theory that includes general intelligence (g), several broad cognitive abilities, and multiple narrow cognitive abilities that each contribute to one of the broad abilities. The CHC model is a theoretical foundation for many cognitive ability tests including the SB5, WAIS-IV, KABC-II, and WJ-IV, but only the SB-5 provides scores on the five factors listed in the question.
A therapist instructs a woman who constantly starts arguments with her partner and hates cleaning the house to spend one hour cleaning the house every time she initiates an argument. The therapist is using which of the following techniques?
A. an ordeal
B. a ritual
C. positioning
D. prescribing the symptom
A. an ordeal
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-119 Answer A is correct. Ordeals are used by strategic family therapists to reduce or eliminate a client’s undesirable behavior by instructing the client to do an unpleasant task whenever he or she engages in that behavior. Ideally, the client will stop engaging in the undesirable behavior in order to avoid doing the unpleasant task.
Which of the following has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and different measures of job performance?
A. structured employment interviews
B. general mental ability tests
C. biographical information blanks
D. assessment centers
B. general mental ability tests
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-045 Answer B is correct. General mental ability tests are among the most frequently used selection techniques and have been found to be the most valid predictors of job performance across a variety of jobs, measures of job performance, and organizations.
The dopamine hypothesis attributes __________ to elevated levels of or oversensitivity to dopamine in certain areas of the brain.
A. depression
B. schizophrenia
C. ADHD
D. anorexia nervosa
B. schizophrenia
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-010 Answer B is correct. The dopamine hypothesis predicts that excessive dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathways of the brain are responsible for the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
Which of the following has NOT been identified as an explanation for bystander apathy?
A. social loafing
B. pluralistic ignorance
C. evaluation apprehension
D. diffusion of responsibility
A. social loafing
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-135 Answer A is correct. Social loafing occurs when members of a group exert less effort when working on a task than they would have exerted when working alone. Unlike pluralistic ignorance, evaluation apprehension, and diffusion of responsibility, social loafing has not been used to explain bystander apathy.
As described by Piaget, the ability to conserve emerges during the concrete operational stage and depends on which of the following?
A. transductive reasoning
B. hypothetico-deductive reasoning
C. transformational thinking
D. symbolic thinking
C. transformational thinking
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LIF-Cognitive Development-117 Answer C is correct. Piaget proposed that the ability to solve conservation problems develops during the concrete operational stage as the result of the emergence of reversibility of thought, decentration, and transformational thinking.
During his first session with a family, a structural family therapist notices that, whenever the father tries to shed some light on the family’s problems, the mother and teenage son interrupt him and contradict what he’s saying. The therapist will describe this interaction as a:
A. detouring coalition.
B. stable coalition.
C. symmetrical interaction.
D. complementary interaction.
B. stable coalition.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-130 Answer B is correct. Practitioners of Minuchin’s structural family therapy distinguish between three rigid family triads – stable coalition, detouring coalition, and triangulation. A stable coalition occurs when two family members (often a parent and child) consistently “gang up” against a third family member (the other parent).
To serve as an expert witness in a court case, a psychologist must be:
A. determined to be qualified to do so by the attorney requesting his/her services.
B. determined to be qualified to do so by the judge.
C. certified as an expert witness by a professional forensic organization.
D. certified as an expert witness by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards.
B. determined to be qualified to do so by the judge.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ETH-Professional Issues-219 Answer B is correct. When an attorney representing the plaintiff or defendant in a court case wants a psychologist to provide expert testimony, the judge decides whether or not to allow that testimony. The judge’s decision is based on consideration of the relevance of the psychologist’s knowledge, skills, experience, training, and education.
Kluver and Bucy (1938) found that bilateral lesioning of which of the following areas of the brain in rhesus monkeys caused visual agnosia, reduced fear, increased docility, dietary changes, and abnormal sexual behavior.
A. medulla, hippocampus, and frontal lobes
B. medulla, hypothalamus, and frontal lobes
C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes
D. amygdala, hypothalamus, and temporal lobes
C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-087 Answer C is correct. H. Kluver and P. C. Bucy (1939) state that Kluver-Bucy syndrome was caused by lesioning the temporal lobe, hippocampus, and amygdala of rhesus monkeys. They also note that the hippocampus is part of the Papez circuit which is responsible for emotions and includes the hypothalamus and other structures, and they suggest that lesioning the hippocampus interrupted this circuit, which means that it also interrupted the normal functioning of those structures. However, answer D is not the best answer because Kluver and Bucy did not lesion the hypothalamus, and this question is asking about the areas of the brain that they lesioned [Preliminary analysis of the functions of the temporal lobes in monkeys, Archives of Neurology and Psychiatry, 42(6), 979-100, 1939].
Dr. Merritt overhears Alice, one of the interns she’s supervising, making disparaging remarks about people with addictions to a group of friends on two separate occasions. However, Dr. Merritt has never observed Alice acting in an inappropriate way with clients who have any type of addiction and she hasn’t discussed what she overheard with Alice. When Alice receives her performance evaluation, Dr. Merritt has noted that one of the low ratings she assigned was due to her concern that Alice is likely to have trouble working with clients who have an addiction. With regard to ethical guidelines:
A. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is acceptable because of the unacceptability of the disparaging remarks Alice made.
B. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is acceptable as long as it includes an explanation for her concerns about Alice’s ability to work with clients who have an addiction.
C. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is acceptable as long as it was provided to Alice in a timely manner and she’s willing to discuss her concerns with Alice.
D. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is not acceptable because it was not based entirely on Alice’s actual performance as an intern.
D. Dr. Merritt’s evaluation is not acceptable because it was not based entirely on Alice’s actual performance as an intern.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-169 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 7.06(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.06(b) states that “psychologists evaluate students and supervisees on the basis of their actual performance on relevant and established program requirements.”
The 22-year-old biological son of taller-than-average parents is shorter than average. Which of the following helps explain the son’s height?
A. genotype
B. phenotype
C. gene expression
D. canalization
B. phenotype
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-007 Answer B is correct. A phenotype is a characteristic that’s directly observable and is the result of a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Consequently, a person whose genotype (genetic inheritance) is consistent with above-average height may be shorter than average due to malnutrition during childhood or other environmental factor(s).
Based on the results of his research on learning, ____________ concluded that deriving a solution to a problem can be the result of insight, which involves mentally restructuring the elements of the problem in order to see it in a new way.
A. Hermann Ebbinghaus
B. Wolfgang Kohler
C. Edward Thorndike
D. Edward Tolman
B. Wolfgang Kohler
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-118 Answer B is correct. The results of Kohler’s research with chimpanzees demonstrated that, at least in some situations, problem-solving is not the result of trial-and-error but, instead, sudden insight into the problem – i.e., on having an “aha” experience.
In the first phase of one of Pavlov’s experiments with dogs, a tone was repeatedly paired with food so that, eventually, a dog salivated when the tone was presented alone. In the second phase of the experiment, a light was repeatedly paired with the tone so that the dog also salivated when the light was presented alone. The procedure used in this experiment is known as:
A. stimulus generalization.
B. stimulus discrimination.
C. delay conditioning.
D. higher-order conditioning.
D. higher-order conditioning.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LEA-Classical Conditioning-019 Answer D is correct. Higher-order conditioning involves using the initial conditioned stimulus (the tone in the situation described in this question) as an unconditioned stimulus by pairing it with a neutral stimulus (the light) so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a conditioned response (salivation) when it’s presented alone. Note that, when higher-order conditioning involves a second conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as second-order conditioning; and, when it involves a third conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as third-order conditioning.
Which of the following is true about the side effects of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and the tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce serious cardiovascular effects, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and sexual dysfunction.
B. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce anticholinergic effects and sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce serious cardiovascular effects.
C. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce anticholinergic effects, while TCAs are more likely to produce cardiovascular effects and sexual dysfunction.
D. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and serious cardiovascular effects.
D. SSRIs are more likely than TCAs to produce sexual dysfunction, while TCAs are more likely to produce anticholinergic effects and serious cardiovascular effects.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-208 Answer D is correct. TCAs have a higher risk than SSRIs for serious cardiovascular effects (e.g., arrhythmias, congestive heart failure) and anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, and drowsiness), but SSRIs have a higher risk for sexual dysfunction (e.g., reduced sexual desire, erectile dysfunction).
According to Alfred Adler, which of the following is the major determinant of whether a person has a healthy or mistaken style of life?
A. social interest
B. self-efficacy
C. object relations
D. personal constructs
A. social interest
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-009 Answer A is correct. Style of life is a central concept in Adler’s individual psychology and refers to the ways in which a person attempts to overcome feelings of inferiority and strive for superiority. According to Adler, people whose goals and behaviors reflect a high degree of social interest have a healthy style of life, while those whose goals and behaviors reflect a high degree of self-centeredness rather than social interest have a mistaken style of life.
Before using a newly developed 10-item screening test to identify people who are depressed, you administer the test to a sample of clinic patients along with an established (validated) 50-item measure of depression and correlate the two sets of scores. In this situation, you are evaluating the screening test’s:
A. content validity.
B. divergent validity.
C. differential validity.
D. concurrent validity.
D. concurrent validity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-082 Answer D is correct. Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity that involves determining how well a new predictor (e.g., a screening test) estimates current scores on a criterion (e.g., a validated measure of depression).
Organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis are components of which of the following?
A. work-oriented job analysis
B. worker-oriented job analysis
C. job evaluation
D. needs analysis
D. needs analysis
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-100 Answer D is correct. A needs analysis is conducted to identify training needs and often includes an organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis.
Studies investigating the impact of client-therapist match in terms of race and ethnicity suggest that:
A. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity and also have significantly better therapy outcomes when their therapists are of the same race or ethnicity.
B. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity but matching clients and therapists in terms of race and ethnicity has little effect on therapy outcomes.
C. clients experience significantly better therapy outcomes when their therapists are of the same race or ethnicity only when they had a strong preference for a therapist of the same race or ethnicity.
D. clients experience worse therapy outcomes when their therapists are not of the same race or ethnicity, regardless of their stated preferences.
B. clients tend to prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity but matching clients and therapists in terms of race and ethnicity has little effect on therapy outcomes.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-189 Answer B is correct. Research on the effects of client-therapist matching in terms of race and ethnicity has not produced entirely consistent results. However, the best overall conclusion is that clients often prefer therapists of the same race or ethnicity, but matching clients and therapists in terms of race or ethnicity does not have a significant effect on therapy outcomes. See, e.g., C. B. Smith, A. Soto, D. Griner, and J. E. Trimble, Multicultural counseling foundations: A synthesis of research findings on selected topics, in P. B. Pedersen, W. J. Lonner, J. G. Draguns, J. E. Trimble, and M. R. Scharron-del Rio (Eds.), Counseling across cultures (7th ed.), Los Angeles, SAGE, 2016.
Dr. Oz (lmao) conducts a study to compare the effects of three treatments (drug, relaxation, and drug plus relaxation) on the systolic blood pressure of patients who have secondary hypertension as the result of three different conditions (tobacco use, chronic alcohol use, or obesity). To analyze the main and interaction effects of treatment and condition on systolic blood pressure, Dr. Oz will use which of the following statistical tests?
A. chi-square test for multiple samples
B. t-test for independent samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. MANOVA
C. two-way ANOVA
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-102 Answer C is correct. The first two things to do when choosing an inferential statistical test are to identify (1) the independent and dependent variables and (2) the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study has two independent variables – treatment and condition – and one dependent variable – systolic blood pressure. You may have had trouble with this question because you were uncertain about the scale of measurement of systolic blood pressure. However, a general rule is that most physical measurements (including systolic blood pressure) represent an interval or ratio scale, which means that the appropriate statistical test will be a t-test or analysis of variance. To choose between the t-test, the two-way ANOVA, and the MANOVA, you have to consider how many independent and dependent variables there are. There are two independent variables, which eliminates the t-test because it’s used when there’s only one independent variable; and there is one dependent variable, which eliminates the MANOVA because it’s used when there are two or more dependent variables. That leaves the two-way ANOVA, which is the correct answer. It’s used when a study includes two independent variables and one dependent variable that’s measured on an interval or ratio scale.
You would use which of the following to assess the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking 21-year-old?
A. WJ-IV
B. Leiter-3
C. SIT-R3-1
D. KABC-II
B. Leiter-3
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-066 Answer B is correct. The Leiter International Performance Scale, Third Edition (Leiter-3) is a measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+. Because of its nonverbal format, it’s useful for non-English speakers and individuals with language impairments.
Electrical stimulation of a person’s ascending reticular activating system will have which of the following effects?
A. A sleeping person will wake up and an awake person will become more alert.
B. A sleeping person will have lucid dreams.
C. An awake person will engage in unconscious repetitive motor tics.
D. An awake person will experience a sense of deja vu.
A. A sleeping person will wake up and an awake person will become more alert.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-043 Answer A is correct. The ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) is involved in arousal and the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle. Direct electrical stimulation of the ARAS or stimulation by sensory input can awaken a sleeping person and cause an awake person to become more alert.
The results of a factor analysis indicate that a test has a correlation coefficient of .20 with Factor I, .35 with Factor II, and .60 with Factor III. The correlation of .60 indicates that ____% of variability in test scores is explained by Factor III.
A. 60
B. 40
C. 36
D. 64
C. 36
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-071 Answer C is correct. Factor loadings are interpreted like other correlation coefficients for two different measures and are squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. When the correlation between a test and a factor is .60, this means that 36% (.60 squared) of variability in test scores is explained by variability in the factor.
Which of the following best describes sensory memory?
A. large capacity and brief duration
B. large capacity and long duration
C. small capacity and brief duration
D. small capacity and long duration
A. large capacity and brief duration
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-129 Answer A is correct. Sensory memory is also known as sensory register and receives information directly from the environment. It has a large capacity for information, but stores it for a very brief period of time (from about one-fourth second to four seconds).
The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states that APA may take action against a member not only when a complaint has been filed against him or her but also when a member:
A. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association.
B. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony.
C. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor.
D. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor that’s related to the practice or profession of psychology.
B. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-006 Answer B is correct. The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states that “APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, the felony conviction does not have to be related to activities the member performed in his or her role as a psychologist (Decoding the Ethics Code, Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, 2017).
Research evaluating the effectiveness of single-session psychological debriefing as a treatment for PTSD has found that it:
A. is a research-supported intervention for PTSD.
B. has beneficial effects only when it’s provided immediately after the individual has been exposed to a traumatic event.
C. is effective only when it’s provided by psychologists or other mental health professionals who have received adequate training in its use.
D. has not been found to be an effective treatment and, in some cases, may actually increase PTSD symptoms.
D. has not been found to be an effective treatment and, in some cases, may actually increase PTSD symptoms.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-156 Answer D is correct. Psychological debriefing is a single session intervention that’s provided by a first responder or mental health professional immediately after an individual has been exposed to a traumatic event. The research has generally found that it does not prevent or reduce the symptoms of PTSD and may actually increase symptoms by interfering with the recovery process. See, e.g., A. A. P. Van Emmerik, J. H. Kamphuls, A. M. Hulsbosch, and P. M. G. Emmelkamp, Single session debriefing after psychological trauma: A meta-analysis, The Lancet, 360, 766-771, 2002
Sue and Sue (2015) propose that a White therapist with an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility is likely to encounter the most difficulties when working with clients from an ethnic or racial minority group who have an:
A. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
B. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
C. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
B. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P2-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-207 Answer B is correct. Sue and Sue describe worldview in terms of two dimensions – locus of control and locus of responsibility. They note that an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of Western approaches to psychotherapy. They also state that White therapists with this worldview are likely to have the most difficult problems when working with clients from racial/ethnic minority groups who have an internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility because these clients are most likely to challenge the therapist’s credibility and trustworthiness.