Test 4

Question 1

The left hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere for language for about _____% of right-handed people and _____% of left-handed people.
A. 99%; 90%
B. 99%; 35%
C. 95%; 70%
D. 95%; 25%

Answer 1

C. 95%; 70%

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer C is correct. Reported estimates for left-hemisphere dominance for language for right- and left-handed people vary, but most authorities cite percentages in the 90’s for right-handed people and between 50 and 70% for left-handed people. See, e.g., J. E. Mendoza and A. L. Foundas, Clinical neuroanatomy: A neurobehavioral approach, New York, Springer Science+Business Media, Inc., 2008.

Question 2

Dr. Sholen finds that she and her intern do not have time to administer tests to all of the clients who are being referred to Dr. Sholen for psychological assessment. As a result, she decides to hire a graduate student who is working on her master’s degree in clinical psychology to administer the MMPI-2 and several similar tests. With regard to ethical requirements, this:
A. is clearly unacceptable since the student has not completed the coursework required for a master’s degree.
B. is acceptable as long as the student has completed coursework in psychological assessment.
C. may be acceptable as long as the student administers but does not score or interpret the tests.
D. may be acceptable as long as the student has had adequate training and will be supervised by Dr. Sholen.

Answer 2

D. may be acceptable as long as the student has had adequate training and will be supervised by Dr. Sholen.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-24 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 9.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards II.7 and II.56 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.07 states that “psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons, except when such use is conducted for training purposes with appropriate supervision.”

Question 3

Dr. Moore has been seeing Ms. Kazinsky in therapy for three months and realizes that he is feeling attracted to her and always looks forward to their sessions. He thinks that she may feel the same way and, several sessions later, they both admit their feelings for each other. Ms. Kazinsky says she thinks she’s achieved her therapy goals and suggests that she stop coming to therapy so they can start dating. If Dr. Moore agrees to this arrangement, he will have acted:
A. ethically since Ms. Kazinsky suggested that she terminate therapy so they can start dating.
B. ethically as long as Dr. Moore agrees that Ms. Kazinsky has achieved her therapy goals.
C. ethically only if Dr. Moore waits for two years before he begins dating Ms. Kazinsky.
D. unethically regardless of how much time passes between the last therapy session and their first date.

Answer 3

D. unethically regardless of how much time passes between the last therapy session and their first date.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-26 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Although both Codes discourage therapists from dating former clients, they also specify conditions in which doing so may be acceptable. Answers A and B are obviously incorrect since it doesn’t matter who suggests that therapy be terminated or if the client has achieved her therapy goals. Answer C is also incorrect. Standard 10.08 specifies that at least two years must pass before a therapist starts dating a former client, but it also states that the therapist must demonstrate that there has been no exploitation in light of several factors including “the circumstances of the termination” and “any statements or actions made by the therapist during the course of therapy suggesting or inviting the possibility of a posttermination sexual or romantic relationship with the client.” In other words, Dr. Moore expressed his feelings toward the client while still seeing her in therapy and therapy is being terminated so he can begin dating the client, which suggests that dating the client even after two years would be exploitative and would, therefore, violate Standard 10.08.

Question 4

The time-series group design is most similar to which of the following single-subject designs?
A. AB
B. ABAB
C. multiple-baseline across behaviors
D. multiple-baseline across subjects

Answer 4

A. AB

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-05 Answer A is correct. The time-series design is a type of within-subjects design that’s essentially a group version of the single-subject AB design. It involves measuring the dependent variable at regular intervals multiple times before and after the independent variable is administered.

Question 5

Generalized onset seizures always:
A. include a loss of consciousness.
B. include motor symptoms.
C. include a loss of consciousness and motor symptoms.
D. begin with an aura.

Answer 5

A. include a loss of consciousness.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-22 Answer A is correct. There are two types of generalized onset seizures – generalized onset motor seizures (also known as tonic-clonic seizures) and generalized onset non-motor seizures (also known as absence seizures). Both include a loss of consciousness but, as their names suggest, only generalized onset motor seizures include motor symptoms. Although auras are most associated with focal onset seizures, there is evidence that they occur for some people with generalized onset seizures. See, e.g., P. Dugan et al., Auras in generalized epilepsy, Neurology, 83(16), 1444-1449, 2014.

Question 6

A researcher would use the split-plot ANOVA to analyze the data she collected in her research study when:
A. she wants to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable.
B. she wants to assess the effects of one independent variable on three dependent variables that are all measured on an interval or ratio scale.
C. her study included one between-subjects independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable.
D. her study included an extraneous variable that was treated like an independent variable.

Answer 6

C. her study included one between-subjects independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-12 Answer C is correct. Knowing that the split-plot ANOVA is also known as the mixed ANOVA may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: It is used when data are collected from a study that used a mixed design – i.e., that had at least one between-subjects variable and one within-subjects variable.

Question 7

The studies have not provided entirely consistent results, but they have generally found that which of the following Big Five personality traits increase with increasing age during adulthood?
A. conscientiousness and neuroticism
B. neuroticism and extraversion
C. agreeableness and conscientiousness
D. agreeableness and openness to experience

Answer 7

C. agreeableness and conscientiousness

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-17 Answer C is correct. McCrae and his colleagues conclude that, “from age 18 to age 30 there are declines in Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness to Experience, and increases in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness; after age 30 the same trends are found, although the rate of change seems to decrease” [R. R. McCrae, P. T. Costa, F. Ostendorf, A. Angleitner, M. Hrebickova, M. D. Avia, et al., Nature over nurture: Temperament, personality, and life span development, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 78, 173–186, 2000].

Question 8

Which of the following is not a criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?
A. His theory is biased in terms of culture and gender.
B. His theory places too much emphasis on moral judgment and not enough on moral behavior.
C. Moral development does not end in late childhood as his theory claims.
D. Young children are more advanced in terms of morality than his theory claims.

Answer 8

C. Moral development does not end in late childhood as his theory claims.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-188 Answer C is correct. Piaget, not Kohlberg, concluded that moral development ends with the onset of the autonomous stage in late childhood, and this claim has been criticized and challenged by the results of research on moral development during adolescence and adulthood. Answers A, B, and D accurately describe criticisms of Kohlberg’s theory.

Question 9

The concordance rate for schizophrenia for monozygotic (identical) twins is:
A. 90%.
B. 78%.
C. 48%.
D. 26%.

Answer 9

C. 48%.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-05 Answer C is correct. In his frequently cited review of the research, I. Gottesman reports a concordance rate for schizophrenia of 48% for monozygotic twins (Schizophrenia genesis, New York, W. H. Freeman & Co., 1991).

Question 10

Of the antipsychotic drugs, __________ is most likely to be a side effect of clozapine.
A. parkinsonian-like symptoms
B. tardive dyskinesia
C. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. agranulocytosis

Answer 10

D. agranulocytosis

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-24 Answer D is correct. Of the antipsychotics, the atypical drug clozapine is most likely to produce agranulocytosis, which is a rare but potentially fatal blood disorder that’s characterized by an abnormally low level of white blood cells. Consequently, regular blood monitoring is required for people taking this drug. An advantage of clozapine is that it is less likely than many other antipsychotics to produce the side effects listed in answers A, B, and C. See, e.g., L.A. Labbate, J. F. Rosenbaum, M. Fava, and G. W. Arana, Handbook of psychiatric drug therapy, Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.

Question 11

One-month-old babies respond with which of the following reflexes when they are startled by a loud noise or sudden movement?
A. Babinski
B. Moro
C. rooting
D. plantar

Answer 11

B. Moro

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-192 Answer B is correct. The Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex and occurs when babies are startled by a loud noise or movement and, in response, throw their heads back, extend their arms and legs, and then curl their arms and legs inward. The Babinski reflex (answer A) occurs when the sole of a baby’s foot is firmly touched and, in response, the baby’s big toe moves backward toward the top of the foot and the other toes fan out. The rooting reflex (answer C) occurs when, in response to having the corner of their mouths touched, babies turn their heads in the direction of the touch. Plantar reflex (answer D) is another name for the Babinski reflex.

Question 12

Of the following, which is least likely to be the optimal intervention when a child’s target behavior is harmful to him/herself or others?
A. response cost
B. operant extinction
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement

Answer 12

B. operant extinction

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-08 Answer B is correct. Of the interventions listed in the answers, operant extinction would be the least desirable when the target behavior is harmful to the individual or others because extinction often causes an increase in the behavior (an extinction burst) before the behavior begins to decrease.

Question 13

Drugs that increase which of the following are often used to treat premature ejaculation?
A. GABA
B. serotonin
C. dopamine
D. epinephrine

Answer 13

B. serotonin

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-21 Answer B is correct. SSRIs (e.g., paroxetine, dapoxetine, sertraline) and antidepressants that have similar effects as SSRIs have been found to be safe and effective treatments for premature ejaculation.

Question 14

Which of the following statements best describes a psychologist’s ethical requirements with regard to obtaining informed consents for research?
A. Informed consents are always necessary except when the research requires the use of deception.
B. Informed consents are not necessary as long as potential participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time.
C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices.
D. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research.

Answer 14

C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-20 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard I.20 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. It accurately describes one of the exceptions to obtaining an informed consent listed in Standard 8.05. In contrast, answer A is not correct because informed consents are not required in several circumstances besides when deception is used, and answer B is not correct because allowing participants to withdraw from a study at any time is required but does not preclude getting informed consents. Finally, answer D is not the best answer because it’s only partially true: Standard 8.05 states that it’s not necessary to obtain informed consents when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research but only when “disclosure of responses would not place participants at risk of criminal or civil liability or damage their financial standing, employability, or reputation, and confidentiality is protected.”

Question 15

Bilateral damage to the medial temporal lobe produces deficits in:
A. the comprehension and production of language.
B. the comprehension but not the production of language.
C. declarative memory.
D. procedural memory.

Answer 15

C. declarative memory.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-09 Answer C is correct. The medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, parahippocampal cortex, perirhinal cortex, and entorhinal cortex and is important for the formation of long-term declarative (semantic and episodic) memories.

Question 16

Which of the following best describes implied consent?
A. It refers to a person’s informed consent when it is not written or documented.
B. It applies only when a person is believed to be a danger to self or others.
C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person.
D. It applies only when a person lacks the capacity to give informed consent.

Answer 16

C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-209 Answer C is correct. Informed consent is inferred from the circumstances or actions of a person. For example, a patient’s implied consent for treatment is assumed in emergency situations when the patient is incapacitated and unable to provide informed consent, and a student’s implied consent to participate in a class is assumed when the student registers for and attends the class. Answer D is not the best answer because implied consent does not refer only to consent in the circumstance described in that answer.

Question 17

An organizational psychologist is hired by a large software company to develop a new selection test for hiring entry level software developers. To do so, she obtains a sample of 30 software developers who were recently hired by the company using its existing selection procedure and uses their responses to the proposed selection test items to determine which items to include in its final version. When she administers the final version of the test to this sample and correlates their test scores with scores on a measure of job performance, she obtains a criterion-related validity coefficient of .45. When the psychologist cross-validates the test on another sample of 40 recently hired software developers, the validity coefficient for this sample will most likely be:
A. .45.
B. smaller than .45.
C. larger than .45.
D. either smaller or larger than .45.

Answer 17

B. smaller than .45.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-08 Answer B is correct. When a test is cross-validated on another sample, the criterion-related validity coefficient usually “shrinks” (is smaller) because the unique characteristics of the original sample affected which items were included in the test and the second sample will not have all of the same characteristics. In other words, the test was “custom-made” for the original sample and, as a result, the initial criterion-related validity coefficient overestimates the test’s validity for other samples.

Question 18

Mildred Parten (1932) categorized children’s play as being:
A. physical or social.
B. nonsocial or social.
C. physical, emotional, or cognitive.
D. constructive, expressive, or dramatic.

Answer 18

B. nonsocial or social.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. M. B. Parten distinguished between nonsocial and social play, with each type including three subtypes: Nonsocial play includes unoccupied play, solitary play, and onlooker play, while social play includes parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play [Social participation among pre-school children, The Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 27(3), 243-269, 1932].

Question 19

According to Bronfenbrenner’s (2004) ecological systems theory, available legal and social services are part of the:
A. macrosystem.
B. microsystem.
C. exosystem.
D. mesosystem.

Answer 19

C. exosystem.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-01 Answer C is correct. Bronfenbrenner’s theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that affect a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the environment that the child may not have direct contact with but affect the child’s immediate environment. It includes the parents’ places of work, community services, and government agencies.

Question 20

To avoid dealing with their ongoing conflicts and hostility toward each other, the parents of a 10-year-old child blame the child for their problems. A structural family therapist would view this as an example of which of the following?
A. detouring
B. emotional triangle
C. unstable coalition
D. stable coalition

Answer 20

A. detouring

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. Detouring occurs when parents avoid dealing with their own conflicts by focusing on their child and either overprotecting the child or blaming the child for their problems.

Question 21

When administering the Rorschach, the purpose of the inquiry phase is to:
A. encourage the client to free associate to the inkblots.
B. encourage the client to provide more detail when responding to the inkblots.
C. obtain the information needed to accurately code the examinee’s responses.
D. develop hypotheses about the examinee’s responses.

Answer 21

C. obtain the information needed to accurately code the examinee’s responses.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-04 Answer C is correct. Administration of the Rorschach ordinarily involves two phases: the free association (response) phase and the inquiry phase. During the inquiry phase, the examiner questions the examinee about what parts of the inkblot determined the examinee’s responses to obtain the information needed to code his/her responses.

Question 22

Seller et al.’s (1998) multidimensional model of racial identity predicts that racial salience is affected by:
A. the current situation and racial centrality.
B. the current situation and racial regard.
C. self-appraisal and racial centrality.
D. self-appraisal and racial regard.

Answer 22

A. the current situation and racial centrality.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-124 Answer A is correct. The multidimensional model of racial identity proposes that there are four dimensions of African American identity: salience, centrality, regard, and ideology. Racial salience is affected by the nature of the person’s current situation and the centrality of race for the person (i.e., the degree to which race defines the person’s identity). For example, being the only African American student in a college classroom is more likely to increase the salience of race for the student when race is central to the student’s identity than when it is not central.

Question 23

Data released by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) indicate that, in 2020, the suicide rate was highest for:
A. men 45 to 64 years of age.
B. women 45 to 64 years of age.
C. men 75 years of age and older.
D. women 75 years of age and older.

Answer 23

C. men 75 years of age and older.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-12 Answer C is correct. CDC data for 2000 through 2020 (Garnett, Curtin, & Stone, 2022) indicate that suicide rates have been consistently higher for males than for females. With regard to age, in 2020, the highest rate for males was for those 75 years of age and older (40.5 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people), while the highest rate for females was for those ages 45 to 64 years of age (7.9 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people).

Question 24

Which aspect of an item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates the probability of choosing the correct answer to the item by guessing alone?
A. the position of the curve
B. the slope of the curve
C. the point at which the curve intercepts the x-axis
D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis

Answer 24

D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. The various item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on either one, two, or three parameters, with the three parameters being item difficulty, item discrimination, and the probability of guessing correctly. The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the y-axis.

Question 25

According to Piaget, children begin to be able to observe another child perform a complex action and then imitate that action for the first time on the following day when they’re between ________ months of age. A. 8 and 12 B. 12 and 18 C. 18 and 24 D. 24 and 30

Answer 25

C. 18 and 24 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-10 Answer C is correct. The ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present is referred to as deferred imitation. According to Piaget, deferred imitation doesn’t occur until the infant can form enduring mental representations, which happens during the final substage (substage six) of the sensorimotor stage when children are between 18 and 24 months of age.

Question 26

With regard to the transtheoretical model, self-reevaluation is most useful for helping clients transition from the: A. precontemplation to the contemplation stage. B. contemplation to the preparation stage. C. preparation to the engagement stage. D. action to the maintenance stage.

Answer 26

B. contemplation to the preparation stage. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-09 Answer B is correct. Self-reevaluation is useful strategy for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because it helps them transition to the next stage – i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages of change identified by the transtheoretical model.

Question 27

Beginning in early adolescence, the rate of major depressive disorder for females is about ________ times the rate for boys. A. .75 to 1.5 B. 1.0 to 2.0 C. 1.5 to 3.0 D. 2.5 to 4.5

Answer 27

C. 1.5 to 3.0 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-10 Answer C is correct. Prior to adolescence, the rates of major depressive disorder are about equal for males and females but, starting in early adolescence, the rate for females increases, with adolescent and adult females having a rate of 1.5 to 3.0 times the rate for males.

Question 28

Dr. Lansky returned to school when she was 48 years old to obtain a Psy.D. in clinical psychology. She already had a Ph.D. in business administration and, now that she’s a licensed psychologist, decides to list both doctoral degrees in her business card and advertisements for her clinical practice. This is: A. acceptable. B. acceptable only if she indicates that her Ph.D. is in business administration. C. unacceptable only if one or both degrees are not from an accredited educational institution. D. unacceptable.

Answer 28

D. unacceptable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-13 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.01(c) states that psychologists can claim as credentials for their health services only degrees that “were earned from a regionally accredited educational institution or … were the basis for psychology licensure.” In other words, the psychologist should not include her Ph.D. in business administration in her business card or advertisements since that degree was not used as a credential for her health services.

Question 29

Hyperactivity in the __________ has been linked to the symptoms of hypervigilance and hyperarousal associated with PTSD. A. hypothalamus B. amygdala C. caudate nucleus D. reticular activating system

Answer 29

B. amygdala EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-04 Answer B is correct. Hyperactivity in the amygdala has been linked to PTSD, although there’s some evidence that this is true only for certain symptoms including hypervigilance and hyperarousal. See, e.g., G. L. Forster, R. M. Simons, and L. A. Baugh, Revising the role of the amygdala in posttraumatic stress disorder, in B. Ferry (Ed.), The amygdala – Where emotions shape perception, learning and memories (pp. 113-136), 2017, doi: 10.5772/67585.

Question 30

Which of the following neuroimaging techniques is used to study abnormalities in the brain’s white matter? A. electroencephalography B. computerized axial tomography C. positron emission tomography D. diffusion tensor imaging

Answer 30

D. diffusion tensor imaging EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-63 Answer D is correct. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is a special application of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that is used to detect abnormalities in the brain’s white matter, which consists of myelinated axons that connect different areas of the brain. It does this by identifying the rate and direction of the movement of water molecules along the axons.

Question 31

The initial stage in Troiden’s (1989) homosexual identity development model is: A. conformity. B. sensitization. C. confusion. D. dissonance.

Answer 31

B. sensitization. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-28 Answer B is correct. In order, the four stages of Troiden’s homosexual identity development model are sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, and commitment [R. R. Troiden, Homosexual identity development, Journal of Adolescent Health Care, 9(2), 105-113, 1989].

Question 32

The use of cue exposure treatment (CET) for alcohol use disorder often combines exposure to cues that are associated with alcohol with: A. individual insight-oriented therapy. B. couple or family therapy. C. contingency contracting. D. coping skills training.

Answer 32

D. coping skills training. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-04 Answer D is correct. CET is a type of exposure therapy that’s used to treat substance use disorders and involves exposing a patient to cues associated with the problem behavior while prohibiting him/her from engaging in that behavior. It’s effective for many patients when used alone, but there’s evidence that its effectiveness increases when it’s combined with coping skills training. See, e.g., M. D. Spiegler, Contemporary behavior therapy (6th ed.), Boston, Cengage Learning, 2016.

Question 33

Kirkpatrick (1998) distinguished between four levels of training program evaluation and proposed that which of the following is the most informative level? A. learning B. reaction C. behavior D. results

Answer 33

D. results EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-12 Answer D is correct. Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that are arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction, learning, behavior, and results.

Question 34

A supervisor’s knowledge of how well employees did on the selection measures that were used to hire them affects how the supervisor subsequently rates each employee on measures of job performance. This is an example of which of the following? A. the halo error B. the contrast error C. criterion deficiency D. criterion contamination

Answer 34

D. criterion contamination EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer D is correct. Criterion contamination occurs when a performance (criterion) measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance – for example, when a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are biased by the supervisor’s knowledge of how well employees did on the predictors that were used to hire them.

Question 35

Research has found that the majority of individuals who undergo gender confirmation surgery: A. experience an increase in symptoms of gender dysphoria following surgery. B. continue to experience significant symptoms of gender dysphoria following surgery. C. experience a significant decrease in symptoms of gender dysphoria with transgender male patients experiencing somewhat better outcomes. D. experience a significant decrease in symptoms of gender dysphoria with transgender female patients experiencing somewhat better outcomes.

Answer 35

C. experience a significant decrease in symptoms of gender dysphoria with transgender male patients experiencing somewhat better outcomes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-22 Answer C is correct. The research has generally found that gender confirmation surgery is associated with a decrease in gender dysphoria, high levels of satisfaction, and a low incidence of regret. In addition, there’s some evidence that transgender male patients have somewhat more positive outcomes than transgender female patients do. See, e.g., A. Lawrence, Sex reassignment surgery, in A. Wenzel (Ed.), The SAGE encyclopedia of abnormal and clinical psychology, New York, SAGE, 2017.

Question 36

Which of the following is based on the results of research that used the method of magnitude estimation to study the relationship between the magnitude of a physical stimulus and its perceived magnitude? A. Weber’s law B. Stevens’s law C. Fechner’s law D. Eysenck’s law

Answer 36

B. Stevens’s law EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Sensation and Perception-14 Answer B is correct. Stevens’s method of magnitude estimation involved providing subjects with a specific value for the magnitude of one stimulus and asking them to use that value as a reference point when estimating the magnitude of other stimuli. The results of his research led to the development of Stevens’s power law which predicts that there’s an exponential relationship between the magnitude of a physical stimulus and its perceived magnitude, with the exponent varying for different types of stimuli.

Question 37

A member of an ethnic minority group rejects the values, beliefs, and cultural practices of both her own minority group and the dominant (majority) group. According to Berry (2003), this person has adopted which of the following acculturation strategies? A. marginalization B. separation C. exclusion D. disjunction

Answer 37

A. marginalization EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-24 Answer A is correct. J. W. Berry’s acculturation model distinguishes between four acculturation strategies based on whether a member of a minority group accepts or rejects his/her own culture and the culture of the dominant (majority) group: integration, assimilation, separation, and marginalization. A person has adopted a marginalization strategy when the person rejects his/her own minority culture and the culture of the dominant group [Conceptual approaches to acculturation, in K. M. Chun, P. Organista, and G. Main (Eds.), Acculturation: Advances in theory, measurement, and applied research (pp. 17-37), Washington, DC, American Psychological Association, 2003].

Question 38

To determine which combination of health-related predictors (e.g., exercise, diet, stress) best predicts which combination of health-related outcomes (e.g., physical fitness, emotional adjustment, quality of life), you would use which of the following? A. multiple regression B. logistic regression C. canonical correlation D. discriminant function analysis

Answer 38

C. canonical correlation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Correlation and Regression-09 Answer C is correct. Canonical correlation is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more predictors will be used to estimate status on two or more criteria.

Question 39

A supervisor tells you that the low job motivation of one of her newly hired supervisees is affecting his job performance, and she asks your advice about the best management style when working with him. As an advocate of ______________, you question the supervisor about some of the characteristics of the supervisee and his job tasks and, based on her answers, recommend that she adopt a supportive style with this supervisee. A. Fiedler’s contingency theory B. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory C. House’s path-goal theory D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 39

C. House’s path-goal theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Leadership-19 Answer C is correct. According to House’s (1971) path-goal theory, an effective leader adopts the style (directive, achievement-oriented, supportive, or participative) that best fits certain characteristics of the employee and the employee’s tasks.

Question 40

Research on the synchrony effect has found that: A. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon. B. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning. C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults. D. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning, while the reverse is true for younger adults.

Answer 40

C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-13 Answer C is correct. The synchrony effect refers to the benefits of matching task demands and the preferred (optimal) time of day, and research has found that the preferred time differs for older and younger adults: Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that involve ignoring distractions or irrelevant information) in the morning, while younger adults often do better on the same tasks in the late afternoon or evening. Apparently, the synchrony effect is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms and peak times of arousal. See, e.g., C. P. May and L. Hasher, Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action, Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 24(2), 363-379, 1998.

Question 41

Gorchoff, John, and Helson (2008) studied the marital satisfaction of women over an 18-year period and found that women reported: A. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a decrease in the quality of the time they spent with their husbands. B. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a combination of the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands and the decreased quality of that time. C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands. D. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands.

Answer 41

C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-25 Answer C is correct. S. M. Gorchoff, O. P. John, and R. Helson found that the “empty nest” was associated with an increase in marital satisfaction for the women in their study and that the increase was due primarily to an increase in the quality (but not the quantity) of the time they spent with their husbands [Contextualizing change in marital satisfaction during middle age: An 18-year longitudinal study, Psychological Science, 19(11), 1194-1200, 2008].

Question 42

The __________ dopamine pathway plays an important role in the rewarding effects of drugs of abuse and drug addiction. A. nigrostriatal B. mesocortical C. tuberoinfundibular D. mesolimbic

Answer 42

D. mesolimbic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-12 Answer D is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is also known as the brain’s reward pathway. Elevated activity in this pathway is responsible for the reinforcing (addictive) effects of cocaine, heroin, and other drugs of abuse that increase dopamine levels.

Question 43

Soon after the death of his best friend, a 36-year-old man began having decreased visual acuity in both eyes. Physical and neurological exams and laboratory tests have found no explanation for his vision loss and his symptoms are not compatible with any known medical or neurological condition. There’s no indication that he’s faking or has induced his symptoms. The most likely diagnosis for this man is which of the following? A. somatic symptom disorder B. conversion disorder C. acute stress disorder D. factitious disorder

Answer 43

B. conversion disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-17 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of conversion disorder requires the presence of at least one symptom that involves an alteration in sensory or motor functioning which is not compatible with any known neurological or medical condition. Note that factitious disorder can be ruled out because its diagnosis requires evidence that symptoms are being falsified or induced.

