Test 4 Flashcards
The left hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere for language for about _____% of right-handed people and _____% of left-handed people.
A. 99%; 90%
B. 99%; 35%
C. 95%; 70%
D. 95%; 25%
C. 95%; 70%
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer C is correct. Reported estimates for left-hemisphere dominance for language for right- and left-handed people vary, but most authorities cite percentages in the 90’s for right-handed people and between 50 and 70% for left-handed people. See, e.g., J. E. Mendoza and A. L. Foundas, Clinical neuroanatomy: A neurobehavioral approach, New York, Springer Science+Business Media, Inc., 2008.
Dr. Sholen finds that she and her intern do not have time to administer tests to all of the clients who are being referred to Dr. Sholen for psychological assessment. As a result, she decides to hire a graduate student who is working on her master’s degree in clinical psychology to administer the MMPI-2 and several similar tests. With regard to ethical requirements, this:
A. is clearly unacceptable since the student has not completed the coursework required for a master’s degree.
B. is acceptable as long as the student has completed coursework in psychological assessment.
C. may be acceptable as long as the student administers but does not score or interpret the tests.
D. may be acceptable as long as the student has had adequate training and will be supervised by Dr. Sholen.
D. may be acceptable as long as the student has had adequate training and will be supervised by Dr. Sholen.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-24 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 9.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards II.7 and II.56 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.07 states that “psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons, except when such use is conducted for training purposes with appropriate supervision.”
Dr. Moore has been seeing Ms. Kazinsky in therapy for three months and realizes that he is feeling attracted to her and always looks forward to their sessions. He thinks that she may feel the same way and, several sessions later, they both admit their feelings for each other. Ms. Kazinsky says she thinks she’s achieved her therapy goals and suggests that she stop coming to therapy so they can start dating. If Dr. Moore agrees to this arrangement, he will have acted:
A. ethically since Ms. Kazinsky suggested that she terminate therapy so they can start dating.
B. ethically as long as Dr. Moore agrees that Ms. Kazinsky has achieved her therapy goals.
C. ethically only if Dr. Moore waits for two years before he begins dating Ms. Kazinsky.
D. unethically regardless of how much time passes between the last therapy session and their first date.
D. unethically regardless of how much time passes between the last therapy session and their first date.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-26 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Although both Codes discourage therapists from dating former clients, they also specify conditions in which doing so may be acceptable. Answers A and B are obviously incorrect since it doesn’t matter who suggests that therapy be terminated or if the client has achieved her therapy goals. Answer C is also incorrect. Standard 10.08 specifies that at least two years must pass before a therapist starts dating a former client, but it also states that the therapist must demonstrate that there has been no exploitation in light of several factors including “the circumstances of the termination” and “any statements or actions made by the therapist during the course of therapy suggesting or inviting the possibility of a posttermination sexual or romantic relationship with the client.” In other words, Dr. Moore expressed his feelings toward the client while still seeing her in therapy and therapy is being terminated so he can begin dating the client, which suggests that dating the client even after two years would be exploitative and would, therefore, violate Standard 10.08.
The time-series group design is most similar to which of the following single-subject designs?
A. AB
B. ABAB
C. multiple-baseline across behaviors
D. multiple-baseline across subjects
A. AB
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-05 Answer A is correct. The time-series design is a type of within-subjects design that’s essentially a group version of the single-subject AB design. It involves measuring the dependent variable at regular intervals multiple times before and after the independent variable is administered.
Generalized onset seizures always:
A. include a loss of consciousness.
B. include motor symptoms.
C. include a loss of consciousness and motor symptoms.
D. begin with an aura.
A. include a loss of consciousness.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-22 Answer A is correct. There are two types of generalized onset seizures – generalized onset motor seizures (also known as tonic-clonic seizures) and generalized onset non-motor seizures (also known as absence seizures). Both include a loss of consciousness but, as their names suggest, only generalized onset motor seizures include motor symptoms. Although auras are most associated with focal onset seizures, there is evidence that they occur for some people with generalized onset seizures. See, e.g., P. Dugan et al., Auras in generalized epilepsy, Neurology, 83(16), 1444-1449, 2014.
A researcher would use the split-plot ANOVA to analyze the data she collected in her research study when:
A. she wants to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable.
B. she wants to assess the effects of one independent variable on three dependent variables that are all measured on an interval or ratio scale.
C. her study included one between-subjects independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable.
D. her study included an extraneous variable that was treated like an independent variable.
C. her study included one between-subjects independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-12 Answer C is correct. Knowing that the split-plot ANOVA is also known as the mixed ANOVA may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: It is used when data are collected from a study that used a mixed design – i.e., that had at least one between-subjects variable and one within-subjects variable.
The studies have not provided entirely consistent results, but they have generally found that which of the following Big Five personality traits increase with increasing age during adulthood?
A. conscientiousness and neuroticism
B. neuroticism and extraversion
C. agreeableness and conscientiousness
D. agreeableness and openness to experience
C. agreeableness and conscientiousness
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-17 Answer C is correct. McCrae and his colleagues conclude that, “from age 18 to age 30 there are declines in Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness to Experience, and increases in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness; after age 30 the same trends are found, although the rate of change seems to decrease” [R. R. McCrae, P. T. Costa, F. Ostendorf, A. Angleitner, M. Hrebickova, M. D. Avia, et al., Nature over nurture: Temperament, personality, and life span development, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 78, 173–186, 2000].
Which of the following is not a criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?
A. His theory is biased in terms of culture and gender.
B. His theory places too much emphasis on moral judgment and not enough on moral behavior.
C. Moral development does not end in late childhood as his theory claims.
D. Young children are more advanced in terms of morality than his theory claims.
C. Moral development does not end in late childhood as his theory claims.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-188 Answer C is correct. Piaget, not Kohlberg, concluded that moral development ends with the onset of the autonomous stage in late childhood, and this claim has been criticized and challenged by the results of research on moral development during adolescence and adulthood. Answers A, B, and D accurately describe criticisms of Kohlberg’s theory.
The concordance rate for schizophrenia for monozygotic (identical) twins is:
A. 90%.
B. 78%.
C. 48%.
D. 26%.
C. 48%.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-05 Answer C is correct. In his frequently cited review of the research, I. Gottesman reports a concordance rate for schizophrenia of 48% for monozygotic twins (Schizophrenia genesis, New York, W. H. Freeman & Co., 1991).
Of the antipsychotic drugs, __________ is most likely to be a side effect of clozapine.
A. parkinsonian-like symptoms
B. tardive dyskinesia
C. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. agranulocytosis
D. agranulocytosis
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-24 Answer D is correct. Of the antipsychotics, the atypical drug clozapine is most likely to produce agranulocytosis, which is a rare but potentially fatal blood disorder that’s characterized by an abnormally low level of white blood cells. Consequently, regular blood monitoring is required for people taking this drug. An advantage of clozapine is that it is less likely than many other antipsychotics to produce the side effects listed in answers A, B, and C. See, e.g., L.A. Labbate, J. F. Rosenbaum, M. Fava, and G. W. Arana, Handbook of psychiatric drug therapy, Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.
One-month-old babies respond with which of the following reflexes when they are startled by a loud noise or sudden movement?
A. Babinski
B. Moro
C. rooting
D. plantar
B. Moro
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-192 Answer B is correct. The Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex and occurs when babies are startled by a loud noise or movement and, in response, throw their heads back, extend their arms and legs, and then curl their arms and legs inward. The Babinski reflex (answer A) occurs when the sole of a baby’s foot is firmly touched and, in response, the baby’s big toe moves backward toward the top of the foot and the other toes fan out. The rooting reflex (answer C) occurs when, in response to having the corner of their mouths touched, babies turn their heads in the direction of the touch. Plantar reflex (answer D) is another name for the Babinski reflex.
Of the following, which is least likely to be the optimal intervention when a child’s target behavior is harmful to him/herself or others?
A. response cost
B. operant extinction
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement
B. operant extinction
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-08 Answer B is correct. Of the interventions listed in the answers, operant extinction would be the least desirable when the target behavior is harmful to the individual or others because extinction often causes an increase in the behavior (an extinction burst) before the behavior begins to decrease.
Drugs that increase which of the following are often used to treat premature ejaculation?
A. GABA
B. serotonin
C. dopamine
D. epinephrine
B. serotonin
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-21 Answer B is correct. SSRIs (e.g., paroxetine, dapoxetine, sertraline) and antidepressants that have similar effects as SSRIs have been found to be safe and effective treatments for premature ejaculation.
Which of the following statements best describes a psychologist’s ethical requirements with regard to obtaining informed consents for research?
A. Informed consents are always necessary except when the research requires the use of deception.
B. Informed consents are not necessary as long as potential participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time.
C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices.
D. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research.
C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-20 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard I.20 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. It accurately describes one of the exceptions to obtaining an informed consent listed in Standard 8.05. In contrast, answer A is not correct because informed consents are not required in several circumstances besides when deception is used, and answer B is not correct because allowing participants to withdraw from a study at any time is required but does not preclude getting informed consents. Finally, answer D is not the best answer because it’s only partially true: Standard 8.05 states that it’s not necessary to obtain informed consents when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research but only when “disclosure of responses would not place participants at risk of criminal or civil liability or damage their financial standing, employability, or reputation, and confidentiality is protected.”
Bilateral damage to the medial temporal lobe produces deficits in:
A. the comprehension and production of language.
B. the comprehension but not the production of language.
C. declarative memory.
D. procedural memory.
C. declarative memory.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-09 Answer C is correct. The medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, parahippocampal cortex, perirhinal cortex, and entorhinal cortex and is important for the formation of long-term declarative (semantic and episodic) memories.
Which of the following best describes implied consent?
A. It refers to a person’s informed consent when it is not written or documented.
B. It applies only when a person is believed to be a danger to self or others.
C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person.
D. It applies only when a person lacks the capacity to give informed consent.
C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-209 Answer C is correct. Informed consent is inferred from the circumstances or actions of a person. For example, a patient’s implied consent for treatment is assumed in emergency situations when the patient is incapacitated and unable to provide informed consent, and a student’s implied consent to participate in a class is assumed when the student registers for and attends the class. Answer D is not the best answer because implied consent does not refer only to consent in the circumstance described in that answer.
An organizational psychologist is hired by a large software company to develop a new selection test for hiring entry level software developers. To do so, she obtains a sample of 30 software developers who were recently hired by the company using its existing selection procedure and uses their responses to the proposed selection test items to determine which items to include in its final version. When she administers the final version of the test to this sample and correlates their test scores with scores on a measure of job performance, she obtains a criterion-related validity coefficient of .45. When the psychologist cross-validates the test on another sample of 40 recently hired software developers, the validity coefficient for this sample will most likely be:
A. .45.
B. smaller than .45.
C. larger than .45.
D. either smaller or larger than .45.
B. smaller than .45.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-08 Answer B is correct. When a test is cross-validated on another sample, the criterion-related validity coefficient usually “shrinks” (is smaller) because the unique characteristics of the original sample affected which items were included in the test and the second sample will not have all of the same characteristics. In other words, the test was “custom-made” for the original sample and, as a result, the initial criterion-related validity coefficient overestimates the test’s validity for other samples.
Mildred Parten (1932) categorized children’s play as being:
A. physical or social.
B. nonsocial or social.
C. physical, emotional, or cognitive.
D. constructive, expressive, or dramatic.
B. nonsocial or social.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. M. B. Parten distinguished between nonsocial and social play, with each type including three subtypes: Nonsocial play includes unoccupied play, solitary play, and onlooker play, while social play includes parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play [Social participation among pre-school children, The Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 27(3), 243-269, 1932].
According to Bronfenbrenner’s (2004) ecological systems theory, available legal and social services are part of the:
A. macrosystem.
B. microsystem.
C. exosystem.
D. mesosystem.
C. exosystem.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-01 Answer C is correct. Bronfenbrenner’s theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that affect a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the environment that the child may not have direct contact with but affect the child’s immediate environment. It includes the parents’ places of work, community services, and government agencies.
To avoid dealing with their ongoing conflicts and hostility toward each other, the parents of a 10-year-old child blame the child for their problems. A structural family therapist would view this as an example of which of the following?
A. detouring
B. emotional triangle
C. unstable coalition
D. stable coalition
A. detouring
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. Detouring occurs when parents avoid dealing with their own conflicts by focusing on their child and either overprotecting the child or blaming the child for their problems.
When administering the Rorschach, the purpose of the inquiry phase is to:
A. encourage the client to free associate to the inkblots.
B. encourage the client to provide more detail when responding to the inkblots.
C. obtain the information needed to accurately code the examinee’s responses.
D. develop hypotheses about the examinee’s responses.
C. obtain the information needed to accurately code the examinee’s responses.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-04 Answer C is correct. Administration of the Rorschach ordinarily involves two phases: the free association (response) phase and the inquiry phase. During the inquiry phase, the examiner questions the examinee about what parts of the inkblot determined the examinee’s responses to obtain the information needed to code his/her responses.
Seller et al.’s (1998) multidimensional model of racial identity predicts that racial salience is affected by:
A. the current situation and racial centrality.
B. the current situation and racial regard.
C. self-appraisal and racial centrality.
D. self-appraisal and racial regard.
A. the current situation and racial centrality.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-124 Answer A is correct. The multidimensional model of racial identity proposes that there are four dimensions of African American identity: salience, centrality, regard, and ideology. Racial salience is affected by the nature of the person’s current situation and the centrality of race for the person (i.e., the degree to which race defines the person’s identity). For example, being the only African American student in a college classroom is more likely to increase the salience of race for the student when race is central to the student’s identity than when it is not central.
Data released by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) indicate that, in 2020, the suicide rate was highest for:
A. men 45 to 64 years of age.
B. women 45 to 64 years of age.
C. men 75 years of age and older.
D. women 75 years of age and older.
C. men 75 years of age and older.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-12 Answer C is correct. CDC data for 2000 through 2020 (Garnett, Curtin, & Stone, 2022) indicate that suicide rates have been consistently higher for males than for females. With regard to age, in 2020, the highest rate for males was for those 75 years of age and older (40.5 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people), while the highest rate for females was for those ages 45 to 64 years of age (7.9 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people).
Which aspect of an item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates the probability of choosing the correct answer to the item by guessing alone?
A. the position of the curve
B. the slope of the curve
C. the point at which the curve intercepts the x-axis
D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis
D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. The various item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on either one, two, or three parameters, with the three parameters being item difficulty, item discrimination, and the probability of guessing correctly. The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the y-axis.
According to Piaget, children begin to be able to observe another child perform a complex action and then imitate that action for the first time on the following day when they’re between ________ months of age.
A. 8 and 12
B. 12 and 18
C. 18 and 24
D. 24 and 30
C. 18 and 24
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-10 Answer C is correct. The ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present is referred to as deferred imitation. According to Piaget, deferred imitation doesn’t occur until the infant can form enduring mental representations, which happens during the final substage (substage six) of the sensorimotor stage when children are between 18 and 24 months of age.
With regard to the transtheoretical model, self-reevaluation is most useful for helping clients transition from the:
A. precontemplation to the contemplation stage.
B. contemplation to the preparation stage.
C. preparation to the engagement stage.
D. action to the maintenance stage.
B. contemplation to the preparation stage.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-09 Answer B is correct. Self-reevaluation is useful strategy for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because it helps them transition to the next stage – i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages of change identified by the transtheoretical model.
Beginning in early adolescence, the rate of major depressive disorder for females is about ________ times the rate for boys.
A. .75 to 1.5
B. 1.0 to 2.0
C. 1.5 to 3.0
D. 2.5 to 4.5
C. 1.5 to 3.0
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-10 Answer C is correct. Prior to adolescence, the rates of major depressive disorder are about equal for males and females but, starting in early adolescence, the rate for females increases, with adolescent and adult females having a rate of 1.5 to 3.0 times the rate for males.
Dr. Lansky returned to school when she was 48 years old to obtain a Psy.D. in clinical psychology. She already had a Ph.D. in business administration and, now that she’s a licensed psychologist, decides to list both doctoral degrees in her business card and advertisements for her clinical practice. This is:
A. acceptable.
B. acceptable only if she indicates that her Ph.D. is in business administration.
C. unacceptable only if one or both degrees are not from an accredited educational institution.
D. unacceptable.
D. unacceptable.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-13 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.01(c) states that psychologists can claim as credentials for their health services only degrees that “were earned from a regionally accredited educational institution or … were the basis for psychology licensure.” In other words, the psychologist should not include her Ph.D. in business administration in her business card or advertisements since that degree was not used as a credential for her health services.
Hyperactivity in the __________ has been linked to the symptoms of hypervigilance and hyperarousal associated with PTSD.
A. hypothalamus
B. amygdala
C. caudate nucleus
D. reticular activating system
B. amygdala
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-04 Answer B is correct. Hyperactivity in the amygdala has been linked to PTSD, although there’s some evidence that this is true only for certain symptoms including hypervigilance and hyperarousal. See, e.g., G. L. Forster, R. M. Simons, and L. A. Baugh, Revising the role of the amygdala in posttraumatic stress disorder, in B. Ferry (Ed.), The amygdala – Where emotions shape perception, learning and memories (pp. 113-136), 2017, doi: 10.5772/67585.
Which of the following neuroimaging techniques is used to study abnormalities in the brain’s white matter?
A. electroencephalography
B. computerized axial tomography
C. positron emission tomography
D. diffusion tensor imaging
D. diffusion tensor imaging
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-63 Answer D is correct. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is a special application of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that is used to detect abnormalities in the brain’s white matter, which consists of myelinated axons that connect different areas of the brain. It does this by identifying the rate and direction of the movement of water molecules along the axons.
The initial stage in Troiden’s (1989) homosexual identity development model is:
A. conformity.
B. sensitization.
C. confusion.
D. dissonance.
B. sensitization.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-28 Answer B is correct. In order, the four stages of Troiden’s homosexual identity development model are sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, and commitment [R. R. Troiden, Homosexual identity development, Journal of Adolescent Health Care, 9(2), 105-113, 1989].
The use of cue exposure treatment (CET) for alcohol use disorder often combines exposure to cues that are associated with alcohol with:
A. individual insight-oriented therapy.
B. couple or family therapy.
C. contingency contracting.
D. coping skills training.
D. coping skills training.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-04 Answer D is correct. CET is a type of exposure therapy that’s used to treat substance use disorders and involves exposing a patient to cues associated with the problem behavior while prohibiting him/her from engaging in that behavior. It’s effective for many patients when used alone, but there’s evidence that its effectiveness increases when it’s combined with coping skills training. See, e.g., M. D. Spiegler, Contemporary behavior therapy (6th ed.), Boston, Cengage Learning, 2016.
Kirkpatrick (1998) distinguished between four levels of training program evaluation and proposed that which of the following is the most informative level?
A. learning
B. reaction
C. behavior
D. results
D. results
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-12 Answer D is correct. Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that are arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction, learning, behavior, and results.
A supervisor’s knowledge of how well employees did on the selection measures that were used to hire them affects how the supervisor subsequently rates each employee on measures of job performance. This is an example of which of the following?
A. the halo error
B. the contrast error
C. criterion deficiency
D. criterion contamination
D. criterion contamination
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer D is correct. Criterion contamination occurs when a performance (criterion) measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance – for example, when a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are biased by the supervisor’s knowledge of how well employees did on the predictors that were used to hire them.
Research has found that the majority of individuals who undergo gender confirmation surgery:
A. experience an increase in symptoms of gender dysphoria following surgery.
B. continue to experience significant symptoms of gender dysphoria following surgery.
C. experience a significant decrease in symptoms of gender dysphoria with transgender male patients experiencing somewhat better outcomes.
D. experience a significant decrease in symptoms of gender dysphoria with transgender female patients experiencing somewhat better outcomes.
C. experience a significant decrease in symptoms of gender dysphoria with transgender male patients experiencing somewhat better outcomes.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-22 Answer C is correct. The research has generally found that gender confirmation surgery is associated with a decrease in gender dysphoria, high levels of satisfaction, and a low incidence of regret. In addition, there’s some evidence that transgender male patients have somewhat more positive outcomes than transgender female patients do. See, e.g., A. Lawrence, Sex reassignment surgery, in A. Wenzel (Ed.), The SAGE encyclopedia of abnormal and clinical psychology, New York, SAGE, 2017.
Which of the following is based on the results of research that used the method of magnitude estimation to study the relationship between the magnitude of a physical stimulus and its perceived magnitude?
A. Weber’s law
B. Stevens’s law
C. Fechner’s law
D. Eysenck’s law
B. Stevens’s law
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Sensation and Perception-14 Answer B is correct. Stevens’s method of magnitude estimation involved providing subjects with a specific value for the magnitude of one stimulus and asking them to use that value as a reference point when estimating the magnitude of other stimuli. The results of his research led to the development of Stevens’s power law which predicts that there’s an exponential relationship between the magnitude of a physical stimulus and its perceived magnitude, with the exponent varying for different types of stimuli.
A member of an ethnic minority group rejects the values, beliefs, and cultural practices of both her own minority group and the dominant (majority) group. According to Berry (2003), this person has adopted which of the following acculturation strategies?
A. marginalization
B. separation
C. exclusion
D. disjunction
A. marginalization
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-24 Answer A is correct. J. W. Berry’s acculturation model distinguishes between four acculturation strategies based on whether a member of a minority group accepts or rejects his/her own culture and the culture of the dominant (majority) group: integration, assimilation, separation, and marginalization. A person has adopted a marginalization strategy when the person rejects his/her own minority culture and the culture of the dominant group [Conceptual approaches to acculturation, in K. M. Chun, P. Organista, and G. Main (Eds.), Acculturation: Advances in theory, measurement, and applied research (pp. 17-37), Washington, DC, American Psychological Association, 2003].
To determine which combination of health-related predictors (e.g., exercise, diet, stress) best predicts which combination of health-related outcomes (e.g., physical fitness, emotional adjustment, quality of life), you would use which of the following?
A. multiple regression
B. logistic regression
C. canonical correlation
D. discriminant function analysis
C. canonical correlation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-RMS-Correlation and Regression-09 Answer C is correct. Canonical correlation is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more predictors will be used to estimate status on two or more criteria.
A supervisor tells you that the low job motivation of one of her newly hired supervisees is affecting his job performance, and she asks your advice about the best management style when working with him. As an advocate of ______________, you question the supervisor about some of the characteristics of the supervisee and his job tasks and, based on her answers, recommend that she adopt a supportive style with this supervisee.
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model
C. House’s path-goal theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Leadership-19 Answer C is correct. According to House’s (1971) path-goal theory, an effective leader adopts the style (directive, achievement-oriented, supportive, or participative) that best fits certain characteristics of the employee and the employee’s tasks.
Research on the synchrony effect has found that:
A. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon.
B. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning.
C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults.
D. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning, while the reverse is true for younger adults.
C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-13 Answer C is correct. The synchrony effect refers to the benefits of matching task demands and the preferred (optimal) time of day, and research has found that the preferred time differs for older and younger adults: Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that involve ignoring distractions or irrelevant information) in the morning, while younger adults often do better on the same tasks in the late afternoon or evening. Apparently, the synchrony effect is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms and peak times of arousal. See, e.g., C. P. May and L. Hasher, Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action, Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 24(2), 363-379, 1998.
Gorchoff, John, and Helson (2008) studied the marital satisfaction of women over an 18-year period and found that women reported:
A. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a decrease in the quality of the time they spent with their husbands.
B. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a combination of the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands and the decreased quality of that time.
C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands.
D. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands.
C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-25 Answer C is correct. S. M. Gorchoff, O. P. John, and R. Helson found that the “empty nest” was associated with an increase in marital satisfaction for the women in their study and that the increase was due primarily to an increase in the quality (but not the quantity) of the time they spent with their husbands [Contextualizing change in marital satisfaction during middle age: An 18-year longitudinal study, Psychological Science, 19(11), 1194-1200, 2008].
The __________ dopamine pathway plays an important role in the rewarding effects of drugs of abuse and drug addiction.
A. nigrostriatal
B. mesocortical
C. tuberoinfundibular
D. mesolimbic
D. mesolimbic
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-12 Answer D is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is also known as the brain’s reward pathway. Elevated activity in this pathway is responsible for the reinforcing (addictive) effects of cocaine, heroin, and other drugs of abuse that increase dopamine levels.
Soon after the death of his best friend, a 36-year-old man began having decreased visual acuity in both eyes. Physical and neurological exams and laboratory tests have found no explanation for his vision loss and his symptoms are not compatible with any known medical or neurological condition. There’s no indication that he’s faking or has induced his symptoms. The most likely diagnosis for this man is which of the following?
A. somatic symptom disorder
B. conversion disorder
C. acute stress disorder
D. factitious disorder
B. conversion disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-17 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of conversion disorder requires the presence of at least one symptom that involves an alteration in sensory or motor functioning which is not compatible with any known neurological or medical condition. Note that factitious disorder can be ruled out because its diagnosis requires evidence that symptoms are being falsified or induced.
An advantage of conducting a single one-way ANOVA rather than separate t-tests when a study includes one independent variable with three or more levels is that the ANOVA:
A. provides information on both main and interaction effects.
B. controls the experimentwise error rate.
C. reduces the effects of measurement error.
D. controls the effects of an extraneous variable.
B. controls the experimentwise error rate.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer B is correct. The experimentwise error rate is the probability of making a Type I error when multiple statistical comparisons are made within a single research study. If an independent variable has three or more levels, several t-tests would have to be conducted because the t-test compares only two means at a time, and this would increase the experimentwise error rate. When using the one-way ANOVA, all possible comparisons between means are made in a way that maintains the experimentwise error rate at the alpha level set by the researcher.
Research has found that culturally competent interventions for members of racial and ethnic minority groups are:
A. no more effective than traditional interventions for children, adolescents, or adults.
B. more effective than traditional interventions for children and adolescents but not necessarily for adults.
C. more effective than traditional interventions for adults but not necessarily for children and adolescents.
D. more effective than traditional interventions and equally effective for children, adolescents, and adults.
C. more effective than traditional interventions for adults but not necessarily for children and adolescents.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-26 Answer C is correct. Based on their review of the literature, S. Sue, N. Zane, G. C. Nagayama Hall, and L. K. Berger conclude that “the preponderance of evidence shows that culturally adapted interventions provide benefit to intervention outcomes … [but] this added value is more apparent in the research on adults than on children and youths” (The case for cultural competency in psychotherapeutic interventions, Annual Review of Psychology, 60, 525-548, 2009).
With regard to systems theory, positive feedback is:
A. equality based.
B. inequality based.
C. deviation amplifying.
D. deviation counteracting.
C. deviation amplifying.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-10 Answer C is correct. Positive feedback amplifies deviation from the status quo and promotes change, while negative feedback counteracts (attenuates) deviation and maintains the status quo.