Test 1 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Dr. Dennis, an organizational psychologist, is hired by a company to develop and validate a new selection test for customer service representatives. When she conducts a concurrent validity study on the test she develops, Dr. Dennis finds that it has a validity coefficient of .65 for men and a validity coefficient of .20 for women. This suggests that the test has:
A. differential validity for men and women.
B. divergent validity for men and women.
C. differential selection for men and women.
D. inadequate validity for both men and women.

Answer

A

A. differential validity for men and women.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-096 Answer A is correct. A selection test or other employment procedure has differential validity when it has significantly different validity coefficients for members of different groups. Differential validity is a potential cause of adverse impact.

Question 2

Q

You receive a letter from a colleague requesting that you send her a copy of the record of Donald D., a former client of yours. The request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Donald. Donald abruptly ended his sessions with you three months ago, at which time he owed you for his past four therapy sessions. You’ve sent two letters to Donald about his unpaid bill, but he has not responded. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you:
A. must forward the record to the colleague since Donald has signed an authorization allowing you to do so.
B. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague until you and Donald reach an agreement about how he will pay his outstanding fees.
C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.
D. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if you explained this policy to Donald as part of the informed consent process when he began therapy.

Answer

A

C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-151 Answer C is correct. Ethical requirements for this situation are provided in Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” This answer is also consistent with the Preamble and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Note, however, that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations.

Question 3

Q

Research by Baumrind (1971) and others has found that the best outcomes for children and adolescents occur when their parents have an authoritative parenting style, which is characterized by which of the following?
A. low demandingness and low responsiveness
B. low demandingness and high responsiveness
C. high demandingness and low responsiveness
D. high demandingness and high responsiveness

Answer

A

D. high demandingness and high responsiveness

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-156 Answer D is correct. Authoritative parents are both responsive and demanding: They are warm and sensitive to their children’s needs; and, while they have clear rules and exert firm control over their children’s behaviors, their rules are reasonable and, as appropriate, they include children in decision-making and encourage their autonomy. Children and adolescents of these parents tend to be self-reliant, friendly, and cooperative, have high self-esteem, and do well in school.

Question 4

Q

The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with __________ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to.
A. interposition
B. kinetic
C. binocular
D. pictorial

Answer

A

B. kinetic

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-077 Answer B is correct. In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months (The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants, in D. Ingle, D. Lee, and R. M. Jeannerod (Eds.), Brain mechanisms and spatial vision, pp. 113-145, Amsterdam, Martinus Nijhoff Press, 1985).

Question 5

Q

Studies investigating the outcomes associated with the compressed workweek have found that it has:
A. a similarly strong positive effect on job satisfaction and job productivity.
B. a positive effect on job satisfaction but a negative effect on job productivity.
C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity.
D. a stronger positive effect on job productivity than on job satisfaction.

Answer

A

C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-164 Answer C is correct. Research on the compressed workweek has found that it has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction and a positive but weaker effect on job productivity (Baltes et al., 1999).

Question 6

Q

Therapy based on Boyd-Franklin’s (1989) multisystems model:
A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.
B. includes interventions that target the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.
C. combines individual interventions for each family member with group therapy and family therapy.
D. involves progressively intervening at the individual, family, and community levels.

Answer

A

A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-191 Answer A is correct. Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model specifically for African American families. The model consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while Axis II consists of the various levels at which treatment can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, community).

Question 7

Q

A company’s current selection procedure for computer programmers consists of seven predictors that are used to predict the job performance score that a job applicant will receive six months after being hired. The owner of the company wants to reduce the costs and time required to make selection decisions. Which of the following would be most useful for determining the fewest number of predictors needed to make accurate predictions about applicants’ job performance scores?
A. linear regression analysis
B. discriminant function analysis
C. stepwise multiple regression
D. factor analysis

Answer

A

C. stepwise multiple regression

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-127 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is used to predict a person’s score on a single criterion (e.g., job performance measure) using two or more predictors. Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression that’s used to identify the fewest number of predictors needed to make an accurate prediction

Question 8

Q

In their Robbers Cave study, Sherif and his colleagues (1966) found that competition between two groups of boys for desired prizes produced a high degree of intergroup hostility. These results provide support for which of the following theories of prejudice and discrimination?
A. social identity theory
B. realistic conflict theory
C. scapegoat theory
D. extended contact theory

Answer

A

B. realistic conflict theory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-145 Answer B is correct. According to realistic conflict theory, prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between groups for scarce and valued resources. Evidence for this theory is provided by Sherif’s Robbers Cave study in which conflict between groups was generated by having two groups of boys who had strong attachments to members of their own group compete for desired prizes.

Question 9

Q

A therapy client who had an insensitive, authoritarian father begins to respond to her therapist as though he’s insensitive and authoritarian. A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis would describe this as transference, while a practitioner of Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal psychotherapy would view it as:
A. a parataxic distortion.
B. a boundary disturbance.
C. projective identification.
D. displacement.

Answer

A

A. a parataxic distortion.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-083 Answer A is correct. As described by Sullivan (1953), parataxic distortions occur in all types of interpersonal relationships and involve perceiving others, not on the basis of their actual attributes, but on expectations developed from past interpersonal relationships.

Question 10

Q

Which of the following is the appropriate bivariate correlation coefficient to use when the scores to be correlated are both reported as ranks?
A. Spearman
B. Pearson
C. biserial
D. point biserial

Answer

A

A. Spearman

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-116 Answer A is correct. The full-name of the Spearman correlation coefficient is the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient. As its name suggests, it’s used to correlate scores on two variables that are reported as ranks.

Question 11

Q

Erik Erikson (1978) identified a positive outcome (“virtue”) for each of his eight stages of psychosocial development. Which of the following does not accurately match a stage with its positive outcome?
A. generativity vs. stagnation: care
B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose
C. industry vs. inferiority: competence
D. basic trust vs. mistrust: hope

Answer

A

B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-150 Answer B is correct. Erikson identified will (initiative and self-determination) as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.

Question 12

Q

You obtain the data you need from a sample of licensed psychologists to calculate a correlation coefficient for their EPPP score and yearly salary five years after taking the exam. If you square the correlation coefficient, you will obtain a(n) _______________, which indicates the amount of variability in yearly salary that’s accounted for by EPPP score.
A. coefficient of concordance
B. coefficient of determination
C. kappa coefficient
D. eta coefficient

Answer

A

B. coefficient of determination

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-105 Answer B is correct. Squaring a correlation coefficient produces a coefficient of determination, which is a measure of shared variability – or, put another way, a measure of the amount of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.

Question 13

Q

The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.
A. alternate forms
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. inter-rater

Answer

A

B. internal consistency

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).

Question 14

Q

Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement

Answer

A

C. overcorrection

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-086 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and is classified as a type of positive punishment. It consists of two components: Restitution requires the individual to fix any negative consequences of the behavior (e.g., having a child clean up the food he threw on the floor while the family ate dinner). Positive practice involves practicing more appropriate behaviors (e.g., having the child scrape the uneaten food off the plates of other family members into the garbage can).

Question 15

Q

Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change?
A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy
B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
D. the level of fear aroused by the message

Answer

A

C. the credibility of the source of the message

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-069 Answer C is correct. In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).

Question 16

Q

Sam, age 16, is brought to therapy by his mother who says he started complaining about hearing voices two weeks ago shortly after his father was diagnosed with lung cancer and that Sam also seems more nervous and tense than usual. When you ask Sam about the voices, he says they keep telling him he’s “bad and dirty” and he can’t make them go away. Sam has no history of a psychotic disorder or drug use. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. schizophrenia.
B. schizoaffective disorder.
C. brief psychotic disorder.
D. unspecified schizophrenia spectrum disorder.

Answer

A

C. brief psychotic disorder.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-067 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder requires the presence of one or more characteristic symptoms with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech for at least one day but less than one month. Sam has had an auditory hallucination for two weeks.

Question 17

Q

Research comparing mental health care service utilization rates and premature therapy dropout rates of heterosexual and LGBTQ men and women has found that:
A. heterosexual men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.
C. heterosexual men and women have a higher utilization rate, but LGBTQ men and women have a higher dropout rate.
D. LGBTQ men and women have a higher utilization rate, but heterosexual men and women have a higher dropout rate.

Answer

A

B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-173 Answer B is correct. The studies have consistently found that the rates of mental health service utilization are higher for LGBTQ men and women than for heterosexual men and women. There’s also evidence that LGBTQ men and women have higher rates of premature dropout rates from therapy.

Question 18

Q

Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (NCDLB) can be difficult to distinguish, especially in their early stages, but there are differences. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a difference between the two disorders?
A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
B. Memory loss is usually a more prominent early symptom of early Alzheimer’s disease than of early NCDLB.
C. Nonvisual hallucinations and systematized delusions are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
D. Orthostatic hypotension and other autonomic disturbances are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.

Answer

A

A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-217 Answer A is correct. Motor disturbances are a more important cause of disability in the early stages of NCDLB than in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease and include muscle rigidity, tremors, and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease. Although motor problems are also associated with Alzheimer’s disease, they usually do not occur until the disease progresses to the middle or late stage. The other three answers accurately describe differences between the two disorders. See, e.g., Alzheimer’s Association website, http://www.alz.org/dementia/dementia-with-lewy-bodies-symptoms.asp

Question 19

Q

____________ consists of three overlapping stages: conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through.
A. Self-instructional training
B. Stress inoculation training
C. Problem-solving therapy
D. Motivational interviewing

Answer

A

B. Stress inoculation training

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-111 Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s (2003) stress inoculation training is based on the assumption that acquiring effective strategies for coping with stress helps “inoculate” a person from experiencing high levels of stress in the future. It consists of the three stages listed in the question.

Question 20

Q

Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic phenomenon to study:
A. psychological reactance.
B. conformity to group norms.
C. compliance with direct requests.
D. counterfactual thinking.

Answer

A

B. conformity to group norms.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-093 Answer B is correct. Sherif used the autokinetic phenomenon (an optical illusion in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a dark room) to study conformity to group norms.

Question 21

Q

According to Carl Rogers (1951), incongruence between self and experience produces anxiety, which a person may respond to defensively by:
A. denying or distorting the experience.
B. adopting an exaggerated sense of self-worth.
C. becoming fixated at the previous stage of development.
D. developing a mistaken style of life.

Answer

A

EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-039 Answer A is correct. Rogers proposed that people often respond defensively to incongruence between self and experience with denial or distortion. Denial involves denying the existence of the experience or its significance, while distortion involves altering the meaning of the experience to make it more consistent with one’s perceived self. Although denial and distortion can provide temporary relief, they fail to resolve incongruence and can lead to psychological disturbance.

Question 22

Q

Pavlov found that, once dogs were classically conditioned to salivate in response to a tone, they subsequently salivated to tones that were somewhat lower and higher in pitch. He referred to this phenomenon as:
A. higher-order conditioning.
B. stimulus generalization.
C. experimental neurosis.
D. response generalization.

Answer

A

B. stimulus generalization.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-009 Answer B is correct. Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus (e.g. the original tone) elicit the conditioned response without ever being presented with the unconditioned stimulus.

Question 23

Q

You obtain the data you need from a sample of licensed psychologists to calculate a correlation coefficient for their EPPP score and yearly salary five years after taking the exam. If you square the correlation coefficient, you will obtain a(n) _______________, which indicates the amount of variability in yearly salary that’s accounted for by EPPP score.
A. coefficient of concordance
B. coefficient of determination
C. kappa coefficient
D. eta coefficient

Answer

A

B. coefficient of determination

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-105 Answer B is correct. Squaring a correlation coefficient produces a coefficient of determination, which is a measure of shared variability – or, put another way, a measure of the amount of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.

Question 24

Q

The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.
A. alternate forms
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. inter-rater

Answer

A

B. internal consistency

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).

Question 25

Q

Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement

Answer

A

C. overcorrection

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-086 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and is classified as a type of positive punishment. It consists of two components: Restitution requires the individual to fix any negative consequences of the behavior (e.g., having a child clean up the food he threw on the floor while the family ate dinner). Positive practice involves practicing more appropriate behaviors (e.g., having the child scrape the uneaten food off the plates of other family members into the garbage can).

Question 26

Q

According to Fiedler’s (1967) contingency theory, a low LPC leader is most effective in:
A. moderately favorable situations.
B. very unfavorable situations.
C. very favorable situations.
D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

Answer

A

D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-176 Answer D is correct. According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

Question 27

Q

Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change?
A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy
B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message
C. the credibility of the source of the message
D. the level of fear aroused by the message

Answer

A

C. the credibility of the source of the message

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-069 Answer C is correct. In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).

Question 28

Q

In the context of factor analysis, “oblique” means:
A. statistically significant.
B. statistically insignificant.
C. uncorrelated.
D. correlated.

Answer

A

D. correlated.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-071 Answer D is correct. The factors extracted (identified) in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal or oblique. Orthogonal factors are uncorrelated, while oblique factors are correlated.

Question 29

Q

Dr. Axelrod’s new client is Michael Moreland, a 35-year-old African American man. Mr. Moreland has worked steadily as a dishwasher since he was 17, but he was laid off six months ago and has been unable to find a job. His presenting symptoms suggest he’s dealing with depression. Dr. Axelrod, a White middle-class cognitive behavioral therapist, specializes in treating depression but hasn’t worked with African American or low-income clients. However, he wants to expand his scope of practice to include members of populations he has not yet worked with. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Axelrod should:
A. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy as long as he consults while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with African American and low-income clients.
B. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy but monitor his effectiveness and obtain relevant education if needed.
C. refer Mr. Moreland to another therapist who has experience working with low-income and African American clients.
D. explain his lack of experience to Mr. Moreland and let him decide whether or not to continue therapy.

Answer

A

A. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy as long as he consults while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with African American and low-income clients.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-032 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.6 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to obtain appropriate education, training, and consultation when they want to provide professional services to members of new populations or use new therapeutic techniques. An alternative would be to make a referral (answer C), but that’s not required in this situation since Dr. Axelrod specializes in treating depression and wants to expand his scope of practice.

Question 30

Q

A psychologist is planning a research study to evaluate the effects of a two-hour online lecture on statistics for improving the statistics knowledge of 35 psychologists who have just started studying for the EPPP. All participants will (1) take a pre-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions on Monday, (2) attend the online lecture on Wednesday evening, and (3) take a post-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions that are equivalent to the pre-test questions on Friday. To analyze the data she obtains in her study, the researcher will use which of the following?
A. t-test for a single sample
B. t-test for correlated samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. single-sample chi-square test

Answer

A

B. t-test for correlated samples

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-070 Answer B is correct. The first steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are to identify the independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study’s independent variable is the lecture on statistics and the dependent variable is statistics test score. The dependent variable is measured on a ratio scale, which means that the statistical test will be used to compare the mean scores obtained by the psychologists on the pre- and post-tests. The t-test and ANOVA are both used to compare mean scores, but because there are only two means, the t-test is the appropriate test. To determine which t-test to use, you determine how the means will be obtained: In this study they will be obtained from a single group of subjects, and the t-test for correlated samples is used when two means are obtained from the same group or from two groups that are related in some way.

Question 31

Q

Carstensen’s (1992) socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that, as we get older:
A. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become more important.
B. emotionally meaningful goals become more important and knowledge-related goals become less important.
C. emotionally meaningful goals become less important and knowledge-related goals become more important.
D. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become less important.

Answer

A

B. emotionally meaningful goals become more important and knowledge-related goals become less important.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-198 Answer B is correct. Carstensen’s socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that our goals change as our future time becomes more limited. It distinguishes between two types of goals – knowledge-related and emotionally meaningful – and proposes that, as we get older, we place less importance on knowledge-related goals and more importance on emotionally meaningful goals. In terms of social relationships, this means that younger people prefer relationships that fulfill their knowledge-related goals, while older people prefer relationships that fulfill their emotionally meaningful goals.

Question 32

Q

Gerald, age 39, knows he shouldn’t be so jealous and resentful of his younger sister because of her recent success in business, so he goes out of his way to praise her accomplishments and encourage her continued success. Gerald’s behavior best illustrates which of the following?
A. sublimation
B. denial
C. reaction formation
D. displacement

Answer

A

C. reaction formation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-006 Answer C is correct. Reaction formation involves converting undesirable impulses into their opposite – e.g., converting jealousy and resentment into praise and encouragement. Like other defense mechanisms, it helps alleviate anxiety caused by conflicts between the id’s impulses and the demands of the superego or the outside world.

Question 33

Q

Dr. Cho has been seeing Mr. and Mrs. Giovanni in therapy for four months. Mr. Giovanni is an insurance salesman and Mrs. Giovanni works part-time for a residential cleaning service company. Mr. Giovanni is suddenly laid off from his job and they ask if Mrs. Giovanni can exchange home cleaning services for therapy until Mr. Giovanni finds another job. Agreeing to this arrangement would be:
A. unethical.
B. ethical since it’s a temporary arrangement.
C. ethical since it involves an exchange of services (rather than goods).
D. ethical as long as Dr. Cho discusses the possible conflicts with the couple.

Answer

A

A. unethical.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-143 Answer A is correct. Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code permits barter in certain circumstances, but this arrangement would not be acceptable because it creates a potentially harmful multiple relationship – i.e., Dr. Cho will be acting as both therapist and employer and, if he’s dissatisfied with Mrs. Giovanni’s work, this could affect his objectivity in therapy. This answer is also consistent with Standards II.1, II.2, and III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 34

Q

You would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to:
A. evaluate the effects of a training program.
B. identify the “position power” of managerial-level employees.
C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis.
D. conduct an organizational analysis.

Answer

A

C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-008 Answer C is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics.

Question 35

Q

The tendency to attribute all problems experienced by students with learning disabilities to their learning disabilities and overlook other possible explanations is an example of the:
A. fundamental attribution error.
B. halo bias.
C. diagnostic overshadowing bias.
D. base rate fallacy.

Answer

A

C. diagnostic overshadowing bias.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-179 Answer C is correct. The diagnostic overshadowing bias is the tendency to attribute all of a person’s symptoms to one diagnosis (e.g., to a learning disability) and overlook the possibility that they may be due to a comorbid condition.

Question 36

Q

In a research study, children were told not to play with an attractive toy during a free play period. Some of the children were told that the consequence for playing with the toy would be mild punishment, while others were told the consequence would be more severe punishment. All of the children refrained from playing with the toy but, when subsequently asked about the toy, only those who faced the threat of mild punishment said they disliked it. These results are consistent with the predictions of which of the following?
A. cognitive dissonance theory
B. elaboration likelihood model
C. theory of planned behavior
D. balance theory

Answer

A

A. cognitive dissonance theory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-058 Answer A is correct. This question describes a study conducted by E. Aronson and J. M. Carlson (Effect of severity of threat on the devaluation of forbidden behavior, Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 66, 584-588, 1963). In that study, children in the mild punishment group changed their attitude toward the toy because they did not have adequate justification for not playing with it. In other words, there was insufficient deterrence which, like insufficient justification, caused cognitive dissonance that the children reduced by deciding they didn’t like the toy.

Question 37

Q

The organizational development technique known as survey feedback involves obtaining information on which of the following?
A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work
B. “critical incidents” associated with safety and productivity problems
C. employee skill deficiencies that would benefit from training
D. the impact of work-family conflicts on employee productivity and satisfaction

Answer

A

A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-158 Answer A is correct. Data collection is the initial step in survey feedback and involves having employees at all levels of the organization complete surveys that are used to obtain information on their attitudes, opinions, and perceptions related to work conditions, supervision, company policies, and other important issues.

Question 38

Q

For practitioners of Gestalt therapy, a key contributor to neurotic behavior is which of the following?
A. cognitive entanglement
B. exposure to conditions of worth
C. a contact boundary disturbance
D. psychological rigidity

Answer

A

C. a contact boundary disturbance

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-050 Answer C is correct. An assumption underlying Gestalt therapy is that contact boundary disturbances underlie neurosis, and it distinguishes between four main types of boundary disturbance: introjection, retroflection, projection, and confluence.

Question 39

Q

By about __________ months of age, children use two words to create a simple sentence – for example, “juice gone,” “get toy,” and “big doggie.”
A. 12 to 18
B. 18 to 24
C. 24 to 30
D. 30 to 36

Answer

A

B. 18 to 24

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Language Development-123 Answer B is correct. The use of two words to create a sentence is referred to as telegraphic speech. It begins when a child is between 18 and 24 months of age and usually includes a noun and a verb or a noun and an adjective.

Question 40

Q

According to Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1983) transtheoretical model, people in the ____________ stage of change are aware of their problem behavior, are weighing the pros and cons of changing, and feel they’ll be ready to take the steps necessary to change the behavior within the next six months.
A. precontemplation
B. preparation
C. contemplation
D. determination

Answer

A

C. contemplation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Brief Therapies-089 Answer C is correct. Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. During the contemplation stage, people are aware of the costs and benefits of changing an undesirable behavior and may be somewhat ambivalent about doing so, but they’re seriously considering taking action to change within the next six months.

Question 41

Q

Dr. Wilson is hired by the court to evaluate the mental competence of a man who has been charged as an accomplice in a bank robbery that ended in the death of a bank employee. During a break, the man brags to Dr. Wilson about his role in the bank robbery. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Wilson should:
A. not provide the court with any information she obtains without a signed authorization from the man.
B. provide the court only with information she obtains that is relevant to the man’s mental competence.
C. provide the court with information about the man’s confession along with the results of the evaluation as long as she informed the man about the limits of confidentiality prior to beginning the evaluation.
D. provide the court with information about the man’s confession along with the results of the evaluation whether or not she informed the man about the limits of confidentiality prior to beginning the evaluation.

Answer

A

B. provide the court only with information she obtains that is relevant to the man’s mental competence.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-087 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 4.04 of the APA Ethics Code and Paragraph 10.01 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, which require psychologists to disclose only client information that’s relevant to the purpose of a report or other communication. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.37 and I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 42

Q

John Jr. just turned 14 and has started demanding to be allowed to make his own decisions and to have more privileges and independence from the family. In response, John’s parents continue to treat him like a child and have become more punitive in an attempt to keep things the way they were. The parents’ response to John’s demands illustrates which of the following?
A. positive feedback
B. negative feedback
C. reframing
D. restraining

Answer

A

B. negative feedback

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-122 Answer B is correct. Negative feedback serves to maintain the status quo (i.e., to keep things the way they were), while positive feedback promotes change. Reframing and restraining are paradoxical techniques used by therapists to alter behavior.

Question 43

Q

The elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981) predicts attitude change induced by _______________ is likely to be strong and persistent and produce a change in behavior.
A. central route processing
B. peripheral route processing
C. an alpha processing strategy
D. an omega processing strategy

Answer

A

A. central route processing

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-047 Answer A is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, the central route involves thoughtful and careful evaluation of the message and is more likely than the peripheral route to produce attitude change that’s strong and persistent and can be expected to cause a change in behavior.

Question 44

Q

In a normal distribution of scores, a T-score of _____ is equivalent to a z-score of _____ and a percentile rank of 84.
A. 50; 0
B. 50; 1.0
C. 60; 1.0
D. 70; 2.0

Answer

A

C. 60; 1.0

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-128 Answer C is correct. In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is one standard deviation above the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean. And the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0, so a z-score of 1.0 is one standard deviation above the mean.

Question 45

Q

Which of the following is a culture-reduced measure of fluid intelligence?
A. Kuhlmann-Anderson
B. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
C. Woodcock-Johnson
D. Slosson Intelligence Test

Answer

A

B. Raven’s Progressive Matrices

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-062 Answer B is correct. The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) tests are measures of fluid intelligence and are considered to be culture-reduced because they do not use language and performance does not depend on specific cultural or academic learning. There are three RPM tests: Standard Progressive Matrices, Colored Progressive Matrices, and Advanced Progressive Matrices.

Question 46

Q

You have just received a subpoena requesting that you appear in court to provide information about the diagnosis and treatment of a former client of yours who is suing her current therapist for malpractice. You are unable to contact the client or confirm that she has signed an authorization to release information. In this situation, you should:
A. notify the party who issued the subpoena that you cannot appear in court without a signed authorization from the client.
B. appear in court as requested but provide only information you believe is relevant to the case.
C. appear in court as requested but claim the privilege on behalf of the client.
D. appear in court and provide the requested information since privilege is waived in this situation.

Answer

A

C. appear in court as requested but claim the privilege on behalf of the client.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-222 Answer C is correct. When you receive a subpoena to appear in court and provide confidential information about a client and do not have authorization from the client to disclose the information, you should appear in court and claim the privilege on behalf of the client. You would then provide the information only if authorized to do so by the client or the client’s legal representative or ordered to do so by the court. Note that answer D is not correct because it is the court that decides if privilege is waived.

Question 47

Q

Which of the following is a type of counterbalanced design?
A. Solomon four-group
B. Latin square
C. factorial
D. multiple-baseline

Answer

A

B. Latin square

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-015 Answer B is correct. Counterbalancing is used to control order effects that may occur when a within-subjects design is used – i.e., when subjects in each group will receive or participate in all levels of the independent variable. The Latin square is a type of counterbalanced design that ensures that the different levels of the independent variable are assigned to the groups of subjects so that each level appears an equal number of times in each ordinal position.

Question 48

Q

Changing alpha (the level of significance) from .05 to .10:
A. increases the probability of making a Type I and a Type II error.
B. decreases the probability of making a Type I and a Type II error.
C. increases the probability of making a Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error.
D. decreases the probability of making a Type I error and increases the probability of making a Type II error.

Answer

A

C. increases the probability of making a Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-048 Answer C is correct. Alpha is equal to the probability of making a Type I error, and when alpha is increased from .05 to .10, the probability of making a Type I error increases. And, because there’s an inverse relationship between the probability of making a Type I error (rejecting a true null hypothesis) and a Type II error (retaining a false null hypothesis), the probability of making a Type II error decreases when alpha is increased.

Question 49

Q

Eight months ago, on the one-year anniversary of the death of her mother due to a brain tumor, 47-year-old Gale began experiencing frequent headaches and dizziness nearly every day. Gale has worried constantly about her health since then and has been spending hours each day searching for information on brain tumors on the Internet. Gale’s worrying and time on the Internet has kept her from spending time with her husband, two teen-age daughters, and friends. Gale has had two MRIs that showed no sign of a tumor, and her doctor has been unable to find an explanation for her headaches and dizziness. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Gale is:
A. conversion disorder.
B. body dysmorphic disorder.
C. somatic symptom disorder.
D. illness anxiety disorder.

Answer

A

C. somatic symptom disorder.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-178 Answer C is correct. Gale’s symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for somatic symptom disorder. This diagnosis requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or substantial disruption of daily activities accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Question 50

Q

Which of the following is most useful for explaining the results of Schachter’s (1959) “misery loves miserable company” study?
A. gain-loss theory
B. self-verification theory
C. equity theory
D. social comparison theory

Answer

A

D. social comparison theory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-126 Answer D is correct. Social comparison theory (Festinger, 1954) has been used to explain the results of Schachter’s research. It predicts that, in uncertain situations, people often compare themselves to others to obtain information about themselves.

Question 51

Q

When assessing the performance of the employees he supervises, Mr. Stein tends to prioritize an employee’s willingness to take responsibility for resolving work-related problems. Consequently, when assessing employees who consistently and enthusiastically assume responsibility, Mr. Stein gives them high ratings on unrelated dimensions of job performance. And when assessing employees who frequently shirk responsibility, Mr. Stein gives them low ratings on all dimensions of job performance. Mr. Stein’s tendency is an example of which of the following?
A. contrast error
B. halo error
C. leniency/strictness bias
D. similarity bias

Answer

A

B. halo error

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-041 Answer B is correct. The halo error occurs when a rater’s rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects how the rater rates the employee on all other dimensions.

Question 52

Q

The questions included in ____________ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past.
A. a situational interview
B. a behavioral interview
C. a case interview
D. an informational interview

Answer

A

B. a behavioral interview

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-052 Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.

Question 53

Q

In the context of test construction, “shrinkage” is associated with:
A. inter-rater reliability.
B. factor analysis.
C. incremental validity.
D. cross-validation.

Answer

A

D. cross-validation.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-117 Answer D is correct. Shrinkage is associated with cross-validation and refers to the fact that a validity coefficient is likely to be smaller than the original coefficient when the predictor(s) and criterion are administered to another (cross-validation) sample. Shrinkage occurs because the chance factors that contributed to the relationship between the predictor(s) and criterion in the original sample are not present in the cross-validation sample.

Question 54

Q

Donald Super’s life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between which of the following?
A. personality characteristics and characteristics of the work environment
B. career anticipation and implementation
C. life stages and major life roles
D. career maturity and career decisions

Answer

A

C. life stages and major life roles

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-138 Answer C is correct. Super (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996) created several illustrations to depict the relationships between elements of his life-space, life-span career theory. His life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between life stages and major life roles.

Question 55

Q

Moffitt’s (1993) “maturity gap” is most useful for understanding the etiology of which of the following disorders?
A. oppositional defiant disorder
B. late-onset attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
C. intermittent explosive disorder
D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

Answer

A

D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-190 Answer D is correct. T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).

Question 56

Q

Research investigating the effects of age on susceptibility to persuasion suggests that ___________ are most resistant to persuasion.
A. young and older adults
B. young adults
C. middle-aged adults
D. older adults

Answer

A

C. middle-aged adults

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-080 Answer C is correct. Studies investigating the impact of age on susceptibility to persuasion have not produced entirely consistent results, but there’s some support for a U-shaped relationship between age and attitude change for adolescents and adults, with adolescents/young adults and older adults being most easily persuaded. See, e.g., P. S. Visser and J. A. Krosnick, Development of attitude strength over the life cycle: Surge and decline, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 75(6), 1389-1410, 1998.

Question 57

Q

Social facilitation is more likely than social inhibition to occur when:
A. the crowd is large.
B. the crowd is small.
C. the task is easy.
D. the task is difficult.

Answer

A

C. the task is easy.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-104 Answer C is correct. Social facilitation is an improvement in performance that’s caused by the mere presence of other people and affects easy and well-learned tasks.

Question 58

Q

An organizational psychologist is hired by the owner of Best Plumbing Supply to determine why so many of her employees seem to have low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. The owner says she recently gave employees salary increases and bonuses for outstanding performance, but this did not have a noticeable effect. Being familiar with ____________, the psychologist will most likely tell the owner that, to increase motivation and satisfaction, she should redesign the employees’ jobs so they provide opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement.
A. two-factor theory
B. equity theory
C. goal-setting theory
D. situational leadership theory

Answer

A

A. two-factor theory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-194 Answer A is correct. The psychologist’s recommendation is most consistent with Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory which predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, and work conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate and (b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate.

Question 59

Q

Piaget attributed children’s ability to engage in deferred imitation and make-believe play to:
A. the process of accommodation.
B. the process of equilibration.
C. the use of mental operations.
D. the ability to create mental representations.

Answer

A

D. the ability to create mental representations.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-090 Answer D is correct. Piaget attributed deferred imitation and make-believe play to the ability to create mental representations, which emerges during the final substage of the sensorimotor period at about 18 months of age. Note, however, that subsequent research found that children engage in deferred imitation and other behaviors that depend on mental representations prior to this age.

Question 60

Q

Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention (RP) model identifies which of the following as the immediate precipitant of alcohol use after a period of abstinence?
A. craving for alcohol
B. high-risk situations
C. lifestyle imbalance
D. “apparently irrelevant decisions”

Answer

A

B. high-risk situations

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-202 Answer B is correct. Marlatt and Gordon’s RP model proposes that relapse is the result of immediate determinants and covert antecedents and describes high risk situations (an immediate determinant) as the immediate precipitators of alcohol use after a period of abstinence. See, e.g., M. E. Larimer, R. S. Palmer, and G. A. Marlatt, Relapse prevention: An overview of Marlatt’s cognitive-behavioral model, Alcohol Research and Health, 23(2), 151-160, 1999.

Question 61

Q

A picture of a knife is projected onto a screen so that it’s briefly presented only to the right visual field of a split-brain patient, and a picture of a fork is then briefly presented only to the patient’s left visual field. When asked to verbally identify what he has seen, the patient:
A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.
B. will be able to say “fork” and, although he can’t say “knife,” will be able to pick out a knife with his right hand.
C. will be able to say “knife” but won’t be able to say “fork” or pick out a fork with his right or left hand.
D. will be able to say “fork” but won’t be able to say “knife” or pick out a knife with his right or left hand.

Answer

A

A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-079 Answer A is correct. Ordinarily information received by the left hemisphere is shared with the right hemisphere and vice versa, but split-brain patients have had their corpus callosums severed to control severe epilepsy which limits communication between the two hemispheres. Most language processing occurs in the left hemisphere, so split-brain patients can verbally identify images that are projected to the right visual field because information about those images is sent via the optic nerve to the left hemisphere. In contrast, split-brain patients cannot verbally identify images that are presented to the left visual field because that information is sent to the right hemisphere and isn’t shared with the left hemisphere. However, they can pick out the objects depicted in the images with their left hands because the right hemisphere controls the left hand.

Question 62

Q

The Bender-Gestalt II is a measure of visual-motor integration that’s also used as a:
A. screening test for brain damage.
B. screening test for mental maturity.
C. measure of behavioral inhibition.
D. measure of executive functioning.

Answer

A

A. screening test for brain damage.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PAS-Clinical Tests-109 Answer A is correct. Although the Bender-Gestalt II does not provide detailed information about the location or effects of brain damage, it’s considered useful as a screening test for brain damage, especially right parietal lobe damage.

Question 63

Q

The court’s ruling in the 1979 case of Larry P. v. Wilson Riles:
A. prohibited businesses from using IQ tests to make hiring decisions about African American job applicants.
B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes.
C. granted all children with disabilities the right to be provided with public education in the least restrictive environment.
D. granted businesses the right to use cognitive ability tests to make employment decisions as long as the tests have adequate validity.

Answer

A

B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-131 Answer B is correct. In the Larry P. case, the court concluded that use of standardized IQ tests to place children in special education classes resulted in a disproportionate number of African American students being placed in those classes and ruled that the tests could no longer be used for that purpose for African American students.

Question 64

Q

An assumption of dialectical behavior therapy is that borderline personality disorder is attributable to which of the following?
A. inadequate response-contingent reinforcement
B. split perceptions of self and others into unrealistic extremes
C. emotion dysregulation
D. dysfunctional self-schemas

Answer

A

C. emotion dysregulation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Personality Disorders-223 Answer C is correct. M. Linehan’s dialectical behavior therapy is based on the assumption that borderline personality disorder is a disorder of the emotion regulation system that involves high emotional vulnerability coupled with an inability to regulate emotions (Cognitive-behavioral treatment of borderline personality disorder, New York, Guilford Press, 1993).

Answer 65

A

C. behavioral style

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-115 Answer C is correct. According to Moscovici, a group member with a minority opinion must rely on behavioral style to persuade the majority – i.e., the member must be consistent in expressing his/her opinion without seeming too rigid or dogmatic.

Answer 66

A

C. negative views of oneself, the world, and the future

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-100 Answer C is correct. Beck’s (1979) cognitive model of depression describes it as involving a negative cognitive triad that consists of negative views of oneself, the world, and the future.

Answer 67

A

A. single-sample chi-square test

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-059 Answer A is correct. The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. However, this study has only one variable and, in this situation, it’s just necessary to identify that variable’s scale of measurement: The variable is type of label and it’s measured on a nominal scale. The chi-square test is used to analyze nominal data and, when there’s only one variable, the single-sample chi-square test is the appropriate test. Note that the single-sample chi-square test is also known as the one-sample chi-square test and the chi-square goodness-of-fit test.

Answer 68

A

D. physically challenged adults

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-219 Answer D is correct. Of the descriptions given in the answers, “physically challenged adults” is least consistent with guidelines presented in the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association: Ordinarily, when describing people with a disorder or other condition, people-first language should be used (e.g., adults with physical challenges), but there are exceptions to this general rule. For example, when describing a research study and different groups are distinguished, it would be acceptable to refer to a group as “the autism spectrum disorder group” (answer C).

Answer 69

A

A. narcolepsy.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-184 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of narcolepsy requires irrepressible episodes of sleep (daytime naps) with at least one of the following: cataplexy, hypocretin deficiency, or REM sleep latency less than or equal to 15 minutes.

Answer 70

A

C. Workers who are rewarded for their productivity are most productive and satisfied.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-206 Answer C is correct. The research has found that the relationship between satisfaction and performance is stronger when pay and other reinforcers are closely linked to performance (e.g., Podsakoff & Williams, 1986).

Answer 71

A

C. population standard deviation increases and sample size decreases.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-037 Answer C is correct. The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean and is used to determine how well a sample mean estimates a population mean. It’s calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size, and it increases as the population standard deviation increases and the sample size decreases, and vice versa.

Answer 72

A

A. microinequity

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-215 Answer A is correct. As defined by D. W. Sue et al., microaggressions “are brief and commonplace daily verbal, behavioral, or environmental indignities, whether intentional or unintentional, that communicate hostile, derogatory, or negative racial slights and insults toward people of color” (Racial microaggressions in daily life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62(4), 271-286, 2007). Microassault, microinvalidation, and microinsult are the three types of microaggression identified by these investigators.

Answer 73

A

D. conformity

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-221 Answer D is correct. Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s racial/cultural identity development model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Minority group members in the conformity stage have negative attitudes toward their own minority group and other minority groups and positive attitudes toward Whites (the dominant group). They view White culture as superior and, with regard to therapy, prefer a White therapist.

Answer 74

A

C. are less susceptible to some rater biases.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment–030 Answer C is correct. An advantage of relative job performance measures is that they reduce leniency, strictness, and central tendency rater biases.

Answer 75

A

A. working memory.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-018 Answer A is correct. The research has consistently found moderate to high correlations between measures of processing speed, working memory, and fluid intelligence. There are several explanations for these correlations. One explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed cause changes in working memory that, in turn, cause changes in fluid intelligence. Another explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed and working memory have independent effects on fluid intelligence. See, e.g., A. Demetriou, G. Spanoudis, M. Shayer, S. van der Ven, C. R. Brydges, E. Kroesbergen, G. Podjarny, and H. L. Swanson, Relations between speed, working memory, and intelligence from preschool to adulthood: Structural equation modeling of 14 studies, Intelligence, 46, 107-121, 2014.

Answer 76

A

D. prefrontal underactivity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-099 Answer D is correct. Prefrontal underactivity is also known as hypofrontality and refers to reduced blood flow to the frontal lobes. It has been linked to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Temporal-limbic overactivity has been linked to the disorder’s positive symptoms.

Answer 77

A

B. decision-makers tend to satisfice rather than optimize.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-188 Answer B is correct. According to the bounded rationality model, rational decision-making is limited by individual and organizational factors and, as a result, decision makers often satisfice – i.e., they consider alternatives only until a minimally acceptable alternative is found.

Answer 78

A

B. basal ganglia.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-177 Answer B is correct. The basal ganglia are responsible for voluntary motor control, and the motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease have been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the basal ganglia, especially the caudate nucleus and putamen.

Answer 79

A

C. commitment.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-200 Answer C is correct. Knowing that expectancy theory is also known as VIE theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: “V” refers to valence, “I” to instrumentality, and “E” to expectancy.

Answer 80

A

C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-036 Answer C is correct. Research has found that the strength of the relationship between a person’s attitudes and his/her behaviors is affected by several factors, including the strength, accessibility, and specificity of the attitudes. See e.g., C. A. Sanderson, Social psychology, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2010.

Answer 81

A

B. Secondary

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-161 Answer B is correct. The goal of secondary prevention is to stop the progression of a disorder by using a screening test or other procedure to identify individuals with early signs or symptoms of the disorder and providing them with an appropriate intervention.

Answer 82

A

A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-121 Answer A is correct. As described in DSM-5, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation with a persistently irritable or angry mood most of the day and nearly every day between outbursts.

Answer 83

A

B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-106 Answer B is correct. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. For example, if a test has a reliability coefficient of .81, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of .81, which is .90.

Answer 84

A

A. PPVT-5

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-051 Answer A is correct. The PPVT-5 (Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, Fifth Edition) is used to assess the receptive vocabulary of individuals ages 2 years, 6 months to 90+ years. It can be used with individuals who have autism spectrum disorder, symptoms of psychosis, or cerebral palsy or other physical disability.

Answer 85

A

C. unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited from compensating employees of newspapers in exchange for a newspaper article about their services.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-102 Answer C is correct. This is the best answer because it accurately describes the requirements of Standard 5.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that psychologists “do not compensate employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item.” This answer is also consistent with Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibits psychologists from exploiting “any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the dignity or well-being of their primary clients, contract examinees, research participants, students, trainees, employers, or others.”

Answer 86

A

D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-005 Answer D is correct. The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very difficult item (none of the examinees answered it correctly) and 1.0 indicating a very easy item (all examinees answered it correctly). Therefore, to make the statistics tests easier, Dr. Haar will want to remove some of the very difficult items (e.g., those with a p value of .15 and lower) and add some easy items (e.g., those with a p value of .85 and higher).

Answer 87

A

C. What kind of things does Brett do when he’s not causing problems at home?

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Brief Therapies-072 Answer C is correct. Asking Brett’s parents what kind of things Brett does when he’s not causing problems is an example of an exception question. Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapists to help clients see that the presenting problem doesn’t always occur and to help them identify solutions to the problem.

Answer 88

A

A. assimilation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-088 Answer A is correct. Piaget proposed that the construction of knowledge involves adaptation, which consists of two processes – assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation occurs when children apply their existing schemes (cognitive structures) to new experiences, while accommodation occurs when children modify their existing schemes to better fit new experiences. Applying the word “doggie” to all furry four-legged animals is an example of assimilation.

Answer 89

A

C. false positives.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-095 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to remember that a person’s score on the predictor (in this case, the job selection test) determines whether he/she is a “positive” or “negative” and that the person’s score on the criterion (the measure of job performance) determines whether he/she is a “true” or “false” positive or negative. Therefore, for this question, a “true positive,” is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test and receives satisfactory scores on the job performance measure, while a “false positive” (the correct answer) is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test but receives unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure. A “true negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test and would have received unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired, while a “false negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test but would have received satisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired.

Answer 90

A

A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-182 Answer A is correct. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.

Answer 91

A

A. cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-162 Answer A is correct. Bem’s gender schema theory combines elements of cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity. According to this theory, children acquire information about gender from the social environment, which they encode and process to derive cognitive schemas that they use to understand and evaluate themselves and others.

Answer 92

A

D. paraphilic disorder

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-208 Answer D is correct. Orgasmic reconditioning, covert sensitization, and aversion treatment are behavioral interventions that are used to treat paraphilic disorders. Orgasmic reconditioning involves teaching the individual to become sexually aroused to more acceptable mental images and fantasies.

Answer 93

A

A. selection ratio and base rate

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-085 Answer A is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of the percent of future employees who will be successful on the job when an employer adds the new predictor to the current selection procedure. To use the Taylor-Russell tables, you need to know the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.

Answer 94

A

C. cooperative play

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-192 Answer C is correct. Parten concluded that the six types of social participation emerge sequentially and progress from least to most complex in terms of social interaction and cooperation: unoccupied behavior, solitary play, onlooker behavior, parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play.

Answer 95

A

B. the individual’s adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-001 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 distinguishes between four levels of intellectual disability (mild, moderate, severe, and profound), which are determined by considering the individual’s level of adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.

Answer 96

A

A. multiple baseline

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-026 Answer A is correct. Of the three single-subject designs listed in the answers (multiple baseline, reversal, and discrete trials), the multiple baseline design would be the most appropriate because it would allow the researcher to determine if the treatment is effective for any of the woman’s phobias by sequentially applying the treatment to them. In addition, the multiple baseline design doesn’t require a treatment to be withdrawn once it’s been applied to a behavior. Consequently, if the treatment has a beneficial effect on any of the woman’s phobias, the researcher would not have to withdraw the treatment during the course of the study just for the sake of assessing its effects.

Answer 97

A

B. ego identity development.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-146 Answer B is correct. Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) career decision-making model views vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that’s linked to Erikson’s stages of ego identity development.

Answer 98

A

B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-135 Answer B is correct. The APA Ethics Code does not refer to contingent fees, but they are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states that, “because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Canadian Code of Ethics regarding fees for professional services and conflicts of interest (e.g., Standard III.28).

Answer 99

A

D. variable ratio

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-092 Answer D is correct. When using a variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after four responses, then after two responses, then after six responses, and so on. Of the intermittent schedules, the variable ratio schedule produces the fastest rate of acquisition and the greatest resistance to extinction. Slot machines provide reinforcement on this schedule.

Answer 100

A

D. history

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-004 Answer D is correct. History threatens a study’s internal validity whenever an external event that occurs during the course of the study has a systematic effect on subjects’ scores or status on the dependent variable(s). Given that this study includes only one group of subjects and takes place over a two-month period of time, the biggest threat to its internal validity is history. For example, many of the students may have changed their attitudes not because of the anti-drug program but because they were exposed to information about drug use during the two months in a biology or health class or a TV or billboard ad campaign.

Answer 101

A

A. five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-045 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for children, or at least five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for individuals 17 years of age and older.

Answer 102

A

D. spontaneous recovery.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-020 Answer D is correct. Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of an extinguished conditioned response without the conditioned stimulus being presented again with the unconditioned stimulus. According to Pavlov, spontaneous recovery confirms that a conditioned response is suppressed (rather than eliminated) by extinction trials.

Answer 103

A

A. extinction.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-031 Answer A is correct. Use of the dismantling strategy to identify the effects of the elements of an intervention involves comparing the elements by administering different elements to different groups of subjects. When this strategy was used to determine which elements of systematic desensitization accounted for its effectiveness, researchers found it was repeated exposure to the feared (conditioned) stimulus that eliminated the anxiety response and that pairing the feared stimulus with a stimulus that produced relaxation (counterconditioning) was unnecessary. In other words, the anxiety response was extinguished by repeatedly exposing the individual to the feared stimulus.

Answer 104

A

D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-040 Answer D is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean Index scores for individuals with mild Alzheimer’s disease: Verbal Comprehension 86.2, Perceptual Reasoning 85.8, Working Memory 84.3, and Processing Speed 76.6.

Answer 105

A

C. instilling hope and providing reassurance.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-218 Answer C is correct. As described by S. Sue and N. Zane, gift giving involves ensuring that clients feel they have received immediate benefits from therapy and includes normalizing the client’s feelings and experiences, providing reassurance, instilling hope, teaching coping skills, and helping the client set goals for therapy (The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987). Note that Sue and Zane identify credibility as an important treatment issue when working with non-Western clients, but they describe it as a separate issue and not a factor that contributes to gift giving.

Answer 106

A

C. social referencing

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-168 Answer C is correct. Social referencing refers to the use of the emotional reactions of a parent or other person to determine how to respond in ambiguous situations. Most studies on social referencing in infancy have created an ambiguous situation by presenting the infants with a stranger, a novel object, or the visual cliff while a parent or other caregiver is nearby.

Answer 107

A

D. memory storage.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-147 Answer D is correct. LTP refers to an increase in synaptic efficacy as the result of repetitive stimulation and is believed to play an important role in the formation and storage of new memories.

Answer 108

A

B. make judgments on the basis of their own cultural assumptions which they view as applicable to all clients regardless of their cultural background.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-203 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Wrenn’s definition of cultural encapsulation. According to Wrenn, culturally encapsulated counselors define reality in terms of their own cultural assumptions and assume their assumption are correct and are insensitive to cultural variations.

Answer 109

A

A. marginalized

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-197 Answer A is correct. Berry’s model distinguishes between four levels of acculturation that are determined by the person’s acceptance or rejection of his/her own minority culture and the majority culture: integrated, assimilated, separated, and marginalized. A person is marginalized when he/she has rejected both cultures.

Answer 110

A

D. at the outset of therapy and subsequently as needed.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-076 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because it’s most similar to the language of Standard 4.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that, “unless it is not feasible or is contraindicated, the discussion of confidentiality occurs at the outset of the relationship and thereafter as new circumstances may warrant.” This answer is also consistent with Standard I.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which notes that informed consent may “need to be obtained more than once (e.g., if significant new information becomes available).”

Answer 111

A

A. where she and her family went on vacation three years ago.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-171 Answer A is correct. Many patients who experience retrograde amnesia as the result of a traumatic brain injury exhibit “shrinking retrograde amnesia” over time. This means that the period of retrograde amnesia gradually shortens with the most distant memories returning first.

Answer 112

A

D. overt and personality-based tests.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-063 Answer D is correct. There are two main types of integrity tests: Overt integrity tests ask directly about attitudes toward and previous history of dishonesty and theft, while personality-based integrity tests assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors.

Answer 113

A

D. separation-individuation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-028 Answer D is correct. As described by Mahler, early development involves a predictable sequence of stages: autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. The separation-individuation stage consists of the four substages listed in the question. By the end of this stage, children have developed the capacity for object constancy which allows them to feel both separate from and connected to significant others.

Answer 114

A

C. retinal disparity

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-139 Answer C is correct. Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.

Answer 115

A

B. the Rosenthal effect

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-School and Family Influences-210 Answer B is correct. This question describes a study that’s similar to the study conducted by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) who found that teachers’ expectations for students identified as academic “spurters” (but who were actually randomly chosen) had a positive effect on the students’ IQ scores and grades. This effect is known by several names including the Rosenthal effect, the Pygmalion effect, and the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.

Answer 116

A

C. Murray Bowen

EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-133 Answer C is correct. Bowen considered severe mental disorders to be the result of a multigenerational transmission process in which progressively lower levels of differentiation are transmitted over several generations.

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