Question 44

An advantage of conducting a single one-way ANOVA rather than separate t-tests when a study includes one independent variable with three or more levels is that the ANOVA: A. provides information on both main and interaction effects. B. controls the experimentwise error rate. C. reduces the effects of measurement error. D. controls the effects of an extraneous variable.

Answer 44

B. controls the experimentwise error rate. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer B is correct. The experimentwise error rate is the probability of making a Type I error when multiple statistical comparisons are made within a single research study. If an independent variable has three or more levels, several t-tests would have to be conducted because the t-test compares only two means at a time, and this would increase the experimentwise error rate. When using the one-way ANOVA, all possible comparisons between means are made in a way that maintains the experimentwise error rate at the alpha level set by the researcher.

Question 45

Research has found that culturally competent interventions for members of racial and ethnic minority groups are: A. no more effective than traditional interventions for children, adolescents, or adults. B. more effective than traditional interventions for children and adolescents but not necessarily for adults. C. more effective than traditional interventions for adults but not necessarily for children and adolescents. D. more effective than traditional interventions and equally effective for children, adolescents, and adults.

Answer 45

C. more effective than traditional interventions for adults but not necessarily for children and adolescents. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-26 Answer C is correct. Based on their review of the literature, S. Sue, N. Zane, G. C. Nagayama Hall, and L. K. Berger conclude that “the preponderance of evidence shows that culturally adapted interventions provide benefit to intervention outcomes … [but] this added value is more apparent in the research on adults than on children and youths” (The case for cultural competency in psychotherapeutic interventions, Annual Review of Psychology, 60, 525-548, 2009).

Question 46

With regard to systems theory, positive feedback is: A. equality based. B. inequality based. C. deviation amplifying. D. deviation counteracting.

Answer 46

C. deviation amplifying. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-10 Answer C is correct. Positive feedback amplifies deviation from the status quo and promotes change, while negative feedback counteracts (attenuates) deviation and maintains the status quo.

Question 47

In a positively skewed distribution of scores, the __________ has the lowest value and the __________ has the highest value. A. mode; mean B. mean; mode C. median; mean D. mean; median

Answer 47

A. mode; mean EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores “piled up” in one side of the distribution and a few scores in the tail on the opposite side: In a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution); in a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution) – i.e., the “tail with the few scores tells the tale.” In both types of skewed distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean has the highest value, the median has the middle value, and the mode has the lowest value.

Question 48

When a psychology student uses the phrase, “on old Olympus towering top, a Finn and German viewed some hops” is a(n) __________ to remember the 12 cranial nerves (olfactory, optic, oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, auditory, glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, and hypoglossal), the student is using which of the following techniques? A. acrostic B. acronym C. pegword method D. keyword method

Answer 48

A. acrostic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-14 Answer A is correct. When using an acrostic to memorize information, a phrase or sentence consisting of familiar words is created, with each word beginning with the first letter of one of the words to be memorized.

Question 49

The WPPSI-IV is appropriate for examinees ages: A. 2:6 to 3:11. B. 2:6 to 7:7. C. 3:0 to 7:7. D. 4:0 to 8:6.

Answer 49

B. 2:6 to 7:7. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-07 Answer B is correct. The WPPSI-IV (Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 4th Edition) is appropriate for examinees ages 2:6 to 7:7.

Question 50

A factor matrix indicates that one of the tests included in the factor analysis has a factor loading of .30 for Factor I. This means that ____ of variability in test scores is explained by Factor I. A. 81% B. 70% C. 30% D. 9%

Answer 50

D. 9% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-07 Answer D is correct. A factor loading is the correlation between a test and an identified factor and can be interpreted by squaring it to obtain a measure of shared variability. When a factor loading is .30, this means that 9% (.30 squared) of variability in the test is shared with (explained by) variability in the factor.

Question 51

Memory impairment associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has been linked to damage to which of the following areas of the brain? A. hypothalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus B. hypothalamus and cingulate gyrus C. thalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

Answer 51

D. thalamus and mammillary bodies EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-02 Answer D is correct. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has been linked to a thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency that’s usually caused by the long-term abuse of alcohol. The amnesia associated with this disorder is due to damage to the thalamus and mammillary bodies.

Question 52

Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for requiring students to disclose personal information in course- or program-related activities about any psychological treatment they’ve received in the past? A. Requiring students to do so is prohibited under any circumstances. B. Requiring students to do so is acceptable as long as their confidentiality is maintained. C. Requiring students to do so is acceptable only when they’re seeking therapy from a therapist employed by the school. D. Requiring students to do so is acceptable when doing so is clearly identified as a requirement in program and admissions materials.

Answer 52

D. Requiring students to do so is acceptable when doing so is clearly identified as a requirement in program and admissions materials. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-19 Answer D is correct. This issue is addressed in Standard 7.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Standard I and Standard I.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.04 states that students should not be required to disclose personal information in course- or program-related activities related to psychological treatment except in two circumstances: (a) this requirement has been clearly identified in program and admissions materials or (b) the information is needed to “evaluate or obtain assistance for students whose personal problems could reasonably be judged to be preventing them from performing their training- or professionally related activities in a competent manner or posing a threat to the student or others.”

Question 53

__________ interventions are designed to change the individual so he or she can better adapt to the demands of the environment. A. Autoplastic B. Alloplastic C. Emic D. Etic

Answer 53

A. Autoplastic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-23 Answer A is correct. Autoplastic interventions involve making changes in the individual so he/she can successfully adapt to the environment, while alloplastic interventions involve altering the environment to fit the needs, desires, or other attributes of the individual. Note that interventions that reflect an emic or etic perspective can be either autoplastic or alloplastic – i.e., an intervention that reflects either perspective could involve encouraging the individual to change him/herself or to change his/her situation or environment.

Question 54

Which of the following is most likely to be an effective treatment for neuropathic pain? A. phenelzine B. amitriptyline C. clozapine D. risperidone

Answer 54

B. amitriptyline EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-23 Answer B is correct. The tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline, nortriptyline) are considered to be the first-line treatment for neuropathic pain. See, e.g., E. M. Aronoff, Medication management of chronic pain: What you need to know, Victoria, Canada, Trafford Publishing, 2017.

Question 55

An organizational psychologist is hired by the manager of a small software company to help him find ways to motivate programmers who have the skills to do their jobs but are not as productive as the manager would like them to be. This situation is an example of which of the following types of consultation? A. client-centered case consultation B. consultee-centered case consultation C. program-centered administrative consultation D. consultee-centered administrative consultation

Answer 55

B. consultee-centered case consultation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-21 Answer B is correct. In this situation, the focus of the consultation is on the consultee (the manager), and the psychologist will be providing the manager with education or training to help him/her identify ways to increase the motivation of a group of employees. Therefore, this is an example of consultee-centered case consultation.

Question 56

Research has found that homosexual men are more likely than heterosexual men to have a later birth order and one or more: A. older sisters. B. older brothers. C. younger sisters. D. younger brothers.

Answer 56

B. older brothers. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-177 Answer B is correct. R. Blanchard and A. F. Bogaert found that the likelihood that a boy would be gay increases for each older brother born to the same mother, and this is referred to as the fraternal birth order effect [Homosexuality in men and number of older brothers, American Journal of Psychiatry, 153, 27-31, 1996]. Their findings were subsequently confirmed by a number of other studies, and a biological explanation for the effects of older brothers on sexual orientation has been proposed.

Question 57

Implosive therapy combines: A. in vivo exposure and reciprocal inhibition. B. in vivo exposure and cognitive restructuring. C. exposure in imagination and psychodynamic techniques. D. exposure in imagination and stimulus generalization.

Answer 57

C. exposure in imagination and psychodynamic techniques. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-03 Answer C is correct. When using implosive therapy, the client imagines the feared object or situation and the therapist embellishes the imagined scene with psychodynamic themes (e.g., aggression, guilt, or sexuality).

Question 58

As described by Ghahramanlou-Holloway, Neely, and Tucker (2014), a primary goal of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) for preventing suicide is to: A. reduce ambivalence about suicide. B. identify and target suicidal “drivers.” C. alleviate client distress. D. deactivate the “suicidal mode.”

Answer 58

D. deactivate the “suicidal mode.” EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-109 Answer D is correct. Ghahramanlou-Holloway et al. note that CBT for preventing suicide is based on Beck’s notion of the suicidal mode, which is activated by a combination of cognitive, affective, motivational, and behavioral systems and precedes a suicide attempt. Consequently, the primary goals of therapy are to deactivate the suicidal mode and replace the structure and content of the suicidal mode with a more adaptive mode that promotes the desire to live. [M. Ghahramanlou-Holloway, L. L. Neely, and J. Tucker, A cognitive-behavioral strategy for preventing suicide, Current Psychiatry, 13 (8), 19-28]

Question 59

A person with damage to his/her right (non-dominant) hemisphere as the result of a traumatic brain injury is most likely to exhibit which of the following? A. a catastrophic reaction B. an indifference reaction C. ideational apraxia D. ideomotor apraxia

Answer 59

B. an indifference reaction EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Emotions and Stress-18 Answer B is correct. People with damage to the certain areas of the right (non-dominant) hemisphere are likely to exhibit an indifference reaction. For example, they’re likely to deny or minimize their impairments and disabilities. In contrast, people with damage to the left (dominant) hemisphere are more likely to exhibit a catastrophic reaction and exaggerate and be oversensitive to their impairments and disabilities. (Ideational apraxia and ideomotor apraxia are both usually the result of left hemisphere damage.)

Question 60

The use of participant observation to study a cultural group is most associated with which of the following approaches to qualitative research? A. grounded theory B. thematic analysis C. ethnography D. phenomenology

Answer 60

C. ethnography EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-06 Answer C is correct. Participant observation is the primary method of data collection for ethnographic research and involves joining a cultural group and participating in its usual activities.

Question 61

According to the DSM-5, _____ of women experience a major depressive episode during pregnancy or during the weeks or months after delivery and, of these episodes, about _____ begin before delivery. A. 3 to 6%; 25% B. 3 to 6%; 50% C. 8 to 12%; 25% D. 8 to 12%; 50%

Answer 61

B. 3 to 6%; 50% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-09 Answer B is correct. Estimates of postpartum depression (major depressive disorder with peripartum onset in the DSM-5) vary somewhat. However, this question is asking specifically about estimates provided in the DSM-5, which states that “between 3% and 6% of women will experience the onset of a major depressive episode during pregnancy or in the weeks or months following delivery … [with 50% of episodes beginning] prior to delivery” (American Psychiatric Association, 2013, p. 186).

Question 62

Areas of the cerebral cortex involved in the planning and execution of movement send excitatory signals to the: A. striatum. B. reticular formation. C. arcuate fasciculus. D. cingulate gyrus.

Answer 62

A. striatum. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-03 Answer A is correct. The striatum consists of the caudate nucleus and putamen. Knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that the basal ganglia facilitate voluntary movement would have allowed you to identify the striatum as the correct answer to this question.

Question 63

__________ facilitates movement by stimulating the muscles to contract. A. Norepinephrine B. Glutamate C. Acetylcholine D. GABA

Answer 63

C. Acetylcholine EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-11 Answer C is correct. Acetylcholine (ACh) is present in all motor neurons, causes muscles to contract, and is involved in the production of muscle movements.

Question 64

For patients who meet the diagnostic criteria for a diagnosis of schizophrenia, the best prognosis is associated with which of the following? A. male gender, an early onset of symptoms, and comorbid mood symptoms B. male gender, a late onset of symptoms, and predominantly negative symptoms C. female gender, a late onset of symptoms, and comorbid mood symptoms D. female gender, an early onset of symptoms, and predominantly negative symptoms

Answer 64

C. female gender, a late onset of symptoms, and comorbid mood symptoms EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-07 Answer C is correct. A better prognosis for schizophrenia is associated with female gender, an acute and late onset of symptoms, comorbid mood symptoms (especially depressive symptoms), predominantly positive symptoms, precipitating factors, a family history of a mood disorder, and good premorbid adjustment. See, e.g., B. J. Sadock and V. A. Sadock, Kaplan and Sadock’s synopses of psychiatry: Behavioral sciences/clinical psychiatry (10th ed.), Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007.

Question 65

An undergraduate student is writing a paper on Taylor’s scientific management for her organizational psychology class. Assuming that the student understands the major assumptions of this approach, she’s likely to note in her paper that Taylor believed that worker motivation is most affected by which of the following? A. desire for economic gain B. desire for satisfying social relationships C. prepotent needs D. fear of punishment

Answer 65

A. desire for economic gain EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Theories-15 Answer A is correct. Taylor (1911) believed economic gain is a worker’s primary motivation and advocated using a differential piece-rate system that directly links pay to productivity.

Question 66

A psychology graduate student repeatedly presents a tone just prior to presenting food to a hungry dog. After the dog is salivating in response to the tone when it’s presented alone, the student repeatedly presents the tone and a blinking light together just before presenting food. Regardless of how many times she presents the tone and blinking light together before presenting the food, the dog never salivates in response to the blinking light when it’s presented alone. This phenomenon is referred to as: A. overshadowing. B. blocking. C. stimulus discrimination. D. fading.

Answer 66

B. blocking. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Classical Conditioning-02 Answer B is correct. Blocking occurs when a conditioned stimulus is simultaneously presented with a new neutral stimulus before presenting the unconditioned stimulus. In this situation, the new neutral stimulus will not become a conditioned stimulus and will not elicit a conditioned response when presented alone. This occurs because classical conditioning of the first neutral (conditioned) stimulus blocks classical conditioning of the second neutral stimulus, apparently because the second neutral stimulus does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus.

Question 67

Howard and his colleagues (1986) have developed a phase model that predicts that client improvement during the first few sessions of therapy is usually due to: A. a placebo effect. B. initial insight into the cause of his/her problems. C. the development of the therapeutic relationship. D. increased feelings of hopefulness.

Answer 67

D. increased feelings of hopefulness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-22 Answer D is correct. According to K. I. Howard and his colleagues, improvement in therapy occurs in three phases – remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few sessions and is characterized by an increase in hopefulness and sense of well-being [Evaluation of psychotherapy: Efficacy, effectiveness, and patient progress. American Psychologist, 51(10), 1059-106, 1986].

Question 68

Of the three types of microaggression described by Sue and his colleagues (2007), __________ is most similar to “old-fashioned” racism. A. microinvalidation B. microinsult C. microassault D. microinjustice

Answer 68

C. microassault EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-25 Answer C is correct. D. W. Sue and his colleagues distinguish between three types of microaggression: microinvalidation, microinsult, and microassault. They state that microassaults are closest to “old-fashioned” racism and consist of “an explicit racial derogation characterized by a verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior, or purposeful discriminatory actions” [Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62(4), 271-286, 2007].

Question 69

Dr. Hedges has been seeing Betty in therapy for three months to help her deal with the sudden death of her mother. She’s made progress toward achieving her therapy goals, and they’ve started talking about terminating therapy. During her current session, Betty tells Dr. Hedges that her best friend is going through a divorce and she’d like to refer her to Dr. Hedges for therapy. Dr. Hedges should: A. tell Betty he cannot see her friend in therapy until Betty’s therapy has ended. B. tell Betty he cannot see her friend in therapy and offer to give her friend referrals to other mental health professionals. C. agree to see Betty’s friend in therapy only if he has experience working with clients who are going through a divorce. D. agree to see Betty’s friend in therapy only if he discusses the potential problems with Betty and her friend that could arise because he’s seeing them both in therapy.

Answer 69

B. tell Betty he cannot see her friend in therapy and offer to give her friend referrals to other mental health professionals. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-05 Answer B is correct. Seeing the best friend of a client in therapy would constitute an unacceptable multiple relationship as defined in Standard 3.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics because of the potential adverse effects of doing so. For example, Betty might disclose information about her friend to Dr. Hedges that her friend doesn’t want Dr. Hedges to know.

Question 70

Practitioners of reality therapy would most likely agree that psychological pain is: A. a treatable medical illness. B. the result of unconscious and unresolved conflicts. C. the result of ineffective attempts to satisfy one’s needs. D. an inability to experience the here-and-now in a real and fulfilling way.

Answer 70

C. the result of ineffective attempts to satisfy one’s needs. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-06 Answer C is correct. Reality therapy is based on choice theory, which views depression, anxiety, and other psychological symptoms as the result of choices a person makes in an attempt to satisfy his/her innate needs.

Question 71

As described by Fiedler (1967): A. low LPC leaders are task-oriented, while high LPC leaders are person-oriented. B. low LPC leaders are person-oriented, while high LPC leaders are task-oriented. C. low LPC leaders are high in growth need strength, while high LPC leaders are low in growth need strength. D. low LPC leaders are low in growth need strength, while high LPC leaders are high in growth need strength.

Answer 71

A. low LPC leaders are task-oriented, while high LPC leaders are person-oriented. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Leadership-18 Answer A is correct. Low LPC leaders are task-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in negative terms because they focus on the coworker’s task performance. In contrast, high LPC leaders are person-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in positive terms because they separate interpersonal characteristics from task performance.

Question 72

Data on the rates of alcohol use disorder among first-generation immigrants in the United States indicate that the rate is highest for: A. individuals who emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 10 years. B. individuals who emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 20 years. C. individuals who emigrated as adolescents or adults and have been in the United States for 10 years. D. individuals who emigrated as adolescents or adults and have been in the United States for 25 years.

Answer 72

B. individuals who emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 20 years. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-25 Answer B is correct. Data from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions indicate that the prevalence of alcohol use disorder is highest among native-born Americans, slightly lower among second-generation immigrants, and markedly lower among first-generation immigrants. In addition, among first-generation immigrants, individuals who emigrated to the United States as children have higher rates than those who emigrated as adolescents or adults and, the greater the number of years in the United States, the higher the rate of alcohol use disorder [C. P. Salas-Wright et al., Substance use disorders among first- and second-generation immigrant adults in the United States: Evidence of an immigrant paradox?, Journal of Studies on Alcohol and Drugs, 75(6), 958-967, 2014].

Question 73

Holland (1985) used which of the following terms to describe the extent to which a person’s personality is clearly defined with regard to the six personality types. A. congruence B. differentiation C. integration D. satisfactoriness

Answer 73

B. differentiation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Career Choice and Development-13 Answer B is correct. Holland proposed that a personality/work environment match is most predictive of job outcomes when the person’s score profile on the Self-Directed Search has a high degree of differentiation – that is, when the person scores high on one personality type and low on the other five types.

Question 74

An Impairment Index score of _____ or above on the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery (HRNB) is usually indicative of brain damage. A. 0 to .5 B. .4 to .5 C. 1.0 D. 6.0 to 7.0

Answer 74

B. .4 to .5 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Clinical Tests-09 Answer B is correct. The Halstead-Reitan Impairment Index indicates the proportion of subtests that show evidence of brain damage and ranges from 0 to 1.0. The recommended cutoff score for brain damage depends on the individual’s IQ: For those with an IQ of 100 or higher, the cutoff score is .4; for those with an IQ less than 100, the cutoff is .5. See, e.g., A. M. Horton, The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery: Past, present, and future, A. M. Horton and D. Wedding (Eds.), The neuropsychology handbook (3rd ed., pp. 251-278), New York, Springer Publishing Company, 2008.

Question 75

Which of the following is true about the prescription and tapering of benzodiazepines for older adults? A. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow. B. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be rapid. C. Benzodiazepines that have a longer half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow. D. Benzodiazepines that have a longer half-life are preferred, and tapering should be rapid.

Answer 75

A. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-54 Answer A is correct. Increasing age increases the half-life of the benzodiazepines and, consequently, benzodiazepines with a shorter half-life are recommended for older adults. In addition, a slow taper of the drugs over several months is recommended to reduce the risk for and severity of withdrawal symptoms, with the tapering schedule depending on the initial drug dose and duration of treatment.

Question 76

Which of the following describes ethical requirements regarding a psychologist’s use of deception in a research study? A. Psychologists may use deception in the “most unusual circumstances” and when participants are not deceived about anything that would otherwise cause them to refuse to participate. B. Psychologists may use deception when it’s justified by the study’s prospective value and participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time. C. Psychologists may use deception when alternative procedures are unavailable and participants are debriefed about the true purpose of the study immediately after their participation. D. Psychologists may use deception in the “most unusual circumstances” and when participants are debriefed about the true purpose of the study immediately after their participation.

Answer 76

B. Psychologists may use deception when it’s justified by the study’s prospective value and participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-21 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards III.23, III.24, and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07 states that psychologists should not use deception unless it’s justified by the prospective value of the study, alternative procedures are unavailable, participants are debriefed about the true nature of the study as early as is feasible (which may or may not be immediately after participation), and participants are allowed to withdraw their data from the study.

Question 77

Piaget’s stage theory of cognitive development views development as being: A. continuous and active. B. discontinuous and active. C. continuous and passive. D. discontinuous and passive.

Answer 77

B. discontinuous and active. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-181 Answer B is correct. Piaget’s theory proposes discontinuous stages of cognitive development that are characterized by qualitatively different cognitive processes. His theory also proposes that development is an active process in which children interact with the world to construct their own knowledge.

Question 78

Without rehearsal, information remains in short-term memory for about: A. one-half to one second. B. 20 to 30 seconds. C. 30 to 60 seconds. D. two or three minutes.

Answer 78

B. 20 to 30 seconds. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-11 Answer B is correct. Estimates for the maintenance of information in short-term memory vary somewhat, but most experts report a maximum duration of 20 to 30 seconds without rehearsal of the information.

Question 79

After a mother tells her son to stop teasing his sister, the boy not only teases his sister more often but also starts teasing his sister’s best friend. The boy’s reaction to his mother’s request is best explained by which of the following? A. insufficient deterrence B. deindividuation C. psychological reactance D. normative influence

Answer 79

C. psychological reactance EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-10 Answer C is correct. Psychological reactance occurs when people feel that pressure to behave in a particular way threatens their personal freedom and they respond in ways to regain that freedom. One response is to do the opposite of what has been requested.

Question 80

A test’s __________ refers to its ability to correctly identify individuals who are true negatives. A. sensitivity B. specificity C. positive predictive value D. negative predictive value

Answer 80

B. specificity EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. Determining a test’s sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value are one way of evaluating its validity. A test’s specificity refers to its ability to accurately identify people who do not have disorder or other attribute the test was designed to identify. It’s calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives.

Question 81

As described by Irvin Yalom (1985), the third formative stage of group psychotherapy is characterized by: A. advice seeking and giving. B. the development of cohesiveness. C. hostility toward the therapist. D. escalating conflict and competition.

Answer 81

B. the development of cohesiveness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-14 Answer B is correct. According to Yalom, the formative stage of group therapy consists of three phases: (1) orientation, hesitant participation, search for meaning, and dependency; (2) conflict, dominance, and rebellion; and (3) development of cohesiveness.

Question 82

Dr. Sholen has trained a psychology intern to administer and score several psychological tests that she frequently administers to clients who have been referred to her for psychological assessment. Dr. Sholen always interprets the clients’ scores and, when preparing the psychological reports for clients who have taken these tests, she doesn’t indicate that they were administered and scored by the intern. This practice is: A. ethical since Dr. Sholen interprets the test scores. B. ethical since Dr. Sholen is ultimately responsible for the information presented in the report. C. unethical since an intern should not be scoring psychological tests. D. unethical since the intern should be identified as the person who administered and scored the tests.

Answer 82

D. unethical since the intern should be identified as the person who administered and scored the tests. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-11 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 5.01(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards III.1, III.5, and III.22 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. The intern may, in fact, be qualified to administer and score the tests (answer C). However, not indicating that the intern did so in the psychological reports violates the prohibition against providing inaccurate or deceptive statements about a psychologist’s professional services.

Question 83

Consensual observer drift __________ a measure’s inter-rater reliability. A. tends to artificially increase B. tends to artificially decrease C. either artificially increases or decreases D. neither artificially increases nor decreases

Answer 83

A. tends to artificially increase EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-03 Answer A is correct. Consensual observer drift occurs when two or more raters communicate with each other while they’re assigning ratings. It causes increased consistency (but often decreased accuracy) of their ratings and overestimates a measure’s actual inter-rater reliability.

Question 84

Which of the following distinguishes between the anticipation and implementation phases of career decision-making? A. Tiedeman’s career decision-making model B. Krumboltz’s social learning theory of career decision-making C. Brousseau and Driver’s career concept model D. Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment

Answer 84

A. Tiedeman’s career decision-making model EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Career Choice and Development-14 Answer A is correct. Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) model distinguishes between two phases of career decision-making: The initial anticipation phase includes the exploration, crystallization, choice, and clarification stages. The subsequent implementation phase includes the induction, reformation, and integration stages.

Question 85

Components of a program logic model ordinarily include all of the following except: A. resources. B. solutions. C. activities. D. outputs.

Answer 85

B. solutions. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-74 Answer B is correct. A program logic model is a visual representation of a program’s components and is used to assist with the development, implementation, and evaluation of the program. Although the components may vary, resources, activities, and outputs are common components. Solutions is not identified in the literature as a component of logic models.

Question 86

A high school senior ignores his own career and college preferences and decides to pursue the career his father wants him to pursue and attend the college his father wants him to attend. For practitioners of Gestalt therapy, this is best explained by which of the following? A. retroflection B. deflection C. introjection D. deindividuation

Answer 86

C. introjection EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-05 Answer C is correct. For Gestalt therapists, introjection is a boundary disturbance that occurs when a person adopts the beliefs, standards, and values of others without question or evaluation – for example, when a son pursues the career his father chose for him.

Question 87

Avoidance conditioning is an example of two-factor learning and combines: A. classical conditioning and negative reinforcement. B. classical conditioning and positive reinforcement. C. negative reinforcement and classical extinction. D. positive reinforcement and classical extinction.

Answer 87

A. classical conditioning and negative reinforcement. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Operant Conditioning-06 Answer A is correct. Avoidance conditioning is the result of two-factor learning and occurs when a neutral stimulus and a fear-arousing stimulus (the unconditioned stimulus) are presented together so that the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus and signals that the fear-arousing stimulus is about to be applied. The individual then learns that he/she can avoid the fear-arousing stimulus by engaging in an avoidance behavior as soon as the conditioned stimulus is presented. The pairing of the neutral stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning component of avoidance conditioning, and engaging in the avoidance behavior to keep from experiencing fear is the negative reinforcement component.

Question 88

For practitioners of narrative family therapy, a(n) __________ is a time when a problem was expected to occur but did not occur. A. paradox B. counterparadox C. unique outcome D. open space

Answer 88

C. unique outcome EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-13 Answer C is correct. Unique outcomes in narrative therapy are exceptions to the family’s dominant story and are times when a problem didn’t occur or when the family had control over it.

Question 89

Control, commitment, and challenge have been identified as the “3 C’s” of: A. self-efficacy. B. organization-based self-esteem. C. survivor syndrome. D. hardiness.

Answer 89

D. hardiness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer D is correct. As described by Kobasa (1982), hardy individuals have a sense of control over their own lives, a sense of commitment to family and work, and a tendency to view new experiences as challenges rather than threats.

Question 90

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) provides scores on five cognitive factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors? A. Fluid Reasoning B. Knowledge C. Working Memory D. Abstract Reasoning

Answer 90

D. Abstract Reasoning EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-05 Answer D is correct. The SB5 provides scores on the following five factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory.

Question 91

About _____ of patients with Parkinson’s disease experience depression, which ____________________. A. 50%; always has an onset after the emergence of motor symptoms B. 50%; has an onset prior to the development of motor symptoms for some patients C. 85%; always has an onset after the emergence of motor symptoms D. 85%; has an onset prior to the development of motor symptoms for some patients

Answer 91

B. 50%; has an onset prior to the development of motor symptoms for some patients EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-20 Answer B is correct. About 50% of patients with Parkinson’s disease experience depression at some time during the course of the disease, with depressive symptoms preceding motor symptoms for some patients. See, e.g., M. J. Mentis and D. Delalot, Depression in Parkinson’s disease, in K. E. Anderson, W. J. Weiner, and A. E. Lang (Eds.), Advances in neurology, volume 96: Behavioral neurology of movement disorders (2nd ed., pp. 26-41), Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkens, 2005.

Question 92

A problem with the forced distribution method of performance assessment is that: A. the scoring and interpretation of the performance categories are complicated and time-consuming. B. the prespecified performance categories may not match the actual performance of employees. C. it provides information on extreme (rather than typical) job-related behaviors. D. it’s very susceptible to central tendency, leniency, and strictness rater biases.

Answer 92

B. the prespecified performance categories may not match the actual performance of employees. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-03 Answer B is correct. The forced distribution method requires the rater to assign a certain percent of employees to prespecified performance categories for each performance dimension. It helps alleviate rater biases, but it provides inaccurate information when the performance of the employees does not match those categories.

Question 93

After watching a 15-minute infomercial for a diet program that includes packaged meals and motivational CDs, a viewer bought the program because she thought the spokesperson (a well-known TV celebrity) was credible and attractive and watching the infomercial put her in a good mood. According to the elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981): A. the information presented in the infomercial was in the viewer’s latitude of acceptance. B. the information presented in the infomercial was in the viewer’s latitude of non-commitment. C. the viewer used the peripheral route to process the information presented in the infomercial. D. the viewer used the central route to process the information presented in the infomercial.

Answer 93

C. the viewer used the peripheral route to process the information presented in the infomercial. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-06 Answer C is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, when using the peripheral route, peripheral cues (e.g., the credibility and attractiveness of the person delivering the message) are more influential than the content of the message. In addition, the model predicts that a person is more likely to use the peripheral route when he/she is in a good mood and/or perceives the message to be unimportant.

Question 94

Which of the following includes subtests that evaluate attention, memory, visualization, and reasoning? A. PPVT B. KABC-2 C. Leiter-3 D. Raven’s SPM

Answer 94

C. Leiter-3 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-08 Answer C is correct. The Leiter-3 is a nonverbal measure of fluid intelligence and includes subtests that measure attention, memory, visualization, and reasoning.

Question 95

When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix to assess a test’s construct validity, a large heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates which of the following? A. adequate convergent validity B. inadequate convergent validity C. adequate divergent validity D. inadequate divergent validity

Answer 95

D. inadequate divergent validity EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-06 Answer D is correct. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the test being evaluated and a measure of a different trait (heterotrait) using the same method of measurement (monomethod). For example, if the multitrait-multimethod matrix is being used to assess the construct validity of a self-report measure of assertiveness, a heterotrait-monomethod coefficient might indicate the correlation between the self-report measure of assertiveness and a self-report measure of seriousness. When this coefficient is small, it provides evidence of the test’s divergent validity; when it’s large, it indicates that the test has inadequate divergent validity. (A measure’s construct validity is demonstrated when it has adequate levels of both divergent and convergent validity.)

Question 96

The standard error of measurement is used to: A. estimate the degree to which variability in test scores is due to true score variability. B. estimate the degree to which variability in test scores is due to random error. C. construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s obtained score. D. construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s predicted score.

Answer 96

C. construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s obtained score. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-04 Answer C is correct. The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an obtained score and indicates the range within which an examinee’s true score is likely to fall given his/her obtained score. The standard error of estimate is used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted score (answer D) – i.e., a criterion score that’s predicted from an obtained predictor score.

Question 97

A meta-analysis of research on sex differences in leadership style by Eagly, Johannesen-Schmidt, and van Engen (2003) found that: A. Men and women do not differ in terms of transformational and transactional leadership styles. B. Men tend to be more transformational than women are and more transactional in terms of contingent rewards, while women tend to be more transactional than men are in terms of active and passive management by exception. C. Men tend to be more transactional than women are in terms of active and passive management by exception, while women tend to be more transformational than men are and more transactional in terms of contingent rewards. D. Men tend to be more transactional than women are in terms of contingent rewards, while women tend to be more transactional than men are in terms of active and passive management by exception.

Answer 97

C. Men tend to be more transactional than women are in terms of active and passive management by exception, while women tend to be more transformational than men are and more transactional in terms of contingent rewards. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Leadership-86 Answer C is correct. This is a difficult question because it is asking about a specific meta-analysis. However, even if you’re unfamiliar with that meta-analysis, you would have been able to identify the correct answer as long as you know that research has generally found male and female leadership styles to be consistent with stereotypes – i.e., male leaders tend to be more transactional and female leaders tend to be more transformational. (Management by exception is characteristic of transactional leaders and can be either active or passive: Active management by exception occurs when leaders closely monitor the behaviors of followers and take corrective action when necessary. Passive management by exception occurs when leaders do not closely monitor the behavior of followers and take corrective action only when serious errors have already occurred.)

Question 98

Your new client, 8-year-old Bobbie Beardon, engages in behaviors that meet the diagnostic criteria for oppositional defiant disorder. You’re most likely to consider a co-diagnosis of conduct disorder if he also exhibits which of the following? A. emotional dysregulation B. vindictiveness C. repeated acts of aggression D. refusal to comply with rules at home and at school.

Answer 98

C. repeated acts of aggression EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-23 Answer C is correct. Repeated acts of aggression are more characteristic of conduct disorder than oppositional defiant disorder and, of the behaviors listed in the answers, is the only behavior that would suggest the possibility of comorbid conduct disorder. In contrast, emotional dysregulation (which takes the form of an angry and irritable mood), vindictiveness, and refusing to comply with rules are characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder.

Question 99

For most children, stranger anxiety begins at about _______ months of age. A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 15

Answer 99

B. 8 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer B is correct. The onset of stranger anxiety differs for different children and, as a result, the reported age of onset varies somewhat in the literature. However, most authors report the onset as being between 7 and 9 months or 8 and 10 months.

Question 100

Research investigating the effectiveness of various nonpharmacological treatments for migraine headache has found that: A. temperature biofeedback alone is as effective as temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training. B. relaxation training alone is as effective as temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training. C. temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training is more effective than either temperature biofeedback or relaxation training alone. D. temperature biofeedback alone and relaxation training alone are equally effective and as effective as temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training.

Answer 100

C. temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training is more effective than either temperature biofeedback or relaxation training alone. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-21 Answer C is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results, but most studies have found that the combination of temperature (thermal) biofeedback and relaxation training (e.g., autogenic training) is more effective than either intervention alone. Note that there’s also evidence that blood-volume pulse feedback is even more effective than the combination of temperature biofeedback and relaxation training. See, e.g., Y. Nestoriuc and A. Martin, Efficacy of biofeedback for migraine: A meta-analysis, Pain, 128, 111-127, 2007.

Question 101

Which of the following is most useful for explaining why social loafing occurs? A. overjustification effect B. diffusion of responsibility C. pluralistic ignorance D. social inhibition Back to questions

Answer 101

B. diffusion of responsibility EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-14 Answer B is correct. Social loafing occurs when members of a group exert less effort when working on a task than they would have exerted when working alone. Diffusion of responsibility is used to explain bystander apathy and has also been applied to social loafing – i.e., it predicts that members of a group exert less effort when working on a task because they feel that the responsibility for accomplishing the task is shared with others. See, e.g., B. Latane, The psychology of social impact, American Psychologist, 36, 343-356, 1981.

Question 102

The correct DSM-5 diagnosis for a 12-year-old boy who has two motor tics that began nine months ago is: A. provisional tic disorder. B. persistent tic disorder. C. unspecified tic disorder. D. Tourette’s disorder.

Answer 102

A. provisional tic disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-04 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 includes three tic disorders: Tourette’s disorder, persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder, and provisional tic disorder. The diagnosis of provisional tic disorder requires one or more motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for less than one year and began before the individual’s 18th birthday.

Question 103

Research by Jenkins and Dallenbach (1924) found that people who slept after learning new information recalled the information better than did people who stayed awake for the same length of time after learning the information and engaged in an unrelated activity. They concluded that the results of their study contradict the predictions of which of the following? A. retrieval cue theory B. interference theory C. trace decay theory D. retrieval failure theory

Answer 103

C. trace decay theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-13 Answer C is correct. According to trace decay theory, memories create physical changes in the brain that deteriorate over time when the memories are not rehearsed or recalled. Research comparing subjects who slept or stayed awake after learning new information seems to contradict this prediction since it found that people who sleep recall more information than those who stay awake even though the interval of time between learning and recall was the same for all subjects. Note, however, that the Jenkins and Dallenbach study has been criticized on methodological grounds because there is evidence that newly learned information is consolidated during sleep and, therefore, is not decaying. Because their research did not adequately test the predictions of trace decay theory, it neither contradicts nor supports it. (J. G. Jenkins and K. M. Dallenbach, Obliviscence during sleep and waking. The American Journal of Psychology, 35, 605-612, 1924)

Question 104

Which of the following is least likely to be exhibited by a patient with neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection or other subcortical neurocognitive disorder? A. forgetfulness B. apathy C. aphasia D. psychomotor retardation

Answer 104

C. aphasia EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-28 Answer C is correct. Aphasia is a common symptom of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and other cortical neurocognitive disorders. The symptoms listed in the other answers are characteristic of subcortical neurocognitive disorders.

Question 105

When included in an assessment center, the primary purpose of the leaderless group discussion is to: A. determine how group cohesiveness develops. B. identify obstacles faced by current team leaders. C. determine the training needs of newly hired managers. D. evaluate the leadership potential of participants.

Answer 105

D. evaluate the leadership potential of participants. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-06 Answer D is correct. The leaderless group discussion is used to evaluate the leadership potential of assessment center participants and involves observing a small group of participants while they work together without an assigned leader to solve a job-related problem.

Question 106

Dr. Devlin terminates the internship of one of her interns when she receives a complaint about him from one of his current clients. With regard to ethical requirements, this is acceptable as long as: A. the client’s complaint is valid. B. the client’s complaint is valid and is not the first complaint that Dr. Devlin has received about this intern for the same problem. C. the client’s complaint is valid and Dr. Devlin has previously provided the intern with feedback about his performance. D. Dr. Devlin explains the reason for the termination to the intern.

Answer 106

C. the client’s complaint is valid and Dr. Devlin has previously provided the intern with feedback about his performance. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-18 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 7.06(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide supervisees with timely feedback. Although neither Code directly addresses termination of interns, doing so without having provided them with feedback and opportunities to correct undesirable behaviors would violate these standards and the “spirit” of the Codes.

Question 107

Which of the following is least susceptible to satiation? A. primary reinforcers B. secondary reinforcers C. generalized reinforcers D. positive reinforcers

Answer 107

C. generalized reinforcers EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Operant Conditioning-05 Answer C is correct. Generalized reinforcers (e.g., money, tokens) are also known as generalized secondary reinforcers and generalized conditioned reinforcers. They’re less susceptible than primary and secondary reinforcers to satiation because they can be exchanged for a variety of back-up (primary) reinforcers.

Question 108

In a normal distribution, a T-score of 40 is equivalent to a percentile rank of: A. 3 B. 16 C. 84 D. 98

Answer 108

B. 16 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Score Interpretation-11 Answer B is correct. For the EPPP, you want to be familiar with the relationship between percentile ranks, T-scores, and z-scores in a normal distribution. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, in a normal distribution, a T-score of 40 and a percentile rank of 16 are both one standard deviation below the mean.

Question 109

According to DSM-5, heritability for major depressive disorder is about ____% and a major portion of the genetic contribution is accounted for by the personality trait __________. A. 20; neuroticism B. 40; neuroticism C. 20; dogmatism D. 40; dogmatism

Answer 109

B. 40; neuroticism EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-11 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 states that heritability for major depressive disorder “is approximately 40%, and the personality trait neuroticism accounts for a substantial portion of this genetic liability” (American Psychiatric Association, 2013, p. 166).

Question 110

Which of the following is most consistent with ethical requirements regarding the acceptance of contingent fees when acting as an expert witness in a legal case? A. Psychologists may accept contingent fees. B. Psychologists may accept contingent fees as long as doing so is consistent with current standards of practice. C. Psychologists may accept contingent fees only when their testimony as expert witnesses does not violate prohibitions against multiple relationships. D. Psychologists should usually avoid accepting contingent fees.

Answer 110

D. Psychologists should usually avoid accepting contingent fees. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-06 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 3.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code, Paragraph 5.02 of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, and Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.06 prohibits psychologists from “taking on a professional role when personal, scientific, professional, legal, financial, or other interests or relationships could reasonably be expected to … impair their objectivity, competence, or effectiveness.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, this prohibition applies to accepting contingent fees when acting as an expert witness since doing so may “exert pressure on psychologists to intentionally or unintentionally modify their reports or testimony in favor of the retaining party” [Decoding the ethics code: A practical guide for psychologists (4th ed.), Los Angeles, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2017, p. 149].

Question 111

The stages of Selye’s (1976) general adaptation syndrome are: A. alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. B. arousal, reaction, and resistance. C. alarm reaction, response, and enervation. D. exposure, reaction, and exhaustion.

Answer 111

A. alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-24 Answer A is correct. Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) consists of three stages: alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion.

Question 112

Research has found that which of the following behaviors of noncustodial fathers has the least impact on the post-divorce outcomes of children? A. payment of child support B. feelings of closeness C. authoritative parenting D. frequency of contact

Answer 112

D. frequency of contact EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-23 Answer D is correct. A meta-analysis of the research by P. R. Amato and J. G. Gilbreth (1999) indicated that frequency of paternal contact with children was least related to child outcomes. In contrast, payment of child support was positively related to children’s academic success and negatively related to externalizing problems, while feelings of closeness and authoritative parenting were both positively related to academic success and negatively related to internalizing and externalizing problems (Nonresident fathers and children’s well-being: A meta-analysis, Journal of Marriage and the Family, 61, 557-573, 1999).

Question 113

The “gold standard” treatment for preschool-aged children with ADHD is: A. parent training in behavior management. B. behavioral skills training. C. family therapy plus pharmacotherapy. D. pharmacotherapy.

Answer 113

A. parent training in behavior management. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-38 Answer A is correct. Evidence-based parent-training in behavior management (PTBM) is considered the first-line treatment for preschool children 4 and 5 years of age. It involves teaching parents to reward children’s positive behaviors and ignore or redirect their negative behaviors. Included in this category are positive parenting program (triple P), parent-child interaction therapy, and incredible years. Pharmacotherapy (answer D) is not recommended for preschool children unless PTBM has not produced a significant change in behavior.

Question 114

An overdose of morphine, heroin, or other opioid can cause respiratory failure because of its effects on which of the following? A. substantia nigra B. medulla oblongata C. striatum D. thalamus

Answer 114

B. medulla oblongata EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-01 Answer B is correct. The medulla oblongata controls respiration and other vital autonomic functions. Opioids produce a dose-dependent effect on respiration by reducing the responsiveness of the medulla’s respiratory center to carbon dioxide.

Question 115

Following a closed head injury, a young man is unable to recognize familiar objects by touch. This condition is caused by lesions in the ________ lobe. A. occipital B. frontal C. parietal D. temporal

Answer 115

C. parietal EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-08 Answer C is correct. The condition described in this question is referred to as tactile agnosia, which is caused by damage to the somatosensory area of the parietal lobe.