Test 4 Module 7 Flashcards
1
Q
What are fractures?
A
cracks or breaks in bones caused by physical stress
2
Q
What are the 3 ways fractures are categorized?
A
- By external appearance
- Their location
- The nature of the damage to the bone
3
Q
What is a closed fracture?
A
A fracture that does not break through skin
4
Q
What is a open fracture?
A
A fracture that does break through skin
5
Q
What are the 4 basic steps bone repair are broken into?
A
- Hematoma (blood clot) formation
- Fibrocartilaginous callus formation
- Bony callus formation
- Remodeling
6
Q
What are the 4 steps of bone repair are broken into in depth?
A
- Hematoma (blood clot) formation: A mass of clotted blood forms at fracture site. Bone cells begin to die. Tissue becomes swollen, painful, and inflamed
- Firocartilaginous callus formation: Capallaries grow into the area and macrophages clean up debris. Fibroblasts and osteoblasts migrate to the area from periosteum. The fibroblasts become chondrocytes which make cartilage n some areas of fracture. Osteoblasts begin forming spongy bone in other areas of fracture. The repair tissue now consists of both cartilage and spongy boine and is called the fibrocartliginous callus.
- Bone callus formation: Osteoblasts remove the cartilage from fracture site and convert the fibrocartilage callus to a hard bone callus entirely of spongy bone. This begins 3-4 weeks per injury and continues until a firm union forms 2-3 months later.
- Remodeling: remodeling occurs during bony callus formation and continues for several months after the bony callus has formed. (remodeling can take years to finish completely) Excess material outside the shaft is removed. Osteoclasts remove excess bone and any spongy bone that needs to be replaced with compact bone. Osteoblasts lay down compact bone to reconstruct the shaft. The final structure resembles unbroken bone, although sometimes there is a slight swelling at location of original fracture.
7
Q
How do infant bone fractures heal?
A
They heal without intervention sue to muscle contractions and tissue growth that together move the bone frags back into place, like a mechanical jack
8
Q
What are the 4 steps of infant bone fractures?
A
- clot forms at fracture
- the fibrocartliginous callus forms at the fracture site
- Growth of tissue on one side provides force to realign the bone frags
- The bony callus forms allowing bone to heal
9
Q
What is a callus?
A
any mass of cells
10
Q
When an infant is born the skull bones haven’t finished ______, especially those of the _____?
A
forming and Cranium
11
Q
Some of the cranial bones in an infant are in pieces and haven’t yet even _______ ?
A
combined to form a single bone yet
12
Q
What is the cranium?
A
the brain case
13
Q
The cranial bones form by _____?
A
intramembraneous ossification
14
Q
What do all of the cranial bones start out as?
A
Flexible fibrous connective tissue proper
15
Q
Cranial bones start out entirely composed of a _____ and undergo intramembranous ossification to convert to bone?
A
flexible fibrous connective tissue proper
16
Q
The flexible fibrous connective tissue left in the cranium at the time of birth will continue undergoing intramembranous ossification to finish converting to _____?
A
bone
17
Q
Once all cranial bone has formed, dense connective tissue proper will be used to create _____ that bind all the cranial bones?
A
sutures
18
Q
What is the line of junction or an immovable joint between 2 bones, especially of the skull?
A
suture
19
Q
How many sutures are in the head?
A
3
20
Q
What are the fontanels?
A
At birth they are the remaining sections of flexible fibrous connective tissue proper that have not yet converted to bone
21
Q
Why do babies need fontanels?
A
They allow the skull to flex during birth which can be important while traveling down the birth canal and this is can result in “football head” after birth
22
Q
_____ aren’t all the flexible fibrous connective tissue in the cranium, but are the largest, most detectable areas of it?
A
Fontanels
23
Q
What are the 4 fontanels?
A
- Anterior fontanel
- Occipital fontanel
- Sphenoidal fontanels
- Mastoid fontanels
24
Q
What are the 2 fontanels that last around 2 years?
A
Anterior fontanel and the occipital fontanel
25
What are 2 fontanels that last about 2 months?
Sphenoidal fontanels and mastoid fontanels
26
Which fontanel junctions the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures?
Anterior fontanel
27
Which fontanel junctions the lambdoid and sagittal sutures?
Occipital fontanel
28
Which fontanel junctions the squamous and coronal sutures?
Sphenoid fontanel
29
Which fontanel junction the nascent squamous and lambdoid sutures?
Mastoid fontanels
30
Which fontanel is the most visible and often the only one noticed and is often referred to as the "soft spot"
Anterior fontanel
31
Which fontanel is smaller and posterior the anterior fontanel?
Occipital fontanel
32
After about 5 years the flexible fibrous connective tissue proper between cranial bones is replaced with the dense connective tissue proper that makes up?
sutures
33
The cranial bones develop zig-zags like the teeth of a zipper so they can be interlaced very closely and tightly by the dense connective tissue proper that forms after 5 yrs of age called what?
sutures
34
How old are you when your flexible fibrous connective tissue proper between cranial bones is replaced with the dense connective tissue proper AKA sutures?
5 years
35
What are 3 things the vertebral column do?
1. protect the spinal cord
2. Supports the head and body
3. Helps maintain an upright body position
36
What is 2 other names the vertebral column is also commonly referred to to?
backbone or spine
37
The vertebral column contain how many bones?
26 bones:
| 14 vertebrae, 1 sacrum, and 1 coccyx
38
What are the 4 curvatures of the adult vertebral column when viewes from the side?
1. cervical curve
2. thoracic curve
3. lumbar curve
4. sacral curve
39
What are the 2 primary/accommodation curves of the vertebral column?
Thoracic and sacral curves
40
Why are the thoracic and sacral curves considered primary/accommodation curves?
because they are preset during fetal development
41
Why are thoracic and sacral curves also referred to as accommodation curves?
Because they curve out from the body, creating more room to accommodate internal organs
42
What is another name for the primary curves?
Accommodation curves
43
What are the 2 secondary/compensation curves of the vertebral column?
Cervical and lumbar curves
44
Why are the cervical and lumbar curves referred to as secondary/compensation curves?
Because they appear after birth
45
Why are cervical and lumbar curves also referred to as compensation curves?
Because shift in body weight towards center for upright posture
46
What is one of the largest and most complex joints of the body?
knee
47
What is the group of structures that join the tibia and fibula bones and allows the lower leg to move with respect to the thigh?
the knee
48
The tibia an fibula are connected to the femur by what 4 ligaments?
Anterior cruciate ligament ACL
Posterior cruciate ligament PCL
Medial collateral ligament MCL
Lateral collateral ligament LCL
49
What are ligament made of?
Regular dense connective tissue proper?
50
What do ligaments do?
Connect bone to bone
51
What is the ACL's purpose?
The ACl prevents the tibia bone from extending too far forward from the femur
52
What does the ACL prevent the tibia from doing?
extending to far forward
53
What is the PCL's purpose?
The PCL prevents the tibia bone from extending too far backwards from the femur
54
What is the MCL's purpose?
To connect the femur to the tibia on the medial side of the two bones
55
What is the LCL's purpose?
To connect the femur to the fibula, on the lateral side of those two bones
56
What is a common sport injury of the knee ligaments?
A torn or damaged ACL
57
A damaged ACL can: (3)
- Cause pain
- Cause the knee to buckle when attempting to change directions
- Leads to damage of cartilage padding of knee (leading o further pain)
58
The "knee cap" is the _____ bone?
patella bone
59
What is the name of the tendon that encases the patella?
The patellar ligament
60
The patella acts as a ____ changing direction the thigh muscles can pull across?
pulley
61
The patella also ensures the ______ doesn't get damaged?
patellar ligament (tendon)
62
What are the 2 types of cartilage in the knee?
- Hyaline cartilage
| - Fibrous cartilage
63
Which knee cartilage lines the femur, patella, and tibia where the bones slide against one another?
Hyaline cartilage
64
Which cartilage serves as a shock absorber between the femur and tibia?
Fibrous cartilage
65
Which cartilage prevent bone mineral from directly rubbing against bone mineral?
Hyaline cartilage
66
In the knee, the hyaline cartilage on the femur, patella, and tibia is called _____?
articular cartilage
67
The hyaline cartilage allows bone to what?
move smoothly against each other
68
What do we call the cartilage on the femur, patella, and tibia, where they rub against each other?
articular cartilage
69
The fibrous cartilage is found in a pair of c-shaped discs on top of the _____?
tibia
70
What is menisci?
The c-shaped discs of fibrous cartilage in the knee
71
What are the names of the 2 menisci of the knee?
Lateral meniscus o the lateral side and medial meniscus on the medial side
72
When athletes have damaged knee cartilage, it is usually damage to or degradation of their _____, rather than to the articular cartilage?
menisci
73
What is a joint?
anywhere two bones come together, whether they move with respect to one another or not
74
Most joints in the arms and legs which allow the two bones involved to move freely (articulate) are in a fluid-filled covering called a _____?
synovial capsule
75
The _____ is a synovial joint in a fluid filled synovial capsule?
knee
76
Where are synovial capsules always found?
at joints
77
What are the 2 membranes that line the synovial joints?
1. fibrous membrane
| 2. synovial membrane
78
The outer layer called the _____ is made from dense connective tissue proper that is outside of the synovial capsule and can be continuous with ligaments and tendons at the joint?
fibrous membrane
79
The inner layer is the _____ that is under the fibrous membrane but also covers the parts of the bones not covered with articular cartilage (where two bones are in proximity, those parts of the bones will be covered with a thin layer of articular cartilage)?
synovial membrane
80
The inner synovial membrane is made up of _____ over a single layer of fibroblasts and macrophages not encased in connective tissue extracellular matrix?
areolar loose connective tissue proper
81
It is the layer of fibroblasts and macrophages within the synovial membrane which does what that fills the capsule creating by the synovial membrane lining?
secretes the fluid
82
Synovial fluid in the synovial capsule contains: (3)
proteins, lipids, and hyaluronan polysaccharides
83
The _____ especially makes the fluid viscous and slimy allowing it to serve as lubricant for the articulating bones?
hyaluronan
84
What do bones "crackle"?
crackling joints results from pulling the bones apart and creating (not popping) a bubble of gas in the extra space just created
85
The synovial fluid in the capsule around joints has two main roles:
1. It lubricates the joints where the cartilage-covered bones slide over one another.
2. It provides nutrients for the articular & fibrous cartilage that cover the bones the slide over one another.
86
The synovial capsule of the knee also contains several ?
bursae
87
What is a self-contained fluid-filled sac surrounded by synovial membranes surrounded by harder tissues (bone or muscle); sometimes within a larger synovial capsule, sometimes outside?
Bursa
88
What do bursae sacs do?
Elevate some of the tissues laying on top of the bone around the joint
89
How many bursae are in the knee?
11
90
What reduce the friction created when muscles, tendons, or skin would otherwise rub directly on bone when the bones in the joint move?
bursae
91
what is bursitis?
an inflammation of a bursae, usually in shoulder, hip, elbow, or knee joints
92
What is symptoms of bursitis?
pain and stiffness at the joint
93
What cannot be consistently determined from skeletal remains?
race
94
Examining bones in the absence of information about the person they belonged to can reveal things about the person: (4)
- Muscle strength and mass (bone ridges, bone mass)
- Medical history (condition of teeth, healed fractures)
- Sex and age (bone measurements and fusion)
- Body size
