Test 1 Flashcards
Dr. Dennis, an organizational psychologist, is hired by a company to develop and validate a new selection test for customer service representatives. When she conducts a concurrent validity study on the test she develops, Dr. Dennis finds that it has a validity coefficient of .65 for men and a validity coefficient of .20 for women. This suggests that the test has:
A. differential validity for men and women.
B. divergent validity for men and women.
C. differential selection for men and women.
D. inadequate validity for both men and women.
A. differential validity for men and women.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-096 Answer A is correct. A selection test or other employment procedure has differential validity when it has significantly different validity coefficients for members of different groups. Differential validity is a potential cause of adverse impact.
You receive a letter from a colleague requesting that you send her a copy of the record of Donald D., a former client of yours. The request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Donald. Donald abruptly ended his sessions with you three months ago, at which time he owed you for his past four therapy sessions. You’ve sent two letters to Donald about his unpaid bill, but he has not responded. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you:
A. must forward the record to the colleague since Donald has signed an authorization allowing you to do so.
B. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague until you and Donald reach an agreement about how he will pay his outstanding fees.
C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.
D. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if you explained this policy to Donald as part of the informed consent process when he began therapy.
C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-151 Answer C is correct. Ethical requirements for this situation are provided in Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” This answer is also consistent with the Preamble and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Note, however, that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations.
Research by Baumrind (1971) and others has found that the best outcomes for children and adolescents occur when their parents have an authoritative parenting style, which is characterized by which of the following?
A. low demandingness and low responsiveness
B. low demandingness and high responsiveness
C. high demandingness and low responsiveness
D. high demandingness and high responsiveness
D. high demandingness and high responsiveness
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-156 Answer D is correct. Authoritative parents are both responsive and demanding: They are warm and sensitive to their children’s needs; and, while they have clear rules and exert firm control over their children’s behaviors, their rules are reasonable and, as appropriate, they include children in decision-making and encourage their autonomy. Children and adolescents of these parents tend to be self-reliant, friendly, and cooperative, have high self-esteem, and do well in school.
The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with __________ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to.
A. interposition
B. kinetic
C. binocular
D. pictorial
B. kinetic
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-077 Answer B is correct. In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months (The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants, in D. Ingle, D. Lee, and R. M. Jeannerod (Eds.), Brain mechanisms and spatial vision, pp. 113-145, Amsterdam, Martinus Nijhoff Press, 1985).
Studies investigating the outcomes associated with the compressed workweek have found that it has:
A. a similarly strong positive effect on job satisfaction and job productivity.
B. a positive effect on job satisfaction but a negative effect on job productivity.
C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity.
D. a stronger positive effect on job productivity than on job satisfaction.
C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-164 Answer C is correct. Research on the compressed workweek has found that it has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction and a positive but weaker effect on job productivity (Baltes et al., 1999).
Therapy based on Boyd-Franklin’s (1989) multisystems model:
A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.
B. includes interventions that target the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.
C. combines individual interventions for each family member with group therapy and family therapy.
D. involves progressively intervening at the individual, family, and community levels.
A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-191 Answer A is correct. Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model specifically for African American families. The model consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while Axis II consists of the various levels at which treatment can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, community).
A company’s current selection procedure for computer programmers consists of seven predictors that are used to predict the job performance score that a job applicant will receive six months after being hired. The owner of the company wants to reduce the costs and time required to make selection decisions. Which of the following would be most useful for determining the fewest number of predictors needed to make accurate predictions about applicants’ job performance scores?
A. linear regression analysis
B. discriminant function analysis
C. stepwise multiple regression
D. factor analysis
C. stepwise multiple regression
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-127 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is used to predict a person’s score on a single criterion (e.g., job performance measure) using two or more predictors. Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression that’s used to identify the fewest number of predictors needed to make an accurate prediction
In their Robbers Cave study, Sherif and his colleagues (1966) found that competition between two groups of boys for desired prizes produced a high degree of intergroup hostility. These results provide support for which of the following theories of prejudice and discrimination?
A. social identity theory
B. realistic conflict theory
C. scapegoat theory
D. extended contact theory
B. realistic conflict theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-145 Answer B is correct. According to realistic conflict theory, prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between groups for scarce and valued resources. Evidence for this theory is provided by Sherif’s Robbers Cave study in which conflict between groups was generated by having two groups of boys who had strong attachments to members of their own group compete for desired prizes.
A therapy client who had an insensitive, authoritarian father begins to respond to her therapist as though he’s insensitive and authoritarian. A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis would describe this as transference, while a practitioner of Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal psychotherapy would view it as:
A. a parataxic distortion.
B. a boundary disturbance.
C. projective identification.
D. displacement.
A. a parataxic distortion.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-083 Answer A is correct. As described by Sullivan (1953), parataxic distortions occur in all types of interpersonal relationships and involve perceiving others, not on the basis of their actual attributes, but on expectations developed from past interpersonal relationships.
Which of the following is the appropriate bivariate correlation coefficient to use when the scores to be correlated are both reported as ranks?
A. Spearman
B. Pearson
C. biserial
D. point biserial
A. Spearman
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-116 Answer A is correct. The full-name of the Spearman correlation coefficient is the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient. As its name suggests, it’s used to correlate scores on two variables that are reported as ranks.
Erik Erikson (1978) identified a positive outcome (“virtue”) for each of his eight stages of psychosocial development. Which of the following does not accurately match a stage with its positive outcome?
A. generativity vs. stagnation: care
B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose
C. industry vs. inferiority: competence
D. basic trust vs. mistrust: hope
B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-150 Answer B is correct. Erikson identified will (initiative and self-determination) as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.
You obtain the data you need from a sample of licensed psychologists to calculate a correlation coefficient for their EPPP score and yearly salary five years after taking the exam. If you square the correlation coefficient, you will obtain a(n) _______________, which indicates the amount of variability in yearly salary that’s accounted for by EPPP score.
A. coefficient of concordance
B. coefficient of determination
C. kappa coefficient
D. eta coefficient
B. coefficient of determination
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-105 Answer B is correct. Squaring a correlation coefficient produces a coefficient of determination, which is a measure of shared variability – or, put another way, a measure of the amount of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.
The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.
A. alternate forms
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. inter-rater
B. internal consistency
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).
Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement
C. overcorrection
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-086 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and is classified as a type of positive punishment. It consists of two components: Restitution requires the individual to fix any negative consequences of the behavior (e.g., having a child clean up the food he threw on the floor while the family ate dinner). Positive practice involves practicing more appropriate behaviors (e.g., having the child scrape the uneaten food off the plates of other family members into the garbage can).
Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change?
A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy
B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
D. the level of fear aroused by the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-069 Answer C is correct. In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).
Sam, age 16, is brought to therapy by his mother who says he started complaining about hearing voices two weeks ago shortly after his father was diagnosed with lung cancer and that Sam also seems more nervous and tense than usual. When you ask Sam about the voices, he says they keep telling him he’s “bad and dirty” and he can’t make them go away. Sam has no history of a psychotic disorder or drug use. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. schizophrenia.
B. schizoaffective disorder.
C. brief psychotic disorder.
D. unspecified schizophrenia spectrum disorder.
C. brief psychotic disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-067 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder requires the presence of one or more characteristic symptoms with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech for at least one day but less than one month. Sam has had an auditory hallucination for two weeks.
Research comparing mental health care service utilization rates and premature therapy dropout rates of heterosexual and LGBTQ men and women has found that:
A. heterosexual men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
C. heterosexual men and women have a higher utilization rate, but LGBTQ men and women have a higher dropout rate.
D. LGBTQ men and women have a higher utilization rate, but heterosexual men and women have a higher dropout rate.
B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-173 Answer B is correct. The studies have consistently found that the rates of mental health service utilization are higher for LGBTQ men and women than for heterosexual men and women. There’s also evidence that LGBTQ men and women have higher rates of premature dropout rates from therapy.
Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (NCDLB) can be difficult to distinguish, especially in their early stages, but there are differences. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a difference between the two disorders?
A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
B. Memory loss is usually a more prominent early symptom of early Alzheimer’s disease than of early NCDLB.
C. Nonvisual hallucinations and systematized delusions are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
D. Orthostatic hypotension and other autonomic disturbances are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-217 Answer A is correct. Motor disturbances are a more important cause of disability in the early stages of NCDLB than in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease and include muscle rigidity, tremors, and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease. Although motor problems are also associated with Alzheimer’s disease, they usually do not occur until the disease progresses to the middle or late stage. The other three answers accurately describe differences between the two disorders. See, e.g., Alzheimer’s Association website, http://www.alz.org/dementia/dementia-with-lewy-bodies-symptoms.asp
____________ consists of three overlapping stages: conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through.
A. Self-instructional training
B. Stress inoculation training
C. Problem-solving therapy
D. Motivational interviewing
B. Stress inoculation training
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-111 Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s (2003) stress inoculation training is based on the assumption that acquiring effective strategies for coping with stress helps “inoculate” a person from experiencing high levels of stress in the future. It consists of the three stages listed in the question.
Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic phenomenon to study:
A. psychological reactance.
B. conformity to group norms.
C. compliance with direct requests.
D. counterfactual thinking.
B. conformity to group norms.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-093 Answer B is correct. Sherif used the autokinetic phenomenon (an optical illusion in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a dark room) to study conformity to group norms.
According to Carl Rogers (1951), incongruence between self and experience produces anxiety, which a person may respond to defensively by:
A. denying or distorting the experience.
B. adopting an exaggerated sense of self-worth.
C. becoming fixated at the previous stage of development.
D. developing a mistaken style of life.
EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-039 Answer A is correct. Rogers proposed that people often respond defensively to incongruence between self and experience with denial or distortion. Denial involves denying the existence of the experience or its significance, while distortion involves altering the meaning of the experience to make it more consistent with one’s perceived self. Although denial and distortion can provide temporary relief, they fail to resolve incongruence and can lead to psychological disturbance.
Pavlov found that, once dogs were classically conditioned to salivate in response to a tone, they subsequently salivated to tones that were somewhat lower and higher in pitch. He referred to this phenomenon as:
A. higher-order conditioning.
B. stimulus generalization.
C. experimental neurosis.
D. response generalization.
B. stimulus generalization.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-009 Answer B is correct. Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus (e.g. the original tone) elicit the conditioned response without ever being presented with the unconditioned stimulus.
You obtain the data you need from a sample of licensed psychologists to calculate a correlation coefficient for their EPPP score and yearly salary five years after taking the exam. If you square the correlation coefficient, you will obtain a(n) _______________, which indicates the amount of variability in yearly salary that’s accounted for by EPPP score.
A. coefficient of concordance
B. coefficient of determination
C. kappa coefficient
D. eta coefficient
B. coefficient of determination
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-105 Answer B is correct. Squaring a correlation coefficient produces a coefficient of determination, which is a measure of shared variability – or, put another way, a measure of the amount of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.
The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.
A. alternate forms
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. inter-rater
B. internal consistency
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).