Test 1 Flashcards
Dr. Dennis, an organizational psychologist, is hired by a company to develop and validate a new selection test for customer service representatives. When she conducts a concurrent validity study on the test she develops, Dr. Dennis finds that it has a validity coefficient of .65 for men and a validity coefficient of .20 for women. This suggests that the test has:
A. differential validity for men and women.
B. divergent validity for men and women.
C. differential selection for men and women.
D. inadequate validity for both men and women.
A. differential validity for men and women.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-096 Answer A is correct. A selection test or other employment procedure has differential validity when it has significantly different validity coefficients for members of different groups. Differential validity is a potential cause of adverse impact.
You receive a letter from a colleague requesting that you send her a copy of the record of Donald D., a former client of yours. The request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Donald. Donald abruptly ended his sessions with you three months ago, at which time he owed you for his past four therapy sessions. You’ve sent two letters to Donald about his unpaid bill, but he has not responded. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you:
A. must forward the record to the colleague since Donald has signed an authorization allowing you to do so.
B. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague until you and Donald reach an agreement about how he will pay his outstanding fees.
C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.
D. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if you explained this policy to Donald as part of the informed consent process when he began therapy.
C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-151 Answer C is correct. Ethical requirements for this situation are provided in Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” This answer is also consistent with the Preamble and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Note, however, that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations.
Research by Baumrind (1971) and others has found that the best outcomes for children and adolescents occur when their parents have an authoritative parenting style, which is characterized by which of the following?
A. low demandingness and low responsiveness
B. low demandingness and high responsiveness
C. high demandingness and low responsiveness
D. high demandingness and high responsiveness
D. high demandingness and high responsiveness
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-156 Answer D is correct. Authoritative parents are both responsive and demanding: They are warm and sensitive to their children’s needs; and, while they have clear rules and exert firm control over their children’s behaviors, their rules are reasonable and, as appropriate, they include children in decision-making and encourage their autonomy. Children and adolescents of these parents tend to be self-reliant, friendly, and cooperative, have high self-esteem, and do well in school.
The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with __________ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to.
A. interposition
B. kinetic
C. binocular
D. pictorial
B. kinetic
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-077 Answer B is correct. In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months (The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants, in D. Ingle, D. Lee, and R. M. Jeannerod (Eds.), Brain mechanisms and spatial vision, pp. 113-145, Amsterdam, Martinus Nijhoff Press, 1985).
Studies investigating the outcomes associated with the compressed workweek have found that it has:
A. a similarly strong positive effect on job satisfaction and job productivity.
B. a positive effect on job satisfaction but a negative effect on job productivity.
C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity.
D. a stronger positive effect on job productivity than on job satisfaction.
C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-164 Answer C is correct. Research on the compressed workweek has found that it has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction and a positive but weaker effect on job productivity (Baltes et al., 1999).
Therapy based on Boyd-Franklin’s (1989) multisystems model:
A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.
B. includes interventions that target the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.
C. combines individual interventions for each family member with group therapy and family therapy.
D. involves progressively intervening at the individual, family, and community levels.
A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-191 Answer A is correct. Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model specifically for African American families. The model consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while Axis II consists of the various levels at which treatment can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, community).
A company’s current selection procedure for computer programmers consists of seven predictors that are used to predict the job performance score that a job applicant will receive six months after being hired. The owner of the company wants to reduce the costs and time required to make selection decisions. Which of the following would be most useful for determining the fewest number of predictors needed to make accurate predictions about applicants’ job performance scores?
A. linear regression analysis
B. discriminant function analysis
C. stepwise multiple regression
D. factor analysis
C. stepwise multiple regression
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-127 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is used to predict a person’s score on a single criterion (e.g., job performance measure) using two or more predictors. Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression that’s used to identify the fewest number of predictors needed to make an accurate prediction
In their Robbers Cave study, Sherif and his colleagues (1966) found that competition between two groups of boys for desired prizes produced a high degree of intergroup hostility. These results provide support for which of the following theories of prejudice and discrimination?
A. social identity theory
B. realistic conflict theory
C. scapegoat theory
D. extended contact theory
B. realistic conflict theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-145 Answer B is correct. According to realistic conflict theory, prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between groups for scarce and valued resources. Evidence for this theory is provided by Sherif’s Robbers Cave study in which conflict between groups was generated by having two groups of boys who had strong attachments to members of their own group compete for desired prizes.
A therapy client who had an insensitive, authoritarian father begins to respond to her therapist as though he’s insensitive and authoritarian. A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis would describe this as transference, while a practitioner of Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal psychotherapy would view it as:
A. a parataxic distortion.
B. a boundary disturbance.
C. projective identification.
D. displacement.
A. a parataxic distortion.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-083 Answer A is correct. As described by Sullivan (1953), parataxic distortions occur in all types of interpersonal relationships and involve perceiving others, not on the basis of their actual attributes, but on expectations developed from past interpersonal relationships.
Which of the following is the appropriate bivariate correlation coefficient to use when the scores to be correlated are both reported as ranks?
A. Spearman
B. Pearson
C. biserial
D. point biserial
A. Spearman
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-116 Answer A is correct. The full-name of the Spearman correlation coefficient is the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient. As its name suggests, it’s used to correlate scores on two variables that are reported as ranks.
Erik Erikson (1978) identified a positive outcome (“virtue”) for each of his eight stages of psychosocial development. Which of the following does not accurately match a stage with its positive outcome?
A. generativity vs. stagnation: care
B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose
C. industry vs. inferiority: competence
D. basic trust vs. mistrust: hope
B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-150 Answer B is correct. Erikson identified will (initiative and self-determination) as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.
You obtain the data you need from a sample of licensed psychologists to calculate a correlation coefficient for their EPPP score and yearly salary five years after taking the exam. If you square the correlation coefficient, you will obtain a(n) _______________, which indicates the amount of variability in yearly salary that’s accounted for by EPPP score.
A. coefficient of concordance
B. coefficient of determination
C. kappa coefficient
D. eta coefficient
B. coefficient of determination
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-105 Answer B is correct. Squaring a correlation coefficient produces a coefficient of determination, which is a measure of shared variability – or, put another way, a measure of the amount of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.
The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.
A. alternate forms
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. inter-rater
B. internal consistency
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).
Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement
C. overcorrection
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-086 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and is classified as a type of positive punishment. It consists of two components: Restitution requires the individual to fix any negative consequences of the behavior (e.g., having a child clean up the food he threw on the floor while the family ate dinner). Positive practice involves practicing more appropriate behaviors (e.g., having the child scrape the uneaten food off the plates of other family members into the garbage can).
Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change?
A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy
B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
D. the level of fear aroused by the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-069 Answer C is correct. In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).
Sam, age 16, is brought to therapy by his mother who says he started complaining about hearing voices two weeks ago shortly after his father was diagnosed with lung cancer and that Sam also seems more nervous and tense than usual. When you ask Sam about the voices, he says they keep telling him he’s “bad and dirty” and he can’t make them go away. Sam has no history of a psychotic disorder or drug use. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. schizophrenia.
B. schizoaffective disorder.
C. brief psychotic disorder.
D. unspecified schizophrenia spectrum disorder.
C. brief psychotic disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-067 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder requires the presence of one or more characteristic symptoms with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech for at least one day but less than one month. Sam has had an auditory hallucination for two weeks.
Research comparing mental health care service utilization rates and premature therapy dropout rates of heterosexual and LGBTQ men and women has found that:
A. heterosexual men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
C. heterosexual men and women have a higher utilization rate, but LGBTQ men and women have a higher dropout rate.
D. LGBTQ men and women have a higher utilization rate, but heterosexual men and women have a higher dropout rate.
B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-173 Answer B is correct. The studies have consistently found that the rates of mental health service utilization are higher for LGBTQ men and women than for heterosexual men and women. There’s also evidence that LGBTQ men and women have higher rates of premature dropout rates from therapy.
Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (NCDLB) can be difficult to distinguish, especially in their early stages, but there are differences. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a difference between the two disorders?
A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
B. Memory loss is usually a more prominent early symptom of early Alzheimer’s disease than of early NCDLB.
C. Nonvisual hallucinations and systematized delusions are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
D. Orthostatic hypotension and other autonomic disturbances are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-217 Answer A is correct. Motor disturbances are a more important cause of disability in the early stages of NCDLB than in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease and include muscle rigidity, tremors, and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease. Although motor problems are also associated with Alzheimer’s disease, they usually do not occur until the disease progresses to the middle or late stage. The other three answers accurately describe differences between the two disorders. See, e.g., Alzheimer’s Association website, http://www.alz.org/dementia/dementia-with-lewy-bodies-symptoms.asp
____________ consists of three overlapping stages: conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through.
A. Self-instructional training
B. Stress inoculation training
C. Problem-solving therapy
D. Motivational interviewing
B. Stress inoculation training
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-111 Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s (2003) stress inoculation training is based on the assumption that acquiring effective strategies for coping with stress helps “inoculate” a person from experiencing high levels of stress in the future. It consists of the three stages listed in the question.
Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic phenomenon to study:
A. psychological reactance.
B. conformity to group norms.
C. compliance with direct requests.
D. counterfactual thinking.
B. conformity to group norms.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-093 Answer B is correct. Sherif used the autokinetic phenomenon (an optical illusion in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a dark room) to study conformity to group norms.
According to Carl Rogers (1951), incongruence between self and experience produces anxiety, which a person may respond to defensively by:
A. denying or distorting the experience.
B. adopting an exaggerated sense of self-worth.
C. becoming fixated at the previous stage of development.
D. developing a mistaken style of life.
EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-039 Answer A is correct. Rogers proposed that people often respond defensively to incongruence between self and experience with denial or distortion. Denial involves denying the existence of the experience or its significance, while distortion involves altering the meaning of the experience to make it more consistent with one’s perceived self. Although denial and distortion can provide temporary relief, they fail to resolve incongruence and can lead to psychological disturbance.
Pavlov found that, once dogs were classically conditioned to salivate in response to a tone, they subsequently salivated to tones that were somewhat lower and higher in pitch. He referred to this phenomenon as:
A. higher-order conditioning.
B. stimulus generalization.
C. experimental neurosis.
D. response generalization.
B. stimulus generalization.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-009 Answer B is correct. Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus (e.g. the original tone) elicit the conditioned response without ever being presented with the unconditioned stimulus.
You obtain the data you need from a sample of licensed psychologists to calculate a correlation coefficient for their EPPP score and yearly salary five years after taking the exam. If you square the correlation coefficient, you will obtain a(n) _______________, which indicates the amount of variability in yearly salary that’s accounted for by EPPP score.
A. coefficient of concordance
B. coefficient of determination
C. kappa coefficient
D. eta coefficient
B. coefficient of determination
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-105 Answer B is correct. Squaring a correlation coefficient produces a coefficient of determination, which is a measure of shared variability – or, put another way, a measure of the amount of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.
The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.
A. alternate forms
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. inter-rater
B. internal consistency
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).
Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement
C. overcorrection
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-086 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and is classified as a type of positive punishment. It consists of two components: Restitution requires the individual to fix any negative consequences of the behavior (e.g., having a child clean up the food he threw on the floor while the family ate dinner). Positive practice involves practicing more appropriate behaviors (e.g., having the child scrape the uneaten food off the plates of other family members into the garbage can).
According to Fiedler’s (1967) contingency theory, a low LPC leader is most effective in:
A. moderately favorable situations.
B. very unfavorable situations.
C. very favorable situations.
D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.
D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-176 Answer D is correct. According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.
Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change?
A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy
B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
D. the level of fear aroused by the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-069 Answer C is correct. In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).
In the context of factor analysis, “oblique” means:
A. statistically significant.
B. statistically insignificant.
C. uncorrelated.
D. correlated.
D. correlated.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-071 Answer D is correct. The factors extracted (identified) in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal or oblique. Orthogonal factors are uncorrelated, while oblique factors are correlated.
Dr. Axelrod’s new client is Michael Moreland, a 35-year-old African American man. Mr. Moreland has worked steadily as a dishwasher since he was 17, but he was laid off six months ago and has been unable to find a job. His presenting symptoms suggest he’s dealing with depression. Dr. Axelrod, a White middle-class cognitive behavioral therapist, specializes in treating depression but hasn’t worked with African American or low-income clients. However, he wants to expand his scope of practice to include members of populations he has not yet worked with. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Axelrod should:
A. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy as long as he consults while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with African American and low-income clients.
B. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy but monitor his effectiveness and obtain relevant education if needed.
C. refer Mr. Moreland to another therapist who has experience working with low-income and African American clients.
D. explain his lack of experience to Mr. Moreland and let him decide whether or not to continue therapy.
A. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy as long as he consults while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with African American and low-income clients.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-032 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.6 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to obtain appropriate education, training, and consultation when they want to provide professional services to members of new populations or use new therapeutic techniques. An alternative would be to make a referral (answer C), but that’s not required in this situation since Dr. Axelrod specializes in treating depression and wants to expand his scope of practice.
A psychologist is planning a research study to evaluate the effects of a two-hour online lecture on statistics for improving the statistics knowledge of 35 psychologists who have just started studying for the EPPP. All participants will (1) take a pre-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions on Monday, (2) attend the online lecture on Wednesday evening, and (3) take a post-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions that are equivalent to the pre-test questions on Friday. To analyze the data she obtains in her study, the researcher will use which of the following?
A. t-test for a single sample
B. t-test for correlated samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. single-sample chi-square test
B. t-test for correlated samples
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-070 Answer B is correct. The first steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are to identify the independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study’s independent variable is the lecture on statistics and the dependent variable is statistics test score. The dependent variable is measured on a ratio scale, which means that the statistical test will be used to compare the mean scores obtained by the psychologists on the pre- and post-tests. The t-test and ANOVA are both used to compare mean scores, but because there are only two means, the t-test is the appropriate test. To determine which t-test to use, you determine how the means will be obtained: In this study they will be obtained from a single group of subjects, and the t-test for correlated samples is used when two means are obtained from the same group or from two groups that are related in some way.
Carstensen’s (1992) socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that, as we get older:
A. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become more important.
B. emotionally meaningful goals become more important and knowledge-related goals become less important.
C. emotionally meaningful goals become less important and knowledge-related goals become more important.
D. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become less important.
B. emotionally meaningful goals become more important and knowledge-related goals become less important.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-198 Answer B is correct. Carstensen’s socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that our goals change as our future time becomes more limited. It distinguishes between two types of goals – knowledge-related and emotionally meaningful – and proposes that, as we get older, we place less importance on knowledge-related goals and more importance on emotionally meaningful goals. In terms of social relationships, this means that younger people prefer relationships that fulfill their knowledge-related goals, while older people prefer relationships that fulfill their emotionally meaningful goals.
Gerald, age 39, knows he shouldn’t be so jealous and resentful of his younger sister because of her recent success in business, so he goes out of his way to praise her accomplishments and encourage her continued success. Gerald’s behavior best illustrates which of the following?
A. sublimation
B. denial
C. reaction formation
D. displacement
C. reaction formation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-006 Answer C is correct. Reaction formation involves converting undesirable impulses into their opposite – e.g., converting jealousy and resentment into praise and encouragement. Like other defense mechanisms, it helps alleviate anxiety caused by conflicts between the id’s impulses and the demands of the superego or the outside world.
Dr. Cho has been seeing Mr. and Mrs. Giovanni in therapy for four months. Mr. Giovanni is an insurance salesman and Mrs. Giovanni works part-time for a residential cleaning service company. Mr. Giovanni is suddenly laid off from his job and they ask if Mrs. Giovanni can exchange home cleaning services for therapy until Mr. Giovanni finds another job. Agreeing to this arrangement would be:
A. unethical.
B. ethical since it’s a temporary arrangement.
C. ethical since it involves an exchange of services (rather than goods).
D. ethical as long as Dr. Cho discusses the possible conflicts with the couple.
A. unethical.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-143 Answer A is correct. Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code permits barter in certain circumstances, but this arrangement would not be acceptable because it creates a potentially harmful multiple relationship – i.e., Dr. Cho will be acting as both therapist and employer and, if he’s dissatisfied with Mrs. Giovanni’s work, this could affect his objectivity in therapy. This answer is also consistent with Standards II.1, II.2, and III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
You would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to:
A. evaluate the effects of a training program.
B. identify the “position power” of managerial-level employees.
C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis.
D. conduct an organizational analysis.
C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-008 Answer C is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics.
The tendency to attribute all problems experienced by students with learning disabilities to their learning disabilities and overlook other possible explanations is an example of the:
A. fundamental attribution error.
B. halo bias.
C. diagnostic overshadowing bias.
D. base rate fallacy.
C. diagnostic overshadowing bias.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-179 Answer C is correct. The diagnostic overshadowing bias is the tendency to attribute all of a person’s symptoms to one diagnosis (e.g., to a learning disability) and overlook the possibility that they may be due to a comorbid condition.
In a research study, children were told not to play with an attractive toy during a free play period. Some of the children were told that the consequence for playing with the toy would be mild punishment, while others were told the consequence would be more severe punishment. All of the children refrained from playing with the toy but, when subsequently asked about the toy, only those who faced the threat of mild punishment said they disliked it. These results are consistent with the predictions of which of the following?
A. cognitive dissonance theory
B. elaboration likelihood model
C. theory of planned behavior
D. balance theory
A. cognitive dissonance theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-058 Answer A is correct. This question describes a study conducted by E. Aronson and J. M. Carlson (Effect of severity of threat on the devaluation of forbidden behavior, Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 66, 584-588, 1963). In that study, children in the mild punishment group changed their attitude toward the toy because they did not have adequate justification for not playing with it. In other words, there was insufficient deterrence which, like insufficient justification, caused cognitive dissonance that the children reduced by deciding they didn’t like the toy.
The organizational development technique known as survey feedback involves obtaining information on which of the following?
A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work
B. “critical incidents” associated with safety and productivity problems
C. employee skill deficiencies that would benefit from training
D. the impact of work-family conflicts on employee productivity and satisfaction
A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-158 Answer A is correct. Data collection is the initial step in survey feedback and involves having employees at all levels of the organization complete surveys that are used to obtain information on their attitudes, opinions, and perceptions related to work conditions, supervision, company policies, and other important issues.
For practitioners of Gestalt therapy, a key contributor to neurotic behavior is which of the following?
A. cognitive entanglement
B. exposure to conditions of worth
C. a contact boundary disturbance
D. psychological rigidity
C. a contact boundary disturbance
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-050 Answer C is correct. An assumption underlying Gestalt therapy is that contact boundary disturbances underlie neurosis, and it distinguishes between four main types of boundary disturbance: introjection, retroflection, projection, and confluence.
By about __________ months of age, children use two words to create a simple sentence – for example, “juice gone,” “get toy,” and “big doggie.”
A. 12 to 18
B. 18 to 24
C. 24 to 30
D. 30 to 36
B. 18 to 24
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Language Development-123 Answer B is correct. The use of two words to create a sentence is referred to as telegraphic speech. It begins when a child is between 18 and 24 months of age and usually includes a noun and a verb or a noun and an adjective.
According to Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1983) transtheoretical model, people in the ____________ stage of change are aware of their problem behavior, are weighing the pros and cons of changing, and feel they’ll be ready to take the steps necessary to change the behavior within the next six months.
A. precontemplation
B. preparation
C. contemplation
D. determination
C. contemplation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Brief Therapies-089 Answer C is correct. Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. During the contemplation stage, people are aware of the costs and benefits of changing an undesirable behavior and may be somewhat ambivalent about doing so, but they’re seriously considering taking action to change within the next six months.
Dr. Wilson is hired by the court to evaluate the mental competence of a man who has been charged as an accomplice in a bank robbery that ended in the death of a bank employee. During a break, the man brags to Dr. Wilson about his role in the bank robbery. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Wilson should:
A. not provide the court with any information she obtains without a signed authorization from the man.
B. provide the court only with information she obtains that is relevant to the man’s mental competence.
C. provide the court with information about the man’s confession along with the results of the evaluation as long as she informed the man about the limits of confidentiality prior to beginning the evaluation.
D. provide the court with information about the man’s confession along with the results of the evaluation whether or not she informed the man about the limits of confidentiality prior to beginning the evaluation.
B. provide the court only with information she obtains that is relevant to the man’s mental competence.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-087 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 4.04 of the APA Ethics Code and Paragraph 10.01 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, which require psychologists to disclose only client information that’s relevant to the purpose of a report or other communication. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.37 and I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
John Jr. just turned 14 and has started demanding to be allowed to make his own decisions and to have more privileges and independence from the family. In response, John’s parents continue to treat him like a child and have become more punitive in an attempt to keep things the way they were. The parents’ response to John’s demands illustrates which of the following?
A. positive feedback
B. negative feedback
C. reframing
D. restraining
B. negative feedback
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-122 Answer B is correct. Negative feedback serves to maintain the status quo (i.e., to keep things the way they were), while positive feedback promotes change. Reframing and restraining are paradoxical techniques used by therapists to alter behavior.
The elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981) predicts attitude change induced by _______________ is likely to be strong and persistent and produce a change in behavior.
A. central route processing
B. peripheral route processing
C. an alpha processing strategy
D. an omega processing strategy
A. central route processing
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-047 Answer A is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, the central route involves thoughtful and careful evaluation of the message and is more likely than the peripheral route to produce attitude change that’s strong and persistent and can be expected to cause a change in behavior.
In a normal distribution of scores, a T-score of _____ is equivalent to a z-score of _____ and a percentile rank of 84.
A. 50; 0
B. 50; 1.0
C. 60; 1.0
D. 70; 2.0
C. 60; 1.0
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-128 Answer C is correct. In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is one standard deviation above the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean. And the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0, so a z-score of 1.0 is one standard deviation above the mean.
Which of the following is a culture-reduced measure of fluid intelligence?
A. Kuhlmann-Anderson
B. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
C. Woodcock-Johnson
D. Slosson Intelligence Test
B. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-062 Answer B is correct. The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) tests are measures of fluid intelligence and are considered to be culture-reduced because they do not use language and performance does not depend on specific cultural or academic learning. There are three RPM tests: Standard Progressive Matrices, Colored Progressive Matrices, and Advanced Progressive Matrices.
You have just received a subpoena requesting that you appear in court to provide information about the diagnosis and treatment of a former client of yours who is suing her current therapist for malpractice. You are unable to contact the client or confirm that she has signed an authorization to release information. In this situation, you should:
A. notify the party who issued the subpoena that you cannot appear in court without a signed authorization from the client.
B. appear in court as requested but provide only information you believe is relevant to the case.
C. appear in court as requested but claim the privilege on behalf of the client.
D. appear in court and provide the requested information since privilege is waived in this situation.
C. appear in court as requested but claim the privilege on behalf of the client.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-222 Answer C is correct. When you receive a subpoena to appear in court and provide confidential information about a client and do not have authorization from the client to disclose the information, you should appear in court and claim the privilege on behalf of the client. You would then provide the information only if authorized to do so by the client or the client’s legal representative or ordered to do so by the court. Note that answer D is not correct because it is the court that decides if privilege is waived.
Which of the following is a type of counterbalanced design?
A. Solomon four-group
B. Latin square
C. factorial
D. multiple-baseline
B. Latin square
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-015 Answer B is correct. Counterbalancing is used to control order effects that may occur when a within-subjects design is used – i.e., when subjects in each group will receive or participate in all levels of the independent variable. The Latin square is a type of counterbalanced design that ensures that the different levels of the independent variable are assigned to the groups of subjects so that each level appears an equal number of times in each ordinal position.
Changing alpha (the level of significance) from .05 to .10:
A. increases the probability of making a Type I and a Type II error.
B. decreases the probability of making a Type I and a Type II error.
C. increases the probability of making a Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error.
D. decreases the probability of making a Type I error and increases the probability of making a Type II error.
C. increases the probability of making a Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-048 Answer C is correct. Alpha is equal to the probability of making a Type I error, and when alpha is increased from .05 to .10, the probability of making a Type I error increases. And, because there’s an inverse relationship between the probability of making a Type I error (rejecting a true null hypothesis) and a Type II error (retaining a false null hypothesis), the probability of making a Type II error decreases when alpha is increased.
Eight months ago, on the one-year anniversary of the death of her mother due to a brain tumor, 47-year-old Gale began experiencing frequent headaches and dizziness nearly every day. Gale has worried constantly about her health since then and has been spending hours each day searching for information on brain tumors on the Internet. Gale’s worrying and time on the Internet has kept her from spending time with her husband, two teen-age daughters, and friends. Gale has had two MRIs that showed no sign of a tumor, and her doctor has been unable to find an explanation for her headaches and dizziness. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Gale is:
A. conversion disorder.
B. body dysmorphic disorder.
C. somatic symptom disorder.
D. illness anxiety disorder.
C. somatic symptom disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-178 Answer C is correct. Gale’s symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for somatic symptom disorder. This diagnosis requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or substantial disruption of daily activities accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
Which of the following is most useful for explaining the results of Schachter’s (1959) “misery loves miserable company” study?
A. gain-loss theory
B. self-verification theory
C. equity theory
D. social comparison theory
D. social comparison theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-126 Answer D is correct. Social comparison theory (Festinger, 1954) has been used to explain the results of Schachter’s research. It predicts that, in uncertain situations, people often compare themselves to others to obtain information about themselves.
When assessing the performance of the employees he supervises, Mr. Stein tends to prioritize an employee’s willingness to take responsibility for resolving work-related problems. Consequently, when assessing employees who consistently and enthusiastically assume responsibility, Mr. Stein gives them high ratings on unrelated dimensions of job performance. And when assessing employees who frequently shirk responsibility, Mr. Stein gives them low ratings on all dimensions of job performance. Mr. Stein’s tendency is an example of which of the following?
A. contrast error
B. halo error
C. leniency/strictness bias
D. similarity bias
B. halo error
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-041 Answer B is correct. The halo error occurs when a rater’s rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects how the rater rates the employee on all other dimensions.
The questions included in ____________ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past.
A. a situational interview
B. a behavioral interview
C. a case interview
D. an informational interview
B. a behavioral interview
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-052 Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.
In the context of test construction, “shrinkage” is associated with:
A. inter-rater reliability.
B. factor analysis.
C. incremental validity.
D. cross-validation.
D. cross-validation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-117 Answer D is correct. Shrinkage is associated with cross-validation and refers to the fact that a validity coefficient is likely to be smaller than the original coefficient when the predictor(s) and criterion are administered to another (cross-validation) sample. Shrinkage occurs because the chance factors that contributed to the relationship between the predictor(s) and criterion in the original sample are not present in the cross-validation sample.
Donald Super’s life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between which of the following?
A. personality characteristics and characteristics of the work environment
B. career anticipation and implementation
C. life stages and major life roles
D. career maturity and career decisions
C. life stages and major life roles
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-138 Answer C is correct. Super (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996) created several illustrations to depict the relationships between elements of his life-space, life-span career theory. His life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between life stages and major life roles.
Moffitt’s (1993) “maturity gap” is most useful for understanding the etiology of which of the following disorders?
A. oppositional defiant disorder
B. late-onset attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
C. intermittent explosive disorder
D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder
D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-190 Answer D is correct. T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).
Research investigating the effects of age on susceptibility to persuasion suggests that ___________ are most resistant to persuasion.
A. young and older adults
B. young adults
C. middle-aged adults
D. older adults
C. middle-aged adults
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-080 Answer C is correct. Studies investigating the impact of age on susceptibility to persuasion have not produced entirely consistent results, but there’s some support for a U-shaped relationship between age and attitude change for adolescents and adults, with adolescents/young adults and older adults being most easily persuaded. See, e.g., P. S. Visser and J. A. Krosnick, Development of attitude strength over the life cycle: Surge and decline, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 75(6), 1389-1410, 1998.
Social facilitation is more likely than social inhibition to occur when:
A. the crowd is large.
B. the crowd is small.
C. the task is easy.
D. the task is difficult.
C. the task is easy.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-104 Answer C is correct. Social facilitation is an improvement in performance that’s caused by the mere presence of other people and affects easy and well-learned tasks.
An organizational psychologist is hired by the owner of Best Plumbing Supply to determine why so many of her employees seem to have low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. The owner says she recently gave employees salary increases and bonuses for outstanding performance, but this did not have a noticeable effect. Being familiar with ____________, the psychologist will most likely tell the owner that, to increase motivation and satisfaction, she should redesign the employees’ jobs so they provide opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement.
A. two-factor theory
B. equity theory
C. goal-setting theory
D. situational leadership theory
A. two-factor theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-194 Answer A is correct. The psychologist’s recommendation is most consistent with Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory which predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, and work conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate and (b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate.
Piaget attributed children’s ability to engage in deferred imitation and make-believe play to:
A. the process of accommodation.
B. the process of equilibration.
C. the use of mental operations.
D. the ability to create mental representations.
D. the ability to create mental representations.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-090 Answer D is correct. Piaget attributed deferred imitation and make-believe play to the ability to create mental representations, which emerges during the final substage of the sensorimotor period at about 18 months of age. Note, however, that subsequent research found that children engage in deferred imitation and other behaviors that depend on mental representations prior to this age.
Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention (RP) model identifies which of the following as the immediate precipitant of alcohol use after a period of abstinence?
A. craving for alcohol
B. high-risk situations
C. lifestyle imbalance
D. “apparently irrelevant decisions”
B. high-risk situations
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-202 Answer B is correct. Marlatt and Gordon’s RP model proposes that relapse is the result of immediate determinants and covert antecedents and describes high risk situations (an immediate determinant) as the immediate precipitators of alcohol use after a period of abstinence. See, e.g., M. E. Larimer, R. S. Palmer, and G. A. Marlatt, Relapse prevention: An overview of Marlatt’s cognitive-behavioral model, Alcohol Research and Health, 23(2), 151-160, 1999.
A picture of a knife is projected onto a screen so that it’s briefly presented only to the right visual field of a split-brain patient, and a picture of a fork is then briefly presented only to the patient’s left visual field. When asked to verbally identify what he has seen, the patient:
A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.
B. will be able to say “fork” and, although he can’t say “knife,” will be able to pick out a knife with his right hand.
C. will be able to say “knife” but won’t be able to say “fork” or pick out a fork with his right or left hand.
D. will be able to say “fork” but won’t be able to say “knife” or pick out a knife with his right or left hand.
A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-079 Answer A is correct. Ordinarily information received by the left hemisphere is shared with the right hemisphere and vice versa, but split-brain patients have had their corpus callosums severed to control severe epilepsy which limits communication between the two hemispheres. Most language processing occurs in the left hemisphere, so split-brain patients can verbally identify images that are projected to the right visual field because information about those images is sent via the optic nerve to the left hemisphere. In contrast, split-brain patients cannot verbally identify images that are presented to the left visual field because that information is sent to the right hemisphere and isn’t shared with the left hemisphere. However, they can pick out the objects depicted in the images with their left hands because the right hemisphere controls the left hand.
The Bender-Gestalt II is a measure of visual-motor integration that’s also used as a:
A. screening test for brain damage.
B. screening test for mental maturity.
C. measure of behavioral inhibition.
D. measure of executive functioning.
A. screening test for brain damage.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PAS-Clinical Tests-109 Answer A is correct. Although the Bender-Gestalt II does not provide detailed information about the location or effects of brain damage, it’s considered useful as a screening test for brain damage, especially right parietal lobe damage.
The court’s ruling in the 1979 case of Larry P. v. Wilson Riles:
A. prohibited businesses from using IQ tests to make hiring decisions about African American job applicants.
B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes.
C. granted all children with disabilities the right to be provided with public education in the least restrictive environment.
D. granted businesses the right to use cognitive ability tests to make employment decisions as long as the tests have adequate validity.
B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-131 Answer B is correct. In the Larry P. case, the court concluded that use of standardized IQ tests to place children in special education classes resulted in a disproportionate number of African American students being placed in those classes and ruled that the tests could no longer be used for that purpose for African American students.
An assumption of dialectical behavior therapy is that borderline personality disorder is attributable to which of the following?
A. inadequate response-contingent reinforcement
B. split perceptions of self and others into unrealistic extremes
C. emotion dysregulation
D. dysfunctional self-schemas
C. emotion dysregulation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Personality Disorders-223 Answer C is correct. M. Linehan’s dialectical behavior therapy is based on the assumption that borderline personality disorder is a disorder of the emotion regulation system that involves high emotional vulnerability coupled with an inability to regulate emotions (Cognitive-behavioral treatment of borderline personality disorder, New York, Guilford Press, 1993).
Moscovici’s (1980) research on minority influence found that a group member with a minority opinion must rely on which of the following to persuade members with the opposing (majority) opinion to adopt his or her opinion?
A. informational influence
B. normative influence
C. behavioral style
D. psychological reactance
C. behavioral style
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-115 Answer C is correct. According to Moscovici, a group member with a minority opinion must rely on behavioral style to persuade the majority – i.e., the member must be consistent in expressing his/her opinion without seeming too rigid or dogmatic.
For a practitioner of Beck’s cognitive behavior therapy, the automatic thoughts associated with depression reflect which of the following?
A. a lack of control over one’s emotions, behavior, and environment
B. should’s and must’s
C. negative views of oneself, the world, and the future
D. catastrophic interpretations of both negative and neutral events
C. negative views of oneself, the world, and the future
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-100 Answer C is correct. Beck’s (1979) cognitive model of depression describes it as involving a negative cognitive triad that consists of negative views of oneself, the world, and the future.
An advertising agency has been hired by a dog food company to re-design the labels for its products. The agency prepares seven different labels for canned dog food and, to determine which label customers prefer, has a sample of 300 dog owners choose the label they like the most. Which of the following is the appropriate statistical test to use to determine if there’s a significant difference in the number of dog owners who chose each label?
A. single-sample chi-square test
B. multiple-sample chi-square test
C. one-way ANOVA
D. factorial ANOVA
A. single-sample chi-square test
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-059 Answer A is correct. The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. However, this study has only one variable and, in this situation, it’s just necessary to identify that variable’s scale of measurement: The variable is type of label and it’s measured on a nominal scale. The chi-square test is used to analyze nominal data and, when there’s only one variable, the single-sample chi-square test is the appropriate test. Note that the single-sample chi-square test is also known as the one-sample chi-square test and the chi-square goodness-of-fit test.
To be consistent with APA guidelines, you would not use which of the following to describe research participants in an article about your study?
A. transgender women
B. Native American adolescents
C. the autism spectrum disorder group
D. physically challenged adults
D. physically challenged adults
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-219 Answer D is correct. Of the descriptions given in the answers, “physically challenged adults” is least consistent with guidelines presented in the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association: Ordinarily, when describing people with a disorder or other condition, people-first language should be used (e.g., adults with physical challenges), but there are exceptions to this general rule. For example, when describing a research study and different groups are distinguished, it would be acceptable to refer to a group as “the autism spectrum disorder group” (answer C).
Cataplexy, hypocretin deficiency, and short rapid eye movement sleep latency are symptoms of:
A. narcolepsy.
B. sleep apnea.
C. temporal lobe seizures.
D. Tourette’s syndrome.
A. narcolepsy.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-184 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of narcolepsy requires irrepressible episodes of sleep (daytime naps) with at least one of the following: cataplexy, hypocretin deficiency, or REM sleep latency less than or equal to 15 minutes.
The owner of several fast-food restaurants tells you she’s concerned about the low job satisfaction and poor job performance of many of her employees. She says she’s heard that “satisfied workers are productive workers” and asks what the research has found about this. You tell her that the studies support which of the following?
A. Satisfied workers are, in fact, always productive workers.
B. Productive workers are always satisfied workers.
C. Workers who are rewarded for their productivity are most productive and satisfied.
D. Workers who are happy with their lives are most productive and satisfied.
C. Workers who are rewarded for their productivity are most productive and satisfied.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-206 Answer C is correct. The research has found that the relationship between satisfaction and performance is stronger when pay and other reinforcers are closely linked to performance (e.g., Podsakoff & Williams, 1986).
The standard error of the mean increases in size as the:
A. population standard deviation and sample size decrease.
B. population standard deviation and sample size increase.
C. population standard deviation increases and sample size decreases.
D. population standard deviation decreases and sample size increases.
C. population standard deviation increases and sample size decreases.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-037 Answer C is correct. The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean and is used to determine how well a sample mean estimates a population mean. It’s calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size, and it increases as the population standard deviation increases and the sample size decreases, and vice versa.
Which of the following is not one of the microaggressions identified by D. W. Sue et al. (2007)?
A. microinequity
B. microassault
C. microinvalidation
D. microinsult
A. microinequity
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-215 Answer A is correct. As defined by D. W. Sue et al., microaggressions “are brief and commonplace daily verbal, behavioral, or environmental indignities, whether intentional or unintentional, that communicate hostile, derogatory, or negative racial slights and insults toward people of color” (Racial microaggressions in daily life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62(4), 271-286, 2007). Microassault, microinvalidation, and microinsult are the three types of microaggression identified by these investigators.
Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (2003) racial/cultural identity development model predicts that an African American client in the ____________ stage will most likely prefer having a White therapist.
A. disintegration
B. resistance
C. dissonance
D. conformity
D. conformity
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-221 Answer D is correct. Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s racial/cultural identity development model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Minority group members in the conformity stage have negative attitudes toward their own minority group and other minority groups and positive attitudes toward Whites (the dominant group). They view White culture as superior and, with regard to therapy, prefer a White therapist.
Dr. Miller is hired by an insurance company to develop a performance appraisal measure for salespeople. She’s most likely to recommend that the company use a relative measure (as opposed to a Likert-type rating scale) because relative measures:
A. are more acceptable to both raters and rates.
B. allow the rater to focus on typical (rather than maximum) performance.
C. are less susceptible to some rater biases.
D. provide more useful information for employee feedback.
C. are less susceptible to some rater biases.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment–030 Answer C is correct. An advantage of relative job performance measures is that they reduce leniency, strictness, and central tendency rater biases.
Age-related changes in fluid intelligence have been linked to changes in processing speed and:
A. working memory.
B. sensory memory.
C. recent long-term memory.
D. prospective memory.
A. working memory.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-018 Answer A is correct. The research has consistently found moderate to high correlations between measures of processing speed, working memory, and fluid intelligence. There are several explanations for these correlations. One explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed cause changes in working memory that, in turn, cause changes in fluid intelligence. Another explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed and working memory have independent effects on fluid intelligence. See, e.g., A. Demetriou, G. Spanoudis, M. Shayer, S. van der Ven, C. R. Brydges, E. Kroesbergen, G. Podjarny, and H. L. Swanson, Relations between speed, working memory, and intelligence from preschool to adulthood: Structural equation modeling of 14 studies, Intelligence, 46, 107-121, 2014.
Brain imaging studies have linked the negative symptoms of schizophrenia to:
A. an overactive HPA axis.
B. a smaller-than-normal cerebellum.
C. temporal-limbic overactivity.
D. prefrontal underactivity.
D. prefrontal underactivity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-099 Answer D is correct. Prefrontal underactivity is also known as hypofrontality and refers to reduced blood flow to the frontal lobes. It has been linked to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Temporal-limbic overactivity has been linked to the disorder’s positive symptoms.
Simon’s (1957) bounded rationality model of decision-making proposes that the assumptions underlying the rational model are often violated because:
A. organizational decisions tend to be incremental.
B. decision-makers tend to satisfice rather than optimize.
C. the decision-making process is susceptible to groupthink.
D. decision-makers rarely get feedback on the outcomes of their decisions.
B. decision-makers tend to satisfice rather than optimize.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-188 Answer B is correct. According to the bounded rationality model, rational decision-making is limited by individual and organizational factors and, as a result, decision makers often satisfice – i.e., they consider alternatives only until a minimally acceptable alternative is found.
Huntington’s disease is a progressive autosomal dominant disorder that has been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the:
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B. basal ganglia.
C. hypothalamus.
D. brainstem.
B. basal ganglia.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-177 Answer B is correct. The basal ganglia are responsible for voluntary motor control, and the motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease have been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the basal ganglia, especially the caudate nucleus and putamen.
An employer is concerned about the low motivation of many of her employees and decides to interview them to obtain information on how to alleviate this problem. Being familiar with Vroom’s (1964) expectancy theory, the employer will ask employees about all of the following except:
A. expectancy.
B. instrumentality.
C. commitment.
D. valence.
C. commitment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-200 Answer C is correct. Knowing that expectancy theory is also known as VIE theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: “V” refers to valence, “I” to instrumentality, and “E” to expectancy.
Strength, accessibility, and specificity have been identified as factors that affect:
A. the extent to which a person can resist persuasion.
B. the likelihood that a person’s behaviors will alter his/her attitudes.
C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors.
D. the persuasiveness of an advertisement or other message.
C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-036 Answer C is correct. Research has found that the strength of the relationship between a person’s attitudes and his/her behaviors is affected by several factors, including the strength, accessibility, and specificity of the attitudes. See e.g., C. A. Sanderson, Social psychology, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2010.
____________ preventions are aimed at lowering the prevalence of a disorder by identifying individuals who have early signs or symptoms of the disorder and providing them with an intervention to limit its intensity or duration.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
B. Secondary
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-161 Answer B is correct. The goal of secondary prevention is to stop the progression of a disorder by using a screening test or other procedure to identify individuals with early signs or symptoms of the disorder and providing them with an appropriate intervention.
Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is characterized by recurrent temper outbursts with:
A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
B. a persistently manic or hypomanic mood between outbursts.
C. extreme mood lability between outbursts.
D. moderate or severe depression between outbursts.
A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-121 Answer A is correct. As described in DSM-5, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation with a persistently irritable or angry mood most of the day and nearly every day between outbursts.
Which of the following describes the relationship between a test’s reliability coefficient and its criterion-related validity coefficient?
A. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than its reliability coefficient.
B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient.
C. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of one minus its reliability coefficient.
D. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square of its reliability coefficient.
B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-106 Answer B is correct. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. For example, if a test has a reliability coefficient of .81, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of .81, which is .90.
You would use which of the following tests to evaluate the receptive vocabulary of a 10-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder?
A. PPVT-5
B. Vineland-II
C. Leiter-3
D. KABC-II
A. PPVT-5
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-051 Answer A is correct. The PPVT-5 (Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, Fifth Edition) is used to assess the receptive vocabulary of individuals ages 2 years, 6 months to 90+ years. It can be used with individuals who have autism spectrum disorder, symptoms of psychosis, or cerebral palsy or other physical disability.
Dr. Edison is a behavior therapist who specializes in treating cigarette smoking, nail biting, and other undesirable habits. While at a charity fundraiser, he meets the editor of a local newspaper and they agree that Dr. Edison will help the editor stop smoking in exchange for an article about his services in the newspaper. In terms of ethical requirements, this arrangement is:
A. acceptable as long as it does not interfere with Dr. Edison’s ability to provide treatment to the editor in an objective, competent manner.
B. acceptable as long as Dr. Edison and the editor agree that it’s an equitable exchange.
C. unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited from compensating employees of newspapers in exchange for a newspaper article about their services.
D. unacceptable because psychologists are required to avoid conflicts of interest.
C. unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited from compensating employees of newspapers in exchange for a newspaper article about their services.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-102 Answer C is correct. This is the best answer because it accurately describes the requirements of Standard 5.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that psychologists “do not compensate employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item.” This answer is also consistent with Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibits psychologists from exploiting “any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the dignity or well-being of their primary clients, contract examinees, research participants, students, trainees, employers, or others.”
Dr. Haar is concerned that the statistics tests she uses for her introductory statistics class are too difficult since so few students pass them. To make her tests a little easier, she will want to remove some items that have an item difficulty index (p) of ________ and add some items that have an item difficulty index of ________.
A. +1.0 and higher; -1.0 and lower
B. +.50 and higher; -.50 and lower
C. .85 and higher; .15 and lower
D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher
D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-005 Answer D is correct. The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very difficult item (none of the examinees answered it correctly) and 1.0 indicating a very easy item (all examinees answered it correctly). Therefore, to make the statistics tests easier, Dr. Haar will want to remove some of the very difficult items (e.g., those with a p value of .15 and lower) and add some easy items (e.g., those with a p value of .85 and higher).
Dr. Connor is a solution-focused family therapist, and his new clients are Mr. and Mrs. Bingham and their two sons, 7-year-old Bob and 9-year-old Brett. During the first session, Mrs. Bingham says that their main concern is that Brett’s misbehavior causes a lot of problems at home and constantly gets him into trouble at school. After asking Mr. and Mrs. Bingham for some examples of what they mean, Dr. Connor will most likely ask which of the following questions?
A. What was happening right before the last time Brett got into trouble?
B. Which of Brett’s behaviors cause the most problems at home and at school?
C. What kind of things does Brett do when he’s not causing problems at home?
D. What usually happens when Brett gets into trouble at school?
C. What kind of things does Brett do when he’s not causing problems at home?
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Brief Therapies-072 Answer C is correct. Asking Brett’s parents what kind of things Brett does when he’s not causing problems is an example of an exception question. Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapists to help clients see that the presenting problem doesn’t always occur and to help them identify solutions to the problem.
Soon after a young child learns that the family pet is a “doggie,” he starts calling cats and all other furry four-legged animals “doggie.” According to Piaget, this is an example of which of the following?
A. assimilation
B. equilibration
C. accommodation
D. horizontal decalage
A. assimilation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-088 Answer A is correct. Piaget proposed that the construction of knowledge involves adaptation, which consists of two processes – assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation occurs when children apply their existing schemes (cognitive structures) to new experiences, while accommodation occurs when children modify their existing schemes to better fit new experiences. Applying the word “doggie” to all furry four-legged animals is an example of assimilation.
Job applicants who are hired on the basis of their scores on a job selection test but then obtain unsatisfactory scores on a measure of job performance six months later are:
A. false negatives.
B. true negatives.
C. false positives.
D. true positives.
C. false positives.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-095 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to remember that a person’s score on the predictor (in this case, the job selection test) determines whether he/she is a “positive” or “negative” and that the person’s score on the criterion (the measure of job performance) determines whether he/she is a “true” or “false” positive or negative. Therefore, for this question, a “true positive,” is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test and receives satisfactory scores on the job performance measure, while a “false positive” (the correct answer) is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test but receives unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure. A “true negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test and would have received unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired, while a “false negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test but would have received satisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired.
An advocate of leader-member exchange theory is most likely to agree that:
A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates.
B. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with introverted and extraverted coworkers.
C. leaders are most effective when they combine a high degree of consideration with a high degree of initiating structure.
D. leaders are most effective when they tailor rewards and other outcomes to each worker’s needs.
A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-182 Answer A is correct. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.
Bem’s (1981) gender schema theory incorporates elements of which of the following to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity?
A. cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory
B. cognitive developmental theory and psychodynamic theory
C. behavioral learning theory and biological theory
D. behavioral learning theory and psychodynamic theory
A. cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-162 Answer A is correct. Bem’s gender schema theory combines elements of cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity. According to this theory, children acquire information about gender from the social environment, which they encode and process to derive cognitive schemas that they use to understand and evaluate themselves and others.
The technique known as orgasmic reconditioning has been identified as an effective treatment for which of the following?
A. delayed ejaculation
B. female orgasmic disorder
C. premature ejaculation
D. paraphilic disorder
D. paraphilic disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-208 Answer D is correct. Orgasmic reconditioning, covert sensitization, and aversion treatment are behavioral interventions that are used to treat paraphilic disorders. Orgasmic reconditioning involves teaching the individual to become sexually aroused to more acceptable mental images and fantasies.
To use the Taylor-Russell tables to estimate a predictor’s incremental validity, you need to know the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient and which of the following?
A. selection ratio and base rate
B. selection ratio and number of job openings
C. base rate and positive hit rate
D. number of job openings and positive hit rate
A. selection ratio and base rate
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-085 Answer A is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of the percent of future employees who will be successful on the job when an employer adds the new predictor to the current selection procedure. To use the Taylor-Russell tables, you need to know the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.
Based on her observations of children 2-1/2 to 4 years of age, Mildred Parten (1932) derived six types of social participation that differ in terms of level of social complexity. Of these six types, she identified which of the following as the most socially complex?
A. parallel play
B. mastery play
C. cooperative play
D. associative play
C. cooperative play
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-192 Answer C is correct. Parten concluded that the six types of social participation emerge sequentially and progress from least to most complex in terms of social interaction and cooperation: unoccupied behavior, solitary play, onlooker behavior, parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play.
When assigning a diagnosis of intellectual disability, you consider which of the following to determine the disorder’s severity level?
A. the individual’s level of cognitive functioning
B. the individual’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains
C. the discrepancy between the individual’s cognitive and academic functioning
D. the discrepancy between the individual’s cognitive and adaptive functioning
B. the individual’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-001 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 distinguishes between four levels of intellectual disability (mild, moderate, severe, and profound), which are determined by considering the individual’s level of adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.
A researcher wants to evaluate the effects of virtual reality exposure for treating the storm, height, and spider phobias of a 34-year-old woman. The best single-subject research design for evaluating this treatment is which of the following?
A. multiple baseline
B. reversal
C. discrete trials
D. time series
A. multiple baseline
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-026 Answer A is correct. Of the three single-subject designs listed in the answers (multiple baseline, reversal, and discrete trials), the multiple baseline design would be the most appropriate because it would allow the researcher to determine if the treatment is effective for any of the woman’s phobias by sequentially applying the treatment to them. In addition, the multiple baseline design doesn’t require a treatment to be withdrawn once it’s been applied to a behavior. Consequently, if the treatment has a beneficial effect on any of the woman’s phobias, the researcher would not have to withdraw the treatment during the course of the study just for the sake of assessing its effects.
Tiedeman’s career decision-making model links vocational identity development to:
A. cognitive maturation.
B. ego identity development.
C. career maturity.
D. life roles.
B. ego identity development.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-146 Answer B is correct. Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) career decision-making model views vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that’s linked to Erikson’s stages of ego identity development.
Which of the following is most consistent with ethical guidelines for contingent fees?
A. Accepting contingent fees is prohibited under any circumstances.
B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.
C. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable when all parties voluntarily agree to this arrangement.
D. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable as long as it is not prohibited by law.
B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-135 Answer B is correct. The APA Ethics Code does not refer to contingent fees, but they are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states that, “because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Canadian Code of Ethics regarding fees for professional services and conflicts of interest (e.g., Standard III.28).
When using positive reinforcement to establish or increase a behavior, use of which of the following intermittent schedules of reinforcement will maximize the behavior’s resistance to extinction?
A. fixed interval
B. variable interval
C. fixed ratio
D. variable ratio
D. variable ratio
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-092 Answer D is correct. When using a variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after four responses, then after two responses, then after six responses, and so on. Of the intermittent schedules, the variable ratio schedule produces the fastest rate of acquisition and the greatest resistance to extinction. Slot machines provide reinforcement on this schedule.
Dr. Osprey conducted a study to evaluate the effects of an anti-drug program on attitudes toward drug use for middle school students from low-income families. Subjects were 662 7th and 8th graders attending an inner-city school. Attitudes toward drugs were assessed in the second week of September, the five-hour anti-drug program was administered in five one-hour sessions during the second week of October, and attitudes toward drugs were then re-assessed in the second week of November. Results indicated that the program significantly increased negative attitudes toward drug use. The biggest threat to the internal validity of this study is which of the following?
A. statistical regression
B. selection
C. reactivity
D. history
D. history
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-004 Answer D is correct. History threatens a study’s internal validity whenever an external event that occurs during the course of the study has a systematic effect on subjects’ scores or status on the dependent variable(s). Given that this study includes only one group of subjects and takes place over a two-month period of time, the biggest threat to its internal validity is history. For example, many of the students may have changed their attitudes not because of the anti-drug program but because they were exposed to information about drug use during the two months in a biology or health class or a TV or billboard ad campaign.
Your new client is Adam, a 19-year-old college sophomore, who says his restlessness, inability to concentrate, and impulsiveness are interfering with his ability to do well in his classes. He tells you that, when he was a child, his pediatrician thought he had attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. However, his symptoms – especially his hyperactivity – started “getting better” when he was in high school. To assign a diagnosis of ADHD to Adam, he must have at least:
A. five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity.
B. six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity.
C. a total of five symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity.
D. a total of six symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity.
A. five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-045 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for children, or at least five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for individuals 17 years of age and older.
After conditioning dogs to salivate to a tone by repeatedly pairing the tone with food, Pavlov attempted to extinguish the conditioned salivation response by repeatedly presenting the tone without the food. After numerous presentations of the tone alone, the dogs stopped salivating in response to it. However, when the dogs were returned to the laboratory on the day after the conditioned response had been extinguished, presentation of the tone alone elicited some salivation. Pavlov referred to the return of the conditioned response after extinction trials as:
A. experimental neurosis.
B. second-order conditioning.
C. response generalization.
D. spontaneous recovery.
D. spontaneous recovery.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-020 Answer D is correct. Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of an extinguished conditioned response without the conditioned stimulus being presented again with the unconditioned stimulus. According to Pavlov, spontaneous recovery confirms that a conditioned response is suppressed (rather than eliminated) by extinction trials.
Wolpe (1958) believed that counterconditioning was responsible for the effectiveness of his technique of systematic desensitization for eliminating an anxiety response to a particular stimulus. However, studies using the dismantling strategy found that its effects are actually due to:
A. extinction.
B. higher-order conditioning.
C. satiation.
D. stimulus discrimination.
A. extinction.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-031 Answer A is correct. Use of the dismantling strategy to identify the effects of the elements of an intervention involves comparing the elements by administering different elements to different groups of subjects. When this strategy was used to determine which elements of systematic desensitization accounted for its effectiveness, researchers found it was repeated exposure to the feared (conditioned) stimulus that eliminated the anxiety response and that pairing the feared stimulus with a stimulus that produced relaxation (counterconditioning) was unnecessary. In other words, the anxiety response was extinguished by repeatedly exposing the individual to the feared stimulus.
Older adults with mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease would most likely obtain the highest score on the WAIS-IV __________ Index and lowest score on the __________ Index.
A. Verbal Comprehension; Working Memory
B. Working Memory; Perceptual Reasoning
C. Perceptual Reasoning; Processing Speed
D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed
D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-040 Answer D is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean Index scores for individuals with mild Alzheimer’s disease: Verbal Comprehension 86.2, Perceptual Reasoning 85.8, Working Memory 84.3, and Processing Speed 76.6.
In their discussion of the use of culture-specific techniques in psychotherapy, Sue and Zane (1987) emphasize the importance of “gift giving” during the initial therapy sessions when working with Asian American and other non-Western clients. As described by these investigators, gift giving includes:
A. establishing credibility by demonstrating expertise.
B. ensuring confidentiality.
C. instilling hope and providing reassurance.
D. introducing the topic of race or ethnicity.
C. instilling hope and providing reassurance.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-218 Answer C is correct. As described by S. Sue and N. Zane, gift giving involves ensuring that clients feel they have received immediate benefits from therapy and includes normalizing the client’s feelings and experiences, providing reassurance, instilling hope, teaching coping skills, and helping the client set goals for therapy (The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987). Note that Sue and Zane identify credibility as an important treatment issue when working with non-Western clients, but they describe it as a separate issue and not a factor that contributes to gift giving.
Studies investigating ____________ often place infants in uncertain situations that include a stranger, a novel toy or other object, or the visual cliff.
A. basic temperament
B. problem-solving
C. social referencing
D. self-awareness
C. social referencing
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-168 Answer C is correct. Social referencing refers to the use of the emotional reactions of a parent or other person to determine how to respond in ambiguous situations. Most studies on social referencing in infancy have created an ambiguous situation by presenting the infants with a stranger, a novel object, or the visual cliff while a parent or other caregiver is nearby.
Long-term potentiation (LTP) has been linked to:
A. REM sleep.
B. visual processing.
C. seizure disorders.
D. memory storage.
D. memory storage.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-147 Answer D is correct. LTP refers to an increase in synaptic efficacy as the result of repetitive stimulation and is believed to play an important role in the formation and storage of new memories.
As defined by Wrenn (1985), culturally encapsulated therapists:
A. assume that the problems of clients from cultural minority groups are related to their minority status.
B. make judgments on the basis of their own cultural assumptions which they view as applicable to all clients regardless of their cultural background.
C. recognize the impact of culture on behavior but strive to modify the behavior of clients from cultural minority groups to better fit the demands of the dominant culture.
D. attempt to be culturally competent but are unaware of the cultural biases that affect their work with clients from culturally diverse backgrounds.
B. make judgments on the basis of their own cultural assumptions which they view as applicable to all clients regardless of their cultural background.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-203 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Wrenn’s definition of cultural encapsulation. According to Wrenn, culturally encapsulated counselors define reality in terms of their own cultural assumptions and assume their assumption are correct and are insensitive to cultural variations.
According to Berry’s (1990) acculturation model, a person is ____________ when he or she has rejected his or her own minority culture and the dominant culture.
A. marginalized
B. separated
C. unacculturated
D. transmutated
A. marginalized
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-197 Answer A is correct. Berry’s model distinguishes between four levels of acculturation that are determined by the person’s acceptance or rejection of his/her own minority culture and the majority culture: integrated, assimilated, separated, and marginalized. A person is marginalized when he/she has rejected both cultures.
To be consistent with the requirements of the APA Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics, the potential limits of confidentiality should ordinarily be discussed with a therapy client:
A. as soon as possible.
B. as part of the informed consent process.
C. at the outset of therapy.
D. at the outset of therapy and subsequently as needed.
D. at the outset of therapy and subsequently as needed.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-076 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because it’s most similar to the language of Standard 4.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that, “unless it is not feasible or is contraindicated, the discussion of confidentiality occurs at the outset of the relationship and thereafter as new circumstances may warrant.” This answer is also consistent with Standard I.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which notes that informed consent may “need to be obtained more than once (e.g., if significant new information becomes available).”
Following a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged woman experiences considerable anterograde and retrograde amnesia. When she begins to recall events that occurred in the past, she’ll most likely remember which of the following first?
A. where she and her family went on vacation three years ago.
B. what she gave her sister for her birthday last year.
C. the argument she had with her oldest daughter three weeks ago.
D. the events that happened on the morning of her injury.
A. where she and her family went on vacation three years ago.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-171 Answer A is correct. Many patients who experience retrograde amnesia as the result of a traumatic brain injury exhibit “shrinking retrograde amnesia” over time. This means that the period of retrograde amnesia gradually shortens with the most distant memories returning first.
The two main types of integrity tests that are used to assist with selection decisions are:
A. general and specific trait tests.
B. covert and behavior-based tests.
C. objective and subjective tests.
D. overt and personality-based tests.
D. overt and personality-based tests.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-063 Answer D is correct. There are two main types of integrity tests: Overt integrity tests ask directly about attitudes toward and previous history of dishonesty and theft, while personality-based integrity tests assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors.
As described by Margaret Mahler (1971), _____________ involves four substages: differentiation, practicing, rapprochement, and consolidation.
A. the stage of mature attachment
B. the stage of autonomy
C. deindividuation
D. separation-individuation
D. separation-individuation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-028 Answer D is correct. As described by Mahler, early development involves a predictable sequence of stages: autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. The separation-individuation stage consists of the four substages listed in the question. By the end of this stage, children have developed the capacity for object constancy which allows them to feel both separate from and connected to significant others.
Which of the following is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?
A. motion parallax
B. interposition of objects
C. retinal disparity
D. linear perspective
C. retinal disparity
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-139 Answer C is correct. Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.
At the beginning of the school year, a researcher tells a first-grade teacher that a test had been administered to all students in kindergarten and the results indicated that five of her 22 students – Bob G., Liang C., Ellen A., Isadore R., and Lucia V. – will show significant gains in academic achievement this year. Even though the five children were actually randomly selected, all showed significant gains in academic skills by the end of the school year. Which of the following best explains these results?
A. the Hawthorne effect
B. the Rosenthal effect
C. the positive halo effect
D. the confirmation bias
B. the Rosenthal effect
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-LIF-School and Family Influences-210 Answer B is correct. This question describes a study that’s similar to the study conducted by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) who found that teachers’ expectations for students identified as academic “spurters” (but who were actually randomly chosen) had a positive effect on the students’ IQ scores and grades. This effect is known by several names including the Rosenthal effect, the Pygmalion effect, and the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
____________ viewed schizophrenia and other severe mental disorders as the result of a multigenerational transmission process.
A. Salvador Minuchin
B. Jay Haley
C. Murray Bowen
D. William Glasser
C. Murray Bowen
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-133 Answer C is correct. Bowen considered severe mental disorders to be the result of a multigenerational transmission process in which progressively lower levels of differentiation are transmitted over several generations.
