Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nur201 > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Alopecia

A

Loss of hair from any cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ecchymosis 

A

Bleeding into the skin and tissue initially evidenced by varied color that gradually fades to green yellow or brown overtime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Erythema

A

Redness of the skin caused by dilation of the capillaries due to injury, irritation inflammation are very skin conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hirsutism

A

The Condition of having excessive hair growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hyperpigmentation

A

Increase in the melanin of the skin, resulting in an increase in pigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hypo pigmentation

A

Decrease in the melanin of the skin resulting in loss of pigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Keratin

A

An insoluble fibrous protein that forms the outer skin layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Keratinocytes

A

Arising from the innermost layer of the epidermidis synthesize, the insoluble protein keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Langerhans cells

A

The dendritic clear cells in the epidermidis that carry surface receptors for immunoglobulin and complement, and that are active participants in delayed hypersensitivity of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Melanin

A

The substance responsible for coloration of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Melanocyte

A

Cells of the skin produce melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Merkel cells

A

Cells of the epidermis that play a role in transmission of sensory messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Petechiae 

A

Pinpoint red spots that appear on the skin as a result of blood leakage into the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rete ridges 

A

Undulations and furrows that appear at the lower edge of the epidermidis at the dermal junction where these two skin layers are cemented together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Glands that exist within the epidermis and secrete sebum to keep the skin soft and pliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sebum

A

Fatty secretion of the sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Telangiectasias

A

Vascular structures; red marks on the skin caused by distention of the superficial blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vitiligo

A

A localized or widespread condition, characterized by destruction of the melanocytes in circumscribed areas of the skin resulting in white patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Wood light

A

Ultraviolet light used for diagnosing skin conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acantholysis

A

Separation of epidermal cells from each other due to damage or abnormality of the intracellular structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bullae

A

Large fluid filled blisters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Carbuncle

A

Localized skin infection involving several hair follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cheilitis

A

Inflammation of the lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Comedones

A

The primary lesions of acne caused by sebum blockage in the hair follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cytotoxic

A

Destructive of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Debridement

A

Removal of necrotic, or dead tissue by mechanical surgical chemical, or autolytic means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dermatitis

A

Any inflammation of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dermatosis

A

Any abnormal skin lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Epidermopiesis

A

Development of epidermal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Furuncle

A

Localized skin infection of a single or few hair follicles(Boil )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hydrophilic

A

Material that absorbs moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hydrophobic

A

Material that repels moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hygroscopic

A

Material that absorbs moisture from the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lichenification

A

Thickening of the horny layer of the skin (Scaling )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Liniments

A

Lotions with added oil for increased, softening up the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pressure injury

A

Localized area of the skin breakdown and/or underlying soft tissue damage due to prolonged pressure and insufficient blood supply; formally known as pressure ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pruitis

A

Itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pyodermas

A

Pus forming bacterial skin infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sinus tract

A

Course or path of tissue destruction, occurring in any direction from the surface or edge of a wound (Tunneling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Slough

A

Soft, moist avascular tissue; maybe white yellow, tan gray, or green; may be loose or firmly adherent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Striae

A

Band like streaks on the skin, distinguished by color, texture, depression, or elevation from the tissue, in which they are found; usually purpleish or white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Suspensions

A

Liquid preparation in which powder is suspended, requiring shaking before use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tinea

A

A common superficial fungal infection on the skin or scalp (Ringworm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Undermining

A

Area of destroy tissue that extends extensively under intact skin along the periphery of a wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Xerosis

A

Overly dry rough skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Autograft

A

A graph derived from one part of a patient’s body and used on another part of the same patient’s body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Carboxyhemoglobin

A

Compound of carbon monoxide and hemoglobin formed in the blood with exposure to carbon Monoxide 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Collagen

A

A protein present in skin tendon, bone cartilage, and connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Contracture

A

Shrinkage of burn scar through collagen maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Debridement

A

Removal of Foreign material and devitalized tissue until surrounding healthy, tissue is exposed. 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Donor site

A

The area from which skin is taken to provide a skin graft for another part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Eschar

A

Devitalized tissue resulting from a burn or wound 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Escharitomy

A

A linear excision made through Escher to release constriction of underlying tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Fasciotomy

A

An incision made through the fascia to release constriction of underlying muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Homograft

A

A graft transferred from one human (Living or cadaveric) To another human (Allograft )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Xenograft

A

A graft attain from an animal of a species, other than that of the recipient (Pig skin ) (Heterograft )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Medication’s to know impetigo 

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cellulitis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Medication’s for Tinea ( Fungal )

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Patient education Tinea

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Medication management, scabies, and lice

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Erythema multifirom

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Medication, acne

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Medication acne 2

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Nursing management, Steven Johnson syndrome

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Anterior chamber

A

Aqueous containing space in the eye between the posterior cornea, and the anterior iris and pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Aqueous humor

A

Transparent nutrient containing fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Astigmatism

A

Refractive error due to an irregularity in the curvature of the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Binocular vision

A

Normal ability of both eyes to focus on one object, and fuse the two images into 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Blindness

A

Inability to see defined as corrected visual acuity of 20/200 or less or a visual field of no more than 20° in the better eye 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cataract

A

Progressive opacity of the lens of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Chemosis

A

Edema of the conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Diplopia

A

Seeing one object as to synonym double vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Ectropion

A

Turning out of the lower eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Emmetropia

A

Normal refractive condition resulting in clear. Focus on retina; no optical Defects 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Endophthalmitis

A

Intraocular infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Entropion

A

Turning of the lower eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Enucleation

A

Removal of the eyeball and part of the optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Evisceration

A

Removal of the intraocular contents through a corneal or scleral incision; the optic nerve sclera extraocular muscles, and sometimes the cornea are left intact 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Exenteration

A

Surgical removal of the entire contents of the orbit surrounding soft tissue, and most or all of the eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Exophthalmos

A

Abnormal protrusion of the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Glaucoma

A

Group of conditions characterized by increased intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Hyperemia

A

Red eyes resulting from dilation of the vasculature of the conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness; light rays, focus behind the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Hyphema

A

Blood in the anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Hypopyon

A

Collection of inflammatory cells in the anterior chamber of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Injection

A

Congestion of blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Keratoconus

A

Cone shaped deformity of the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness; light rays, focus in front of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Neovascularization

A

Growth of abnormal new blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Nystagmus

A

Involuntary oscillation of the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Papilledema

A

Swelling of the optic disc, usually due to increased intercranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Photophobia

A

Ocular pain on exposure to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Presbyopia 

A

Loss of accommodate of power in the lens due to age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Ptosis

A

Drooping eyelid

96
Q

Refraction

A

Determination of the refractive errors of the eye for the purpose of vision correction

97
Q

Scotomas

A

Blind or partially blind areas in the visual field

98
Q

Sympathetic ophthalmia 

A

An inflammatory condition created in the fellow, eye by the effected eye

99
Q

Trachoma

A

An infectious disease caused by the bacterium chlamydia trachomatis is the leading cause of preventable blindness in the world

100
Q

Trichiasis

A

Turning in of the eyelashes

101
Q

Vitreous humor

A

Transparent, colorless, gelatin is material that fills the vitreous chamber behind the lens

102
Q

Acute otitis media

A

Inflammation in the middle ear lasting less than six weeks

103
Q

Cholesteatoma

A

Tumor of the middle ear or mastoid, or both that can destroy structures of the temporal bone

104
Q

Chronic otitis media

A

Repeated episodes of acute otitis media, causing irreversible tissue damage

105
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Loss of hearing in which efficient sound transmission to the inner ear is interrupted by some obstruction or disease process

106
Q

Deaf culture

A

A community that consists of a group of people who are connected by their use of sign language

107
Q

Deafness

A

Partial or complete loss of the ability to hear

108
Q

Dizziness

A

Altered sensation of orientation in space

109
Q

Endolymphatic hydrops 

A

Dilation of the endolymphatic space of the inner ear; the pathologic correlate of meniere’s disease

110
Q

Exostises

A

Small, hard protrusions in the lower posterior bony portion of the ear canal

111
Q

External otitis

A

Inflammation of the external auditory canal

112
Q

Labyrinthitis

A

Inflammation of the labyrinth of the inner ear

113
Q

Ménière’s disease condition of the inner ear characterized by a triad of symptoms

A

Episodic vertigo Tinnitus and fluctuating Sensorneural hearing loss

114
Q

Middle ear effusion

A

Fluid in the middle ear without evidence of infection

115
Q

Myringotomy

A

Incision in the tympanic membrane

116
Q

Nystagmus

A

Involuntary rhythmic eye-movement

117
Q

Ossiculoplasty

A

Surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones to restore hearing

118
Q

Otalgia

A

Sensation of fullness or pain in the ear

119
Q

Otorrhea

A

Drainage from the ear

120
Q

Otosclerosis

A

A condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes

121
Q

Presbycusis

A

Progressive hearing loss associated with aging

122
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

Drainage from the nose

123
Q

Sensorneural hearing loss

A

Loss of hearing related to damage to the end organ for hearing or cranial nerve eight or both

124
Q

Tinnitus

A

Subjective perception of sound with internal origin; unwanted noise in the head or ear, most often described as ringing in the years

125
Q

Tympanoplasty

A

Surgical repair of the tympanic membrane

126
Q

Vertigo

A

Illusion of movement, in which the individual or the surroundings are sensed as moving

127
Q

Agnosia

A

Loss of ability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system; it may be visual, auditory, or tactile

128
Q

Ataxia

A

Inability to coordinate muscle movements, resulting in difficulty in walking talking and performing self-care activities

129
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

Division of the nervous system that regulates the involuntary body functions

130
Q

Axon

A

Portion of the neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body

131
Q

Babinski reflex sign 

A

A reflex action of the toes; in adult is indicative of abnormalities in the motor control pathways, leading from the cerebral cortex

132
Q

Clonus

A

Abnormal movement marked by alternating contraction and relaxation of a muscle occurring in rapid succession

133
Q

Delirium

A

An acute confused state that begins with disorientation, and if not recognized and treated early, can progress to changes in level of consciousnes And sometimes death

134
Q

Dendrite

A

Portion of the neuron that conducts impulses toward the cell body

135
Q

Flaccidity

A

Displaying a lack of muscle tone;limp floppy

136
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Division of the automatic nervous system, active primarily during non-stressful conditions, controlling, mostly visceral functions

137
Q

Position sense
Postural sense 

A

Awareness a position of parts of the body without looking at them i.e. proprioception

138
Q

Reflex

A

An automatic response to stimuli

139
Q

Rigidity

A

Increase in muscle tone at rest, characterized by increased resistance to passive stretch

140
Q

Romberg test

A

Test for cerebellar dysfunction that can be done with the patient seated or standing; inability to maintain position for 20 seconds is a positive test

141
Q

Spasticity

A

Sustained increase in tension of a muscle, when it is passively length, and are stretched

142
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Division of the automatic nervous system with predominantly excitatory responses synonym the fight or flight system

143
Q

Vertigo

A

 Illusion of movement, in which the individual are the surroundings or sensed as moving

144
Q

Rule of nines

A
145
Q

Major burns

A
146
Q

Phases of burn injury management

A
147
Q

Emergent burns

A
148
Q

Fluid and electrolyte, shifts, emergent phase

A
149
Q

Nursing in the emergent phase

A
150
Q

Medical management of burns

A
151
Q

Acute phase burns

A
152
Q

Fluid and electrolyte shift acute phase

A
153
Q

Nursing in the acute phase

A
154
Q

Wound care burns

A
155
Q

Pediatric Glasgow coma scale

A
156
Q

Levels Of consciousness

A
157
Q

Increased intercranial pressure

A
158
Q

Nursing interventions, pediatric seizures

A
159
Q

Ketogenic diet

A
160
Q

Akinetic mutism

A

Unresponsiveness to the environment; the patient makes no movement or sound, but sometimes opens the eyes

161
Q

Altered level of consciousness LOC

A

When a patient is not oriented, does not follow commands or needs persistent stimuli to achieve a state of alertness

162
Q

Brain death

A

Irreversible loss of all function of the entire brain, including the brain stem

163
Q

Coma

A

Prolonged state of unconsciousness

164
Q

Craniectomy

A

A surgical procedure, that involves removal of a portion of the skull

165
Q

Craniotomy

A

A surgical procedure that involves entry into the cranial vault

166
Q

Cushing’s response

A

The brains attempt to restore blood flow by increasing arterial pressure to overcomes the increased intercranial pressure

167
Q

Decrebration

A

An abnormal body posture associated with severe brain injury, characterized by extreme extension of the upper and lower extremities

168
Q

Decortication

A

And abnormal posture associated with severe brain injury, characterized by abnormal Flexon of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities

169
Q

Delirium

A

An acute confused state that begins with disorientation, and if not recognized and treated early, can progress to changes in level of consciousness, irreversible brain damage, and sometimes death

170
Q

Dementia

A

Broad term for a syndrome, characterized by general decline and higher brain functioning, such as reasoning, with a pattern of eventual, decline in the ability to perform even basic activities of daily living, such as toileting and eating

171
Q

Epilepsy

A

At least two unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24 hours apart

172
Q

Herniation

A

Abnormal protrusion of tissue through a defect or natural opening

173
Q

Intracranial pressure

A

Pressure exerted by the volume of the intracranial contents within the cranial vault

174
Q

Locked in syndrome

A

Condition, resulting from a lesion in the pons in which the patient lacks all distal motor activity i.e. paralysis, but cognition is intact

175
Q

Migraine

A

A severe unrelenting headache, often accompanied by symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances

176
Q

Minimally conscious state

A

A state in which the patient demonstrates awareness, but cannot communicate thoughts or feelings

177
Q

Monro-Kellie hypothesis

A

Theory that states that due to limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial Contant brain tissue blood or cerebrospinal fluid. CSF causes a change in the volume of the others.

178
Q

Persistent, vegetative state

A

Condition in which the patient is wakeful, but devoid of conscious contact without cognitive or affective mental function

179
Q

Primary headache

A

Headache, for which no specific organic cause can be found

180
Q

Prestobulbar effect

A

Emotional disturbance characterized by uncontrollable episodes of crying or laughing or other emotional displays

181
Q

Secondary headache

A

Headache identified as a symptom of another organic disorder, i.e. brain, tumor, hypertension

182
Q

Seizures

A

Proximal transient disturbance of the brain resulting from a discharge of abnormal electrical activity

183
Q

Status ellipticus 

A

Episode in which of the patient experiences multiple seizures with no recovery time in between

184
Q

Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy SUDEP

A

Non-traumatic non-drowning, unexpected, death of a patient with epilepsy

185
Q

Transsphenoidal

A

Surgical approach to the pituitary via the Sphenoid sinuses

186
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia

A

A life-threatening emergency in patients with spinal cord injury that causes a hypertensive emergency synonym automatic hyperreflexia

187
Q

Complete spinal cord lesion

A

A condition that involves total loss of sensation and voluntary muscle control below the lesion

188
Q

Concussion

A

A temporary loss of neurologic function with no apparent structural damage to the brain

189
Q

Contusion

A

Bruising of the brain surface

190
Q

Incomplete spinal cord lesion

A

A condition in which there is preservation of the sensory or motor fibers or both below the lesion

191
Q

Neurogenic bladder

A

Bladder dysfunction that results from a disorder or dysfunction of the nervous system; may result in either urinary retention or bladder over activity

192
Q

Paraplegia

A

Paralysis of the lower extremities with dysfunction of the bowel and bladder from a lesion in the thoracic lumbar sacral region of the spinal cord

193
Q

Primary injury

A

Initial damage to the brain that results from the traumatic event

194
Q

Secondary injury

A

An insult to the brain subsequent to the original traumatic event

195
Q

Spinal cord injury, SCI

A

An injury to the spinal cord vertebral column supporting soft tissue are intervertebral disc caused by trauma

196
Q

Tetraplegia

A

Varying degrees of paralysis of both arms and legs, with dysfunction of bowel and bladder from the lesion of the cervical segments of the spinal cord; formally called quadriplegia

197
Q

Transection

A

Severing of the spinal cord; transaction can be complete all the way through the spinal cord, are in complete partially through

198
Q

Traumatic brain injury

A

An injury to the skull or brain that is severe enough to interfere with normal functioning

199
Q

Traumatic brain injury, closed, blunt

A

Occurs when the head accelerates, and then rapidly decelerates or collides with another object and brain tissue is damaged, but there is no opening through the skull and dura

200
Q

Traumatic brain, injury, open, penetrating

A

Occurs when an object penetrates, the skull, enters the brain and damages, the soft brain tissue in its path, penetrating injury, or when blunt trauma to the head is so severe that it opens the scalp skull and Dura to expose the brain

201
Q

Glasgow coma scale

A
202
Q

Medication anticholinergics

A
203
Q

Glaucoma treatment

A
204
Q

General guidelines for ophthalmology drug therapy

A
205
Q

Guidelines for communicating with the hearing impaired

A
206
Q

Plan of care for a patient experiencing a seizure

A
207
Q

Monitoring, antiepileptic drug therapy

A



208
Q

Anti-epileptic drug valproic acid

A
209
Q

Management of migraine, headaches

A
210
Q

Nursing management of headache, education

A
211
Q

Migraine medication’s
NSAIDS naproxen, sodium 

A
212
Q

Migraine, medication, Aceta, medicine, aspirin, and caffeine

A
213
Q

Migraine medication’s ergot alkaloid

A
214
Q

Migraine medication serotonin 5HT agonist

A
215
Q

Nursing implications serotonin Five HT agonist 

A
216
Q

Stroke prevention

A
217
Q

Manifestations of ischemic stroke 

A
218
Q

Transient ischemic attack TIA

A
219
Q

Eligibility criteria for tissue, plasminogen activator administration

A
220
Q

Nursing management transient ischemic attack

A
221
Q

Nursing process stroke assessment

A
222
Q

Medical management acute phase of stroke

A
223
Q

Nursing care acute stroke

A
224
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke

A
225
Q

Hemorrhagicum stroke manifestations

A
226
Q

Preventative treatment and secondary prevention for strokes

A
227
Q

Nursing care post, acute phase stroke

A
228
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke assessment

A
229
Q

Aneurysms precautions

A
230
Q

Aneurysm assessment

A
231
Q

Evaluation of expected outcomes, stroke aneurysm

A
232
Q

Rash and legions primary legions

A
233
Q

Rash and legions secondary lesions

A
234
Q

Stages of melanomas

A
235
Q

Squamous cell cancer

A
236
Q

Basal cell cancer

A
237
Q

Burn degrees

A

Nur201 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions