Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology credit 1 > Test 5 > Flashcards

Test 5 Flashcards

1
Q

In latex agglutination the latex particle is

A

carrier of antibody or antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the ratio of blood: H2O: 2.7% NaCl used for lysis of erythrocytes in procedure of separation of all leukocytes from whole blood?

A

1:2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For evaluation of differential white cell count, the blood smear is stained by

A

Pappenheim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which immune cells are professional phagocytes?

A

neutrophils, monocytes and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Granules in eosiniphils stained by Pappenheim are

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In test for respiratory burst activity in phagocytes tetrazolium salt is

A

reduced into a coloured formazan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Immune responses of organisms can be detected in two ways - they are?

A

1) detection of antigen by the help of specific antibody
2) detection of the presence of specific antibodies in the serum - determination whether an animal has been previously exposed to a specific antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define antigens and antibodies:

A

Antigens are molecules that stimulate immune response

Antibodies are antigen-binding proteins secreted by plasma cells or present in the B-cell membrane

Injection of Ag into body –> production of Ab –> form a complex and Ag is destroyed by help of other immune mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The three tests that are most applied in agglutination include:

A

Slide agglutination - direct and indirect or passive (latex agglutination)
Tube agglutination
Haemagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Positive result in slide agglutination is identified by

A

Visible clumping with clearing of the suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tube agglutination is a direct agglutination and can be readily used to

A

Determine titer of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Negative agglutination

A

Solid ‘‘button’’ sediment with turbid supernatant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name two types of haemagglutination tests

A

Direct haemagglutination - detect antibodies against red cell determinants

Passive haemagglutination - against compounds artificially coupled to red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The essential differences between agglutination and precipitation are in:

A

Size, solubility and location of antigen

In agglutination antigens are whole cells, in precipitation antigens are a soluble molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Radial immunodiffusion (RID) is

A

a quantitative method used for quantification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis (IEF) is

A

a precipitation reaction, in which direct current is used to regulate the movement of antigen and antibody molecules in agar or agarosis gel

17
Q

Separation of proteins in electric field depends on:

A

Whole electric charge
Molecular mass
Isoelectric point

18
Q

Serum proteins separate into six major fractions according to their charge at a given pH:

A
  1. alpha1 - globulins
  2. alpha2-globulins
  3. beta-globulins
  4. gamma-globulins
  5. hydragel protein K20
  6. hydragel proteins E
19
Q

Result of ELISA reaction

A

soluble colour product

20
Q

Application of EIA can be used for:

A

Qualitative detection of presence of Ag or Ab
Quantitative determination of Ag or Ab

21
Q

Advantages and disadvantage of EIA

A

Direct detection of Ag of pathogens
Detection of Ab against many bacterial, viral or parasitic agents
Very flexible method

Disadvantage: can give false positive results

22
Q

ELISA techniques are divided to what groups?

A

Detection of antigens: sandwich ELISA and competitive ELISA

Detection of antibodies: direct ELISA and blocking ELISA

23
Q

Separation of leukocytes. Immunologically non-specific and specific:

A

Immunologically non-specific: size, density, electric charge and adherence abilities

Immunologically specific: CD markers

24
Q

Granulocytes with Pappenheim

A

Purple or red

25
Q

Agranulocytes with Pappenheim

A

pale pink / pale / don’t stain

26
Q

Calculate IPHA (index of phagocytic activity) if there are 340 particles per 100 phagocytes:

A

340/100 = 3.4

27
Q

What happens in respiratory burst?

A

Activated phagocytes produce different antimicrobial and cytotoxic substances which can destroy ingested microorganisms.
Mechanism of killing is dependent on oxygen - forming of free oxygen radicals.

28
Q

Defect in phagocyte function are related to:

A
  • Defects in mobilisation of leukocytes from their depots in bone marrow
  • Lack of receptors for chemotactic factors
  • Lack of adhesion molecules
  • Lack of generation of bactericidal agents to destroy bacteria
29
Q

Failure of phagocytes results in

A
  • Retarded growth
  • Recurrent infections that tend to be prolonged
  • Lymphadenopathy - swelling of one or more lymphocytes
30
Q

How long is blood incubated with distilled water to get hypotonic solution?

A

35-40 s

31
Q

What is detected in complement fixation test?

A

If patient has antibodies specific to Ag

32
Q

What marker is present in B-lymphocytes?

A

CD19

Immunology credit 1 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions