Test 3 Flashcards
The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) includes all of the following except:
A. Personal Styles Scales.
B. Occupational Scales.
C. College Major Scales.
D. Vocational Interest Estimates.
A. Personal Styles Scales.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer A is correct. The KOIS includes Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, and Vocational Interest Estimates. The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) includes the Personal Styles Scales.
A child says he doesn’t steal because it’s against the law. Based on this information, you can conclude that this child is in which of Kohlberg’s levels of moral development?
A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. transconventional
D. postconventional
B. conventional
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-23 Answer B is correct. The second stage of Kohlberg’s conventional level is the law and order orientation stage. During this stage, judgments about the acceptability of a behavior depend on whether or not the behavior violates laws and rules that have been established by legitimate authorities.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a technostructural intervention?
A. business process reengineering
B. process consultation
C. job enrichment
D. alternative work schedules
B. process consultation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-16 Answer B is correct. Technostructural interventions focus on an organization’s technology or structure and include business process reengineering, downsizing, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.
According to Moffitt (2003), the life-course persistent type of antisocial behavior is due to which of the following?
A. a maturity gap
B. behavioral disinhibition
C. a lack of conscience and empathy
D. neurological deficits
D. neurological deficits
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-24 Answer D is correct. Moffitt distinguishes between two types of antisocial behavior. The life-course persistent type is more serious and is the result of a combination of inherited or acquired neurological deficits and environmental risks, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a maturity gap, which is a gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity. See, e.g., T. E. Moffitt, Life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behavior: A 10-year research review and research agenda, in B. B. Lahey, T. E. Moffitt, and A. Caspi (Eds.), Causes of conduct disorder and juvenile delinquency (pp. 49-75), New York, Guilford Press, 2003.
A high level of expressed emotion has been linked to:
A. an increased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
B. an increased risk for relapse for schizophrenia but not for major depressive disorder.
C. a decreased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
D. a decreased risk for relapse for major depressive disorder but not for schizophrenia.
A. an increased risk for relapse for both schizophrenia and major depressive disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-06 Answer A is correct. Expressed emotion refers to the emotional responses of family members to a member with a mental disorder and is characterized by conflict, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement. It has been linked to an increased risk for relapse for individuals with schizophrenia, depression, and several other mental disorders. See, e.g., R. L. Butzlaff and J. M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, JAMA Psychiatry, 55(6), 547-552, 1998.
With regard to gender and leader effectiveness, the research has found that:
A. female leaders are rated as more effective in feminine work settings, while male leaders are rated as more effective in masculine work settings.
B. male leaders are rated as more effective in masculine work settings, while male and female leaders are rated about equally in terms of effectiveness in feminine work settings.
C. male leaders are rated as more effective than female leaders in both masculine and feminine work settings.
D. female leaders are rated as more effective than male leaders in both masculine and feminine work settings.
A. female leaders are rated as more effective in feminine work settings, while male leaders are rated as more effective in masculine work settings.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ORG-Organizational Leadership-18 Answer A is correct. The studies suggest that, overall, men and women do not differ in perceived leader effectiveness. There’s evidence, however, that female leaders tend to be rated as more effective in traditionally feminine situations while male leaders tend to be rated as more effective in traditionally masculine situations (Eagly, Karau, & Makhijani, 1995).
Alfred Adler adopted a teleological approach, which means that he focused more on:
A. extrinsic than intrinsic influences.
B. emotional than cognitive influences.
C. strengths than weaknesses.
D. the future than the past.
D. the future than the past.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-02 Answer D is correct. A teleological approach emphasizes the effects of future goals (rather than past experiences) on current behavior.
To compare the effects of three SAT review programs, a researcher randomly assigns a sample of male and female high school students who have high, average, or low test anxiety to one of the three programs. Following completion of the programs, he assesses each student’s level of anxiety and performance on a mock SAT exam. This study has ___ independent variables and ___ dependent variable(s).
A. 2; 1
B. 3; 1
C. 2; 2
D. 3; 2
D. 3; 2
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer D is correct. If you’re having trouble distinguishing between a study’s independent and dependent variables, remember that independent variables are believed to have an effect on the dependent (outcome) variables and that, for questions like this one, anything that varies will be either an independent or dependent variable. Converting the information given in the description of the study to the following question might be helpful: “What are the effects of the [independent variable(s)] on the [dependent variable(s)]?” For this study, the question is, “What are the effects of the three review programs, initial level of test anxiety, and gender on mock SAT exam scores and level of anxiety after participation in the programs?” In other words, this study has three independent variables (program, anxiety level, and gender) and two dependent variables (SAT score and anxiety level).
Which of the following is used to estimate the effect of increasing a predictor’s reliability on its criterion-related validity coefficient?
A. Spearman-Brown formula
B. correction for attenuation formula
C. coefficient of determination
D. Cronbach’s alpha
B. correction for attenuation formula
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. Inadequate reliability is one of the factors that reduces a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient, and the correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate the effect of increasing the reliability of the predictor and/or criterion on the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient.
When Milgram (1974) asked psychiatrists to predict how many “teachers” would obey the experimenter’s order to deliver the highest levels of shock to the “learner,” the psychiatrists predicted that __________ would do so.
A. 1 in 10
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 500
D. 1 in 1,000
D. 1 in 1,000
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-08 Answer D is correct. Before conducting his initial studies, Milgram asked a group of psychiatrists to predict how many subjects would be willing to deliver the highest levels of shock, and they predicted that only a “pathological fringe” of 1 in 1,000 would do so.
Conducting a utility analysis for a new selection test would be useful for:
A. estimating the positive hit rate when the test is added to the current selection procedure.
B. determining the likelihood that use of the test will have an adverse impact on members of racial/ethnic minority groups.
C. obtaining information on the return on investment that can be expected when the test is used to hire job applicants.
D. estimating the degree to which an actual criterion adequately assesses the ultimate criterion.
C. obtaining information on the return on investment that can be expected when the test is used to hire job applicants.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-09 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to obtain information on the monetary value (return on investment) of a selection test, training program, or other employment practice.
The word COPYCAT is presented to a split-brain patient so that COPY is projected to the patient’s left visual field and CAT is projected to his right visual field. When the patient is asked what he saw, the patient will say ________. And when the patient is asked to use his left hand to point to what he saw on a computer screen that contains the words COPY and CAT, the patient will point to ________.
A. COPY; COPY
B. CAT; CAT
C. CAT; COPY
D. COPY; CAT
CORRECT ANSWER
C. CAT; COPY
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer C is correct. COPY was projected to the patient’s left visual field and went to his right hemisphere, while CAT was projected to the patient’s right visual field and went to his left hemisphere. Because he’s a split-brain patient, the two hemispheres are unable to communicate with each other. Consequently, the patient will say he saw the word CAT because the left hemisphere controls the production of language but will point to the word COPY because the right hemisphere controls the left hand.
By the end of the first session with a client, you realize that his symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for antisocial personality disorder. You’ve learned from past experience that clients with this diagnosis often fail to pay their bills and, for this reason, decide not to continue seeing him in therapy. With regard to ethical requirements, this is:
A. unacceptable because it violates the prohibition against discrimination.
B. unacceptable if you have adequate training and experience to treat this client.
C. acceptable as long as you provide the client with referrals to other mental health professionals.
D. acceptable as long as you explain to the client why you cannot continue seeing him in therapy.
C. acceptable as long as you provide the client with referrals to other mental health professionals.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-05 Answer C is correct. Standard 3.01 of the APA Ethics Code prohibits psychologists from unfairly discriminating on the basis of age, gender, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or other basis proscribed by law. And Standard I.9 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists do “not practice, condone, facilitate, or collaborate with any form of unjust discrimination,” which is defined in the Preamble as “activities that are prejudicial to or promote prejudice against persons or peoples because of their culture, nationality, ethnicity, colour, race, religion, sex, gender, marital status, sexual orientation, physical or mental abilities, age, socio-economic status, or any other preference or personal characteristic, condition, or status.” Neither Code requires psychologists to accept all individuals seeking their services, and not seeing clients who may be unwilling or unable to pay their fees would not constitute unfair or unjust discrimination as defined in these standards.
A person with bilateral damage to the __________ will have trouble recognizing fear in human facial expressions.
A. caudate nucleus
B. thalamus
C. amygdala
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. amygdala
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-01 Answer C is correct. People with bilateral damage to the amygdala often have difficulty recognizing negative emotions in facial expressions, especially fear. See, e.g., R. Adolphs et al., A mechanism for impaired fear recognition after amygdala damage, Nature, 433(7021), 68-72, 2005.
The foot-in-the-door technique is most useful for explaining which of the following?
A. why children belonging to hostile groups in Sherif’s Robber’s Cave study started to cooperate with each other
B. why children in the Lepper, Greene, and Nisbett study were no longer intrinsically motivated to color with felt-tip markers
C. why “teachers” in Milgram’s obedience to authority study complied with the experimenter’s order to increase the level of shock they delivered to the “learner”
D. why subjects in Asch’s conformity studies gave more accurate estimates when making estimates alone than in the group setting
C. why “teachers” in Milgram’s obedience to authority study complied with the experimenter’s order to increase the level of shock they delivered to the “learner”
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-09 Answer C is correct. In his studies, Milgram followed a less objectionable request (delivering a lower level of shock) with a more objectionable request (delivering a slightly higher level of shock). In other words, ordering teachers (subjects) to gradually increase the level of shock they delivered to the learner is similar to use of the foot-in-the-door technique to gain people’s compliance with a large request by starting with a smaller request that most people would agree to.
To compare the effectiveness of two brief treatments for social anxiety disorder, you obtain a sample of individuals who have received this diagnosis, determine the severity of each subject’s social anxiety, match the subjects in pairs based on the severity of their symptoms, and randomly assign one member of each pair to one of the treatments and other member to the other treatment. To compare the scores subjects in the two groups receive on a measure of symptom severity after they receive treatment, you will use which of the following?
A. t-test for correlated samples
B. t-test for uncorrelated samples
C. two-way ANOVA
D. single-sample chi-square test
A. t-test for correlated samples
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer A is correct. The first steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are to identify the independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study’s independent variable is type of treatment and the dependent variable is score on a measure of severity of anxiety following treatment. More specifically, the dependent variable is score on a measure of symptom severity and, for the exam, you can assume that scores represent an interval or ratio scale. This means that a statistical test will be used to compare the mean scores obtained by two groups. The t-test and two-way ANOVA are both used to compare mean scores but, because there are only two means, the t-test is the appropriate test. To determine which t-test to use, you determine how the means were obtained: In this study, they were obtained from related groups (from groups that consist of subjects who were matched in terms of initial symptom severity). The t-test for correlated samples is the appropriate test when two means are obtained from the same group or from two groups that are related in some way.
To teach young nonspeaking children with autism spectrum disorder to communicate verbally, Lovaas (1987) used which of the following?
A. stimulus control and chaining
B. differential reinforcement and overcorrection
C. self-instructional training and positive reinforcement
D. discrimination training and shaping
D. discrimination training and shaping
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-01 Answer D is correct. Lovaas (1987) developed an intensive program for young children with autism that incorporated a variety of behavioral techniques. Discrimination training and shaping were two of the techniques he used to teach the children to communicate verbally.
In the context of object relations theory, “object constancy” refers to:
A. the ability to recognize that a significant other continues to exist when he/she cannot be seen or heard.
B. the ability to differentiate oneself from a significant other.
C. the ability to maintain a positive connection to a significant other even when he/she is not gratifying one’s immediate needs.
D. the ability to integrate good and bad aspects of a significant other.
C. the ability to maintain a positive connection to a significant other even when he/she is not gratifying one’s immediate needs.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-03 Answer C is correct. Object constancy is “the capacity to maintain a predominantly positive emotional connection to a significant other independent of one’s need state or the object’s immediate ability to gratify one’s needs” (P. Glickauf-Hughes and M. Wells, Object relations psychotherapy: An individualized and interactive approach to diagnosis and treatment, Lanham, MD, Rowman & Littlefield Publishers, Inc., 1997, p. 12.) Note that answers A, B, and D describe abilities that a child must have in order to develop object constancy, but answer C is the best description of object constancy because it is the outcome of having these abilities.
Research has identified which of the Big Five personality traits to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and different measures of job performance?
A. conscientiousness
B. agreeableness
C. openness to experience
D. emotional stability
A. conscientiousness
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-05 Answer A is correct. The Big Five personality traits are neuroticism, extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Of these, conscientiousness has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and performance criteria.
At a company party, you first meet a co-worker’s husband whose name is Bill. About twenty minutes later, you meet another co-worker’s husband whose name is Bob. Then, about an hour later, you encounter Bill at the buffet table and call him Bob. Which of the following explains your mistake?
A. retroactive interference
B. proactive interference
C. implicit memory
D. explicit memory
A. retroactive interference
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-14 Answer A is correct. Retroactive interference occurs when more recently acquired information (e.g., “Bob”) interferes with the ability to recall previously acquired information (e.g., “Bill”).
Regardless of the distribution of raw scores, when the raw scores are converted to percentile ranks, the resulting distribution will be:
A. normal.
B. rectangular.
C. leptokurtic.
D. platykurtic.
B. rectangular.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-TES-Test Score Interpretation-11 Answer B is correct. A percentile rank distribution is always rectangular (flat) because the same percent of scores fall at each percentile rank. In other words, when raw test scores are converted to percentile ranks, 1% of the scores will be converted to each percentile rank: The highest 1% of raw scores will be converted to a percentile rank of 100, the next highest 1% of raw scores will be converted to a percentile rank of 99, etc.
Kohlberg’s model of gender-role development distinguishes between three stages, the first of which is:
A. gender stability.
B. gender socialization.
C. gender identity.
D. gender constancy.
C. gender identity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-15 Answer C is correct. In order, Kohlberg’s three stages of gender-role development are gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy.
Research by Sadker and Sadker has found that teachers:
A. pay more attention to boys than girls and give boys more praise and helpful feedback.
B. pay more attention to girls than boys and give girls more praise and helpful feedback.
C. pay more attention to boys than girls but give girls more praise and helpful feedback.
D. pay more attention to girls than boys but give boys more praise and helpful feedback.
A. pay more attention to boys than girls and give boys more praise and helpful feedback.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LIF-School and Family Influences-25 Answer A is correct. Research by Sadker and Sadker and others has consistently confirmed that gender stereotypes bias how teachers respond to boys and girls in the classroom – e.g., they tend to pay more attention to boys and give boys more praise and precise and helpful feedback. See, e.g., D. Sadker, M. Sadker, and K. Zittleman, Still failing at fairness: How gender bias cheats girls and boys in school and what we can do about it, New York, Scribner, 2009.
_____________ is the appropriate method for combining scores on several selection tests when a high score on one or more tests can compensate for a low score on another test.
A. Multiple correlation
B. Multiple hurdle
C. Multiple regression
D. Multiple cutoff
C. Multiple regression
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-06 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is a compensatory method for combining predictor scores that involves weighting each predictor on the basis of its correlations with the other predictors and with the criterion and then combining the weighted predictor scores to obtain an estimated criterion score. This makes it possible for a high score on one or more predictors to compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple hurdle and multiple cutoff are noncompensatory methods.
Damon (1988) proposed that children’s friendships develop in three stages, the last of which is:
A. mutual trust and assistance
B. intimacy and loyalty
C. intimate and mutually shared relationships
D. mature friendships
B. intimacy and loyalty
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. Damon’s three stages of friendship are handy playmate (ages 4 to 7 years), mutual trust and assistance (8 to 10 years), and intimacy and loyalty (11+ years). Intimate and mutually shared relationships and mature friendships are the last two friendship stages identified by Selman (1981).
Sue and Sue (2015) illustrate the difference between which of the following by noting that twins who are raised together communicate more economically than two American lawyers do during a trial?
A. high- and low-context communication
B. intrapersonal and interpersonal communication
C. complementary and symmetrical communication
D. deep-structure and surface-structure communication
A. high- and low-context communication
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-25 Answer A is correct. High-context communication relies heavily on group understanding, nonverbal messages, and the context in which the communication occurs, while low-context communication relies on the verbal message and is independent of the context (D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2015). Communication between twins raised together is likely to be high-context, while communication between two lawyers in a trial is likely to be low-context.
All other things being equal, which of the following tests is likely to have the lowest reliability coefficient?
A. a three-alternative multiple-choice test
B. a four-alternative multiple-choice test
C. a true/false test
D. a fill-in-the-blanks test
C. a true/false test
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-04 Answer C is correct. A test’s reliability is affected by a number of factors including the chance that test questions can be answered correctly by guessing: As the probability of choosing the correct answer by guessing increases, the reliability of the test decreases. For this reason, true/false tests are less reliable than three-item and four-item multiple-choice tests which, in turn are less reliable than a fill-in-the-blanks test.
Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction identifies which of the following as an explanation for the positive relationship between attitude similarity and interpersonal attraction?
A. reciprocity
B. reinforcement
C. self-esteem
D. social comparison
B. reinforcement
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-11 Answer B is correct. Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction states that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction and that this relationship is due to the fact that interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates one’s views and produces good feelings.
A young woman started having __________ seizures when she was a child. She does not lose consciousness during a seizure but experiences motor and sensory symptoms that include jerky movements in her arms and legs, eye blinking, and numbness, tingling, and other abnormal sensations.
A. absence
B. myoclonic
C. simple partial
D. complex partial
C. simple partial
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-19 Answer C is correct. Partial seizures are also known as focal seizures and involve one side of the brain and body (although they can spread to the other side of the brain and become generalized seizures). Simple and complex partial seizures both involve sensory and motor symptoms, but simple partial seizures don’t cause a loss of consciousness while complex partial seizures do impair consciousness.
The “experimental neurosis” exhibited by Pavlov’s canine subjects was the result of which of the following?
A. backwards conditioning
B. difficult discriminations
C. classical extinction
D. stimulus generalization
B. difficult discriminations
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer B is correct. Pavlov found that requiring dogs to make difficult discriminations between similar stimuli provoked agitation and aggression, which he referred to as experimental neurosis.
To evaluate the effectiveness of a stress reduction technique for alleviating test anxiety, a psychologist administers a measure of test anxiety to Psychology 101 undergraduates, chooses the 50 students with the highest scores on the test, administers the intervention to the students, and then readministers the measure of test anxiety. The biggest threat to this study’s internal validity is:
A. differential selection
B. reactivity
C. statistical regression.
D. instrumentation
C. statistical regression.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-03 Answer C is correct. Whenever subjects are chosen for inclusion in a study because they have extreme scores on the pretest, their scores on the posttest are likely to “regress toward the mean” regardless of the effects of the independent variable. This is referred to as statistical regression, and it threatens a study’s internal validity whenever it’s not possible to ascertain to what extent a change in posttest scores is due to statistical regression or the effects of the independent variable.
Anna just started college and is certain that students in her classes already think she’s stupid even though they’re nice to her and a few have attempted to become friends. For a practitioner of Beck’s cognitive-behavior therapy, Anna’s conclusion is an example of which of the following?
A. personalization
B. emotional reasoning
C. arbitrary inference
D. selective abstraction
C. arbitrary inference
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-16 Answer C is correct. Arbitrary inference is one of the cognitive distortions identified by Beck. It occurs when a person draws a conclusion without having evidence to support it.
The dichotic listening task is used to obtain information about:
A. short-term memory.
B. hemispheric specialization.
C. processing speed.
D. level of consciousness.
B. hemispheric specialization.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-08 Answer B is correct. The dichotic listening task involves simultaneously presenting a person with two different auditory stimuli by delivering one stimulus to each ear. It’s used to obtain information on selective auditory attention and hemispheric specialization for auditory stimuli.
Crick and Dodge’s (1994) social information-processing model attributes high levels of aggression in children to which of the following?
A. observational learning
B. peer pressure
C. a self-control failure
D. a hostile attribution bias
D. a hostile attribution bias
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer D is correct. Crick and Dodge’s social information-processing model proposes that highly aggressive children are more likely than their nonaggressive peers to interpret the behaviors of others (including vague and benign behaviors) as intentionally hostile, and they refer to this tendency as a “hostile attribution bias.”
All of the following drugs slow the cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease by increasing cholinergic activity except:
A. galantamine.
B. memantine.
C. rivastigmine.
D. donepezil.
B. memantine.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-24 Answer B is correct. All four drugs listed in the answers to this question are used to slow the progress of cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease. Galantamine (Razadyne), rivastigmine (Exelon), and donepezil (Aricept) do so by increasing cholinergic activity (i.e., by preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine), while memantine (Namenda) reduces the negative effects of excessive levels of the neurotransmitter glutamate.
For a patient in the early stage of Alzheimer’s disease, an MRI is most likely to reveal degeneration in which of the following?
A. cerebral cortex
B. substantia nigra
C. hypothalamus
D. entorhinal cortex
D. entorhinal cortex
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer D is correct. The areas of the brain most affected by Alzheimer’s disease in its early stages are the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus, with degeneration in these areas preceding the onset of cognitive symptoms.
An infant with congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) is most likely to develop which of the following?
A. a tic disorder
B. sensorineural hearing loss
C. heart defects
D. an autoimmune disorder
B. sensorineural hearing loss
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-04 Answer B is correct. CMV is caused by exposure to a type of herpes virus during prenatal development. A small proportion of infants with CMV develop long-term problems, with sensorineural hearing loss being most common. See, e.g., J. F. Bale, Congenital cytomegalovirus infection, in M. J. Aminoff, F. Boller, and D. F. Swaab (Eds.), Handbook of clinical neurology (Vol. 123, pp. 319-326), Amsterdam, Elsevier, 2014.
Following a closed head injury caused by a fall down a flight of stairs, a 54-year-old woman experiences retrograde amnesia for events that occurred during the five years prior to her fall. When her memories begin to return, she will likely remember which of the following first?
A. the family reunion she attended 4-1/2 years ago
B. the birth of her first grandchild three years ago
C. the vacation she took with her husband 1-1/2 years ago
D. the birthday party of her twin grandchildren two months ago
A. the family reunion she attended 4-1/2 years ago
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-21 Answer A is correct. The recovery of long-term memories following a traumatic brain injury ordinarily involves “shrinking retrograde amnesia” in which more distant (remote) memories are recovered first.
In the context of Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, satisfactoriness is the result of the correspondence between the worker’s:
A. interests and the characteristics of the job.
B. vocational identity and ego identity.
C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job.
D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.
D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ORG-Career Choice and Development-13 Answer D is correct. As defined by Dawis and Lofquist, satisfactoriness is the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is determined by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.
A newly licensed psychotherapist reacts to clients who are members of certain minority groups in ways that are consistent with stereotypes she formed about those groups during her high school and undergraduate years. Gerald Caplan (1970) described this as __________ and as a possible focus of consultee-centered case consultation.
A. projective identification
B. parallel process
C. microinvalidation
D. theme interference
D. theme interference
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-19 Answer D is correct. Caplan described theme interference as a loss of objectivity that occurs when a therapist’s reactions to a particular type of client are affected by his/her previous experiences with that type of client.
Diabetes insipidus is usually caused by a low level of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by the:
A. pineal gland.
B. pituitary gland.
C. pancreas.
D. thyroid gland.
B. pituitary gland.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-20 Answer B is correct. The pituitary gland secretes several hormones including ADH, which regulates water balance in the body. A low level of ADH causes diabetes insipidus, which involves extreme thirst and the excretion of excessive and diluted urine.
Which of the following statements best describes the requirements of the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations for bartering?
A. Bartering is always unacceptable.
B. Bartering is acceptable only in the “most unusual circumstances.”
C. Bartering may be acceptable when it’s not clinically contraindicated.
D. Bartering may be acceptable when potential conflicts are discussed with the client.
C. Bartering may be acceptable when it’s not clinically contraindicated.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P3-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-16 Answer C is correct. Bartering is addressed in Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which both prohibit bartering when it is “clinically contraindicated.